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Patient Assessment Word Search Puzzle

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Flap 1 Flap 2
Four critical life functions  ventilation, oxygenation, circulation, perfusion  
Which critical life function is first priority?  Ventilation  
What assessment would measure how well a patient is ventilating?  oxygenation and perfusion  
How would you know if a patient has a problem with oxygenation?  heart rate, color, sensorium, PaO2  
What measurements would help you asses that a patient's circulations was adequate?  Pulse/heart rate  
What changes would indicate that a patient may not be getting good perfusion?  blood pressure, sensorium, temp.,  
Difference between signs and symptoms:  Signs: Objective information (color, pulse, edema, blood pressure) Symptoms: subjective info (dyspnea, pain, nausea)  
Formula for Smoking Pack Years:  # packs/day x # years  
Normal urine output:  40 cc/hour  
What would occur if the intake exceeds output?  Weight gain, electrolyte imbalance, increased blood pressure, decreased lung compliance  
Orthopnea  Difficulty breathing except when in the upright position  
General Malaise  run down feeling, nausea, weakness, fatigue, headache  
Dyspnea  shortness of breath or difficulty breathing  
dysphagia  Difficulty swallowing  
Peripheral Edema  Excessive fluid in the tissue caused by CHF and renal failure  
Venous Distension  occurs with CHF and seen with obstructive lung disease  
Clubbing  Angled nailbed and increased skin caused by hypoxemia  
Capillary refill  indicates peripheral circulation  
Diaphoresis  Heavy sweating. indicates heart failure, fever (infection), anxiety  
Ashen/pallor  decrease in skin color due to anemia or acute blood loss and vasoconstriction  
Erythema  redness, due to capillary congestion, inflamation, or infection  
Cyanosis  blue or blue-grey, caused by hypoxia from reduced hemoglobin  
Kyphosis  Hunch back or convex spinal curve  
Scoliosis  Lateral curvature of the spine  
Barrel chest  air trapping due to COPD  
Kyphoscoliosis  kyphosis and scoliosis causing severe restrictive impairment  
Symmectrical chest movement:  both sides of chest move at the same time  
underlying pathologies that will cause asymmectrical movement  Chronic lung disease, atelectasis, pneumothorax, Flail chest, ET tube in one lung  
Eupnea  Normal respiratory rate, depth, and rhythm  
Apnea  cessation of breathing  
Hyperpnea  Increased respiratory rate, increased depth, regular rhythm. Caused by metabolic disorder and CNS disorder  
Cheyne-Stokes breathing  gradually increasing then decreasing rate and depth in a cycle lasting from 30-180 sec. with periods of apnea lasting up to 60 sec. caused by increased ICP, meningitis, drug overdose  
Biots Breathing  increased rate and depth with irregular periods of apnea, each breath has same depth. caused by CNS problem  
Kussmauls breathing  increased rate (usually of 20 bpm) increased depth, irregular rhythm, breathing sounds labored. caused by metabolic acidosis, renal failure, diabetic ketoacidosis  
Apneustic Breathing  prolonged gasping inspiration followed by extremely short, insufficient expiration. caused by problems with respiratory center, trauma or tumor  
normal ventilation muscles  Diaphragm and external intercostals  
What are the muscles used to increase ventilation (accessory muscles)?  Normal ventilation muscles, scalene, sternocleidomastoid, and abdominals  
hypertrophy of muscles  With COPD  
Normal pulse rate:  60-100 bpm  
Tachycardia indicates  Hypoxemia, anxiety, stress  
bradycardia indicates  heart failure, shock  
Paradoxical pulse/ pulsus paradoxus  pulse/blood pressure varying with respiration. may indicate severe air trapping  
Causes of tracheal deviation pulled to abnormal side (toward pathology):  Pulmonary atelectasis, pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonectomy, diaphragmatic paralysis, inside lung  
Causes of tracheal deviation pushed to normal side (away from pathology):  Massive pleural effusion, tension pneumothorax, enlarged lymph nodes, large mediastinal mass, neck or thyroid tumorsoutside lung  
Tactile fremitus  vibrations felt on chest wall  
rhonchial fremitus  secretions in the airways  
Resonance  Normal air filled lungs, gives a hollow sound  
Flatness  areas over the sternum, muscle or areas of atelectasis giving a full sound  
Dullness  areas over fluid-filled organs (heart or liver). pneumonia and pleural effusions will give this thudding sound  
Tympany  area over air-filled stomach. drum-like sound over lungs indicates increased volume  
Hyperresonance  pneumothorax or emphysema are present making a booming sound  
What is the difference between vesicular and adventitious breath sounds?  vesicular breath sounds are normal, adventitious is abnormal  
Egophony  patient is instructed say "E" and it sounds like "A". indicates consolidation of the lung tissue  
Coarse rales  Secretions in large airways. Suction/ Cough  
Medium rales  middle airway secretions. CPT  
Fine rales/crackles  Alveoli fluids. Caused by CHF and pulmonary edema. IPPB, heart drugs, diuretics, O2  
Wheeze  Bronchospasm. Bronchodilator (unilateral wheeze indicates foreign body obstruction)  
Stridor  Upper airway obstruction--epiglotitis, subglottic swelling, foreign obstruction. racemic epi., suction and/or bronchoscopy or intubation  
pleural rub  inflamed visceral and parietal pleural rubbing. steroids and antibiotics  
First heart sound  closure of the mitral valve and tricuspid valves  
Second heart sound  systole ends, pulmonic and aortic valves close  
Third heart sound  diastole. rapid ventricular filling immediately after systole  
Fourth heart sound  late in diastole and produced by active filling of ventricles  
murmur  heart valves stenotic or incompetent  
Bruits  turbulent blood flow  
how to evaluate a murmur?  echo-cardiogram  
ET tube appear on an x-ray  below vocal chords and 2 cm above the carina  
What will quickly determine adequate ventilation before a chest x-ray is done?  observation and auscultation  
when are the costophrenic angles obliterated?  with pleural effusion  
Lateral position of chest x-ray  projection from either side. determines epiglottitis, croup, foreign body  
lateral decubitus on chest x-ray  patient lying of the affected side, detects plueral effusions  
describe a normal chest x-ray  diaphragm dome-shaped, right hemidiaphragm is slightly higher than left and at level with 6th anterior rib, trachea is mid-line, bilateral radiolucency with sharp costophrenic angles  
proper position of chest tube  in the pleural space surrounding lung  
proper position of nasogastric and feeding tube  in the stomach and small bowel below diaphragm  
position of pulmonary artery catheter  right lower lung  
position of pacemaker  right ventricle  
position of central venous catheter  right or left subclavian or jugular vein and resting the vena cava or right atrium of the heart  
Radiolucent  dark pattern. normal for lungs  
Radiodense  white pattern, solid, fluid. normal for bones or organs  
Infiltrate  any ill defined radiodensity. atelectasis  
Consolidation  white solid area. pneumonia/pleural effusion  
Hyperlucency  extra pulmonary air. COPD, asthma attack, pneumothorax  
Vascular markings (x-ray)  lymphatics, vessels, lung tissue. increased CHF, absent with pneumothorax  
Diffuse (x-ray)  spread throughout. atelectasis/ pneumonia  
Opaque (x-ray)  Fluid/solid. consolidation  
Fluffy infiltrates  diffuse whiteness. Pulmonary edema  
Butterfly pattern (x-ray)  infiltrate butterfly shaped. pulmonary edema  
patchy infiltrates  scattered densities. atelectasis  
plate-like infiltrates  thin-layered densities. atelectasis  
ground glass appearance (x-ray)   ARDS/IRDS  
Honeycomb Pattern (x-ray)   ARDS/IRDS  
Air Bronchogram  pneumonia/edema  
Peripheral wedge-shaped infiltrate  pulmonary embolus/infarction  
concave superior interface/border  pleural effusion  
basilar infiltrates with meniscus  plueral effusion  
main indication for a bronchography?  obstructive lesions and bronchiectasis  
hazards of bronchogram  allergic reactions, impairment of respiratory state  
Describe how V/Q scan is performed  Ventilation--radioisotope xenon gas is inhaled and recorded. Perfusion--radioactive iodine is injected in vein and recorded when it reaches pulmonary circulation.  
normal ventilation but abnormal perfusion indicates  pulmonary emboli  
the advantage of using an MRI over conventional x-ray?  determine the precise position of tumors and involvement of surrounding structures  
What type of ventilators are used with a MRI and Why?  Fluidic (non-electric) vent. because the magnetic fields disrupt electronic devices  
What does the CT provide the practitioner?  cross sectional view (slices) of body structures and multiple levels  
what types of pathologies would a CT indicate?  Mediastinal mass, pleural and parenchymal masses, pulmonary nodules and lesions not visualized on chest x-ray  
CBC measures  All ingredients of blood: RBC, Hb, Hct, WBC  
Describe RBC's  carries Hb/O2. norm: 4-6. Low: anemia, blood loss. High: ploycythemia, chronic hypoxemia, COPD  
Describe Hb  Carries O2. Norm: 12-16. Low: anemia. High: polycythemia  
Describe Hct  blood spun and measure the % of RBC's to original blood volume. Norm: 40-50%. Low: anemia. High: polycythemia  
Describe WBC  Fights bacterial infection. Norm: 5000-10000. Low: Leukopnia, viral infection. High: Leukocytosis, bacterial infection  
Neutrophils  major WBCs  
Difference between Bands and Segs:  Bands-- immature cells, 4% WBC, increased with bacterial infection. Segs-- Mature cells, 60% WBCs, decreased with bacterial infection  
eosinophils are associated with?  Asthma  
electrolytes and their function  elements required by the body for normal metabolism  
Clinical Application of Electrolyte imbalance  Muscle weakness, soreness, nausea and mental changes  
Describe Potassium  Major intracellular cation. Norm: 3.5-5.0 Low: Hypokalemia,metabolic alkalosis, excessive secretions, renal loss, flattened T wave. High: Hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, kidney failure, spiked T wave  
Describe sodium  major extracellular cation controlled by kidneys, Norm: 135-145. Low: hyponatremia, fluid loss  
Describe chloride  major extracellular anion. Norm:85-100. Hypochloremia, metabolic alkalosis. High: Hyperchloremia, metabolic acidosis  
Describe Bicarbonate  Total CO2 content. Norm: 22-26. Low: metabolic acidosis High: metabolic alkalosis  
What does a BUN measure?  kidney function  
increase in creatinine indicates  kidney failure  
mucoid sputum indicates  Chronic bronchitis  
yellow sputum indicates  bacterial infection  
green sputum indicates  bronchiectasis  
red sputum indicates  bleeding, tumor, TB  
pink frothy sputum indicates  pulmonary edema  
Describe Bleeding time test  puncture the skin and time how long it takes to stop bleeding. norm: up to 6 min. evaluates functions of platelets  
What is an acid fast stain done for?  myobacterium TB  
Describe Platelet count  forms clots in blood (coagulation). norm: 150,000-400,000. Decreased values are assoc. with decreased bone marrow function  
Describe activated partial thromboplastin time  length of time required for plasma to form a fibrin clot. norm: 24-32 sec. used for monitoring Heparin therapy  
Describe prothrombin time  used for monitoring Warfarin (coumadin) therapy. norm: 12-15 sec.  
Describe Urinalysis  reflects metabolic status and screening for kidney disease  
Hemodynamics  movement of blood or circulation/perfusion of blood  
factors controll blood pressure  heart, blood, vessels  
Of the factors that control blood pressure, how would these cause an increase in blood pressure?  Heart-- increase in rate/strength. Blood-- excessive fluid Vessels-- constriction  
What are the 4 chambers of the heart and what are the 4 circulatory branches each chamber serves?  Left Ventricle---systemic arteries (aortic valve). Right atria-- systemic veins (tricuspid valve) Right Vent-- pulmonic arteries (pulmonic valve). Left atria-- pulmonary veins (mitral valve)  
Describe electrophysiology of the heart:  impulse starts at SA, wave depolar. through atria causing contraction (P), received at AV where delayed (P-R), then sent through bundle of HIS, to Purkinje fibers, vent. depolar(QRS), after short delay(S-T) repolarize (T wave)  
Treatment of tachycardia:  give O2 and treat symptoms  
treatment for bradycardia  O2 and atropine  
treatment for PVCs  O2 and Lidocane  
Treatment for pulseless V-tach  defib 200 joules  
treatment for V-fib  defib 200 joules  
What 2 factors will affect the direction of the axis?  Hypertrophy and infarction  
Describe 1st degree AV Block  PR interval > 5 mm.  
Describe 2nd degree AV block  irregular rhythm, normal P wave, missing QRS complex  
Describe 3rd degree AV block  atrial rate > 60 bpm, ventricular rate < 40 bpm. no PR interval, widened QRS complex  
Describe Ischemia  reduced blood flow to the tissue,depressed or inverted T wave  
Describe injury  acute damage to heart tissue. elevated ST segment  
Describe infarction  necrosis or death of tissue. significant Q waves  
term infant age  38-42 weeks  
preterm infant age  < 38 weeks  
post term infant age  > 42 weeks  
ET tube size for full term infant:  3 mm  
when is an APGAR score routinely done?  at 1 min--neonatal survival, 5 min-- future neonatal damage  
when should a transillumination test be recommended?  with suspected pneumothorax  
What is the new ballard score used for?  estimation gestational age in low birth weight infants  
normal new ballard score  40  
what would indicate a right to left shunt?  15 mmHg difference in pre- and post- ductal blood gas  
What is a L/S Ratio test used for?  Lung maturity