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Rad Physics Final
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| 1/7 + 5/9 = | 44/63 |
| 1/6 / 4/5 (divided) = | 5/24 |
| 5/8 x 7/9 = | 35/72 |
| Convert 7/12 to a decimal | 0.583 |
| Convert 23.46 to a percent | 2,346% |
| Convert 540.7 to scientific notation | 5.407 x 10² |
| 2.63 x 10 -² | 0.0263 |
| Convert 7 feet to inches | 84 |
| Convert 74 kv to volts | 74,000 volts |
| The unit of mass is the | kg |
| "Matter or energy can neither be created not destroyed describes what? A. Inertia B. Law of conservation C. Work D. None of the above | B.Law of conservation |
| Atomic structure being similar to the makeup of the solar system is mentioned in what writing? A. Charles Law B. Thompson's atomic theory C. Bohr theory D. Tesla's law | C. Bohr theory |
| A simple substance which cannot be broken down into any simpler substances by ordinary means is called a? A. Mixture B. Element C. Compound D. Molecule | B. Element |
| Which answer identifies a chemical union of two or more elements? A. Ionization B. Compound C. Mixture D. Isotope | B. Compound |
| What is determined by the number of protons in an atom? A. Atomic mass B. Atomic number C. Isotope number D. Valance | B. Atomic number |
| The number of neutrons in an atom determines the? A. Atomic number B. Chemical binding abilities C. Valance D. Isotope number | D. Isotope number |
| An electron is ______ charged and has mass of ____amu(s)? A. Positively;1 B. Negatively; 0.000548 C. Neutral;1 D. Positively; 0.000548 | B. Negatively; 0.000548 |
| The number of electrons orbiting the nucleus determines the? A. Atomic mass B. Atomic number C. Isotope number D. Valance | D. Valance |
| In an electrically neutral atom, the number of protons will always equal the number of what? A. Neutrons B. Isotopes C. Electrons D. Energy shells | C. Electrons |
| Unlike the question above, an atom with a greater or lesser number of electrons than protons is said to be? A. Neutral B. Unstable C. Ionized D. Excited | C. Ionized |
| Isotopes have _____ mass number and _____ atomic numbers? A. The same; the same B. The same; different C. Different; the same D. Different; different | C. Different; the same |
| Atomic number= 92/ Atomic mass=238/ Ion status=neutral. How many electrons in this atom? A. 92 B. 238 C. 146 D. Insufficient data | A. 92 |
| Atomic number= 92/ Atomic mass=238/ Ion status=neutral. How many proton in this atom? A. 92 B. 238 C. 146 D. Insuffient data | A. 92 |
| Atomic number= 92/ Atomic mass=238/ Ion status=neutral. How many neutrons in this atom? A. 92 B. 238 C. 146 D. Insuffient data | C. 146 |
| Atomic number= 92/ Atomic mass=238/ Ion status=neutral. How many isotopes in this atom? A. 92 B. 238 C. 146 D. Insuffient data | D. Insufficient data |
| The distance between crests of electromagnetic waves? A. Hertz B. Frequency C. Wavelength D. Lambda E. Nu | C. Wavelength |
| The symbol for the above question? A. Hertz B. Frequency C. Wavelength D. Lambda E. Nu | D. Lambda |
| The number of crests passing in one second? A. Hertz B. Frequency C. Wavelength D. Lambda E. Nu | B. Frequency |
| The symbol for the above question? A. Hertz B. Frequency C. Wavelength D. Lambda E. Nu | E. Nu |
| #17 is measured in this unit of measurement? | A. Hertz |
| Increases as the number of electrons and protons increases? A. Electron B. Neutron C. Proton D. Binding energy | D. Binding energy |
| A change in the number of these changes the identity of the element?A. Electron B. Neutron C. Proton D. Binding energy | C. Proton |
| Possesses a negative charge and minute mass? A. Electron B. Neutron C. Proton D. Binding energy | A. Electron |
| A gain or loss of this atomic particle creates an isotope? A. Electron B. Neutron C. Proton D. Binding energy | B. Neutron |
| The formula comparing frequency to energy (particle theory) is? A. W=fd B. E=hv C. E=mc2 D. c=^V | D. E=hv |
| The formula comparing frequency to wavelength (wave theory)? A. W=fd B. E=hv C. E=mc2 D. c=^V | D. c=^V |
| High energy electromagnetic radiation will have? A. Long wavelengths B. High frequency C. Poor tissue penetration | B. High frequency |
| X-ray tubes produce beams that are homogenous and monoenergetic? A. True B. False | B. False |
| X-rays will ionize atoms by removing electrons from their orbits? A. True B. False | A. True |
| X-rays have a dualistic nature: behaving like particles and also like waves? A. True B. False | A. True |
| The electron binding energy decreases as the Z# increase? A. True B. Fase | |
| All of the following are true of electromagnetic energies EXCEPT: A. They are illustrated as sinusoidal waves B. They possess both wave and particle characteristics C. The relationship between frequency and wavelength is direct and proportional | C. The relationship between frequency and wavelength is direct and proportional |
| The maximum number of electrons found in any energy level (shell) at any point in time is calculated by the formula? A. V=IR B. W=fd C. N=amu x Z D. 2n2(squared) | D. 2n2(squared) |
| What is the maximum number of electrons allowed in the M shell? A. 18 B. 2 C. 8 D. 32 | A. 18 |
| According to the "rule of octets"? A. 8 energy levels have electrons B. 8 protons occupy the outermost shell C. The valence shell is chemically inert D. Both a and c | C. The valence shell is chemically inert |
| Groups of the periodic table? A. Represent elements with the same outer electron configuration B. Are horizontal C. REpresent elements with the same atomic density D. None of the above | A. Represent elements with the same outer electron configuration |
| A period in the periodic table is? A. Represented by a column B. Vertical C. The principal quantum number D. Determined by the valence electrons | C. the principal quantum number |
| When comparing Iodine (Z=53) with barium (Z=56)? A. Barium has a lower k-shell binding energy B. Iodine has more neutrons C. Iodine has 5 orbitals with electrons D. Barium has fewer protons | C. Iodine has 5 orbitals with electrons |
| What is the atomic mass of 12C6? A. 12 B. 6 C. 18 D. 2 | A. 12 |
| (Refer to Test 2) What is V1? A. 20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 80 | D. 80 |
| (Refer to Test 2) What is I2? A. 133.3 B. 266.6 C. 533.3 D. 799.8 | B. 266.6 |
| (Refer to Test 2) What IT? A. 533.3 B. 266.6 C. 133.3 D. 799.8 | A. 533.3 |
| (Refer to Test 2) What is RT? A. 300 B. 150 C. 450 D. 600 | D. 150 |
| Electric insulators? A. Convert electrical energy into heat B. Consist of materials like silicon C. Inhibit movement of electrical charge D. Permit movement of electrical charge | C. Inhibit movement of electrical charge |
| An ampere is? A. Coulomb/sec B. (coulomb)(sec) C. (volt)(ohm) D. Ohm/volt | A. Coulomb/sec |
| Resistance is? A. The opposition to the flow of electrons B. The opposition to the generation of electromotive force C. The location of storage of electrons D. Measured in amperes | A. The opposition to the flow of electrons |
| The unit of electrical power is? A. Joule B. Volt C. Ampere D. Watt | D. Watt |
| 6.24 x 10 (to the 18th) electrons flowing past a point per second defines one? A. Volt B. Ampere C. Ohm D. Watt | B. Ampere |
| It takes one volt to push one ampere through ____ ohm of resistance? A. One B. Ten C. One hundred D. No way to tell | A. One |
| Which of the following terms are similar? i.Electromotive force ii. Potential difference iii. Wattage A. i and ii B. i and iii C. ii and iii D. i, ii, and iii | A. i and ii |
| The resistance in a wire decreases as its? A. Diameter increases B. Diameter decreases C. Temperature increases D. Surface area increases | A. Diameter increases |
| When an electric current flows through a wire with resistance, energy is? A. Liberated as x-rays B. Liberated as heat C. Liberated as light D. Absorbed as heat | B. Liberated as heat |
| In a parallel circuit? A. Ohm's law does not apply B. Total current flow is equal across its parallel branches C. The voltage is equal across all branches of the circuit D. As more resistors are added total resistance increases | C. The voltage is equal across all branches of the circuit |
| The milliampere (mA) is a unit of? A. EMF B. Voltage C. Current D. Potential difference | C. Current |
| The difference in electrical pressure between two points in a circuit is called what? A. Potential difference B. Amperage C. Resistance D. Polarity | A. Potential difference |
| How does electricity flow through a conductor? A. K shell electrons jump from atom to atom B. Valance electrons jump from atom to atom C. Neutrons jump from atom to atom | B. Valace electrons jump from atom to atom |
| Which of the following will cause a decrease in resistance in a conductor? A. Increase the length B. Increase the cross-sectional area C. Increase the temperature D. Increase the dielectric (insulation) properties of the material | B. Increase the cross-sectional area |
| Which of the following is considered to be an insulator? A. Copper B. Salt Water C. Aluminum D. Plastic | D. Plastic |
| How can we make something take on a negative static charge? A. Add electrons B. Remove electrons C. Add protons D. subtract neutrons | A. Add electrons |
| Which statement is not correct? A. Like charges repel, unlike charges attract B. The charge is greatest on the most cured part of an oblong sphere C. The charge can exist on the interior part of the conductor D. Only - charges can move thru a conductor | C.The charge can exist on the interior part of the conductor |
| A device that chemically produces potential difference is what? A. Generator B. Battery C. Dynamo D. Capacitor | B. Battery |
| A device that allows the free flow of electrons is calleD? A. Resistor B. Insulator C. Dielectric D. Conductor | D. Conductor |
| Electric potential is measured in? A. Coulombs B. Joules C. Volts D. Ohms | C. Volts |
| You should not plug many cords into one outlet because a fire may result when the total ______? A. Resistance goes up B. Voltage goes up C. Amperage goes up | C. Amperage goes up |
| The power in a circuit equals? A. V x R B. V.R C. V/I D. V x I | D. V x I |
| If the total resistance in a circuit is 9 ohms and the total voltage is 3 volts, the current is? A. 1/27 ampere B. 1/3 ampere C. 3 amperes D. 27 amperes | B. 1/3 ampere |
| A current of 2 amperes and a resistance of 8 ohms requre what voltage in a series circuit? A. 1/16 volt B. 1/4 volt C. 4 volts D. 16 volts | D. 16 volts |
| If 20 volts of potential difference causes a current of 5 amperes to flow in a parallel circuit, the resistance produced is? A. 1/100 ohm B. 1/4 ohm C. 4 ohm D. 100 ohm | C. 4 ohm |
| The greatest concentration of charges will gather at the sharpest area of curvature? A. True B. False | A. True |
| Induction is the process of electric fields acting upon each with contact? A. True B. False | B. False |
| Electrons move from areas of high concentration to low concentration? A. True B. False | A. True |
| Resistance is dependent on all of the following except? A. Materials conductivity B. Length C. Mass D. Temp | C. Mass |
| Which of the following is inversely related to resistance? A. Length B. Materials conductivity C. Temp D. Diameter | D. Diameter |
| The force between 2 charges is directly proportional to the product of their magnitudes and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them is inverse square law? A. True B. False | A. True |
| The earth serves as an infinite reservoir of zero or ground potential? A. True B. False | A. True |
| All of the following are methods of electrification except? A. Friction B. Contact C. Induction D. Kinetic energy | D. Kinetic energy |
| The equation of Ohm's Law is? A. V=IR B. V=I/R C. V= R/I D. I=R/V | A. V=IR |
| A device to control resistance? | Rheostat |
| Receiving an electrical shock form touching a door know? | Electrification by contact |
| The production of lightning? | Electrification by induction |
| It=I1+I2+I3+In? | Parallel circuit |
| 10V+5V+12V+3V=30V | Series circuit |
| A magnetic field is produced by? A. Electric charges at rest B. Electric charges in motion C. Permanent magnets only D. Electric charges both at rest and in motion | B. Electric charges in motion |
| An alternately expanding and contracting magnetic field is produced by? A. A stationary magnet B. A steady current flowing in a wire C. A battery D. None of the above | D. None of the above |
| Retentivity refers to what? A. Electrical resistance of a magnet B. Strength of a magnetic field C. The ability of a magnet to resist demagnetization D. The ability to magnetize something | C. The ability of a magnet to resist demagnetization |
| Like poles of magnets do what? A. Repel each other B. Attract each other C. Neutralize each other D. Have no effect on the other | A. Repel each other |
| The magnetic flux thru a wire loop? A. Requires a time-varying magnetic field B. Is max when the plane of the loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field C. Increases as the magnetic field decreases D. Stays fixed in orientation regardless of electron flo | B. Is max when the plane of the loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field |
| Which of the following elements is not attracted by a magnet? A. Iron B. Copper C. Nickel D. Cobalt | B. Copper |
| A generator is a device that converts? A. Electrical energy to thermal energy B. Thermal energy to electrical energy C. Mechanical energy to electrical energy D. Electrical energy to mechanical energy | C. Mechanical energy to electrical energy |
| Lines of force (flux) around a magnet move? A. North to south B. East to west C. South to north D. North to west | A. North to south |
| Opposition to the flow (resistance) of AC in a coil is referred to as what? A. Inductance (back EMF) B. Power (watts) C. Capacitance (farads) D. RMS value (root mean square) | A. Inductance (back EMF) |
| The power loss in an electrical circuit may be defined by which equation? A. PL=IV B. PL=V/I C. PL=I2(squared)R D. PL=IR2(squared) | C. PL=I2(squared)R |
| An AC generator will not have what device? A. Electromagnets B. Armature C. Slip-rings D. Commutator | D. Commutator |
| A simple DC generator has essentially the same construction as an AC generator except that a DC generator employs the use of? A. Slip rings B. Commutator C. Brushes D. Armature | B. Commutator |
| A rectifier? A. Refers to a type of electromagnetic device B. Changes electron flow to current flow C. Converts DC to AC D. Converts AC to DC | A. Converts AC to DC |
| A motor is a device that converts? A. Thermal energy into electrical energy B. Electrical energy into mechanical energy C. Electrical energy into electromagnetic energy D. Mechanical energy into electrical energy | B. Electrical energy into mechanical energy |
| A transformer with more secondary windings than primary windings? A. Has a greater secondary voltage B. Is a step down transformer C. Has a greater power output than input D. Has a high power loss | A. Has a greater secondary voltage |
| How many times does an AC current change direction in a single minute? A. 30 B. 60 C. 120 D. 7200 | D. 7200 |
| The efficiency of a transformer is not affected by? A. Eddy current loss B. Power loss C. Hysteresis loss D. The transformer turns ratio | D. The transformer turns ratio |
| American generators operate at? A. 220V B. 120AC C. 60Hz D. 30A | C. 60Hz |
| A stator consists of? A. Bars of copper around an iron core B. Commutator rings C. A rotor D. Electromagnets | D. Electromagnets |
| Conventional current flows? A From cathode to anode B. From anode to cathode C. In either direction D. In the same direction as the electron flow | B. From anode to cathode |
| Electron current flows? A. From cathode to anode B. From anode to cathode C. In either direction D. In the same direction as the electron flow | A. From cathode to anode |
| All of the following are true of transformers EXCEPT? A. They have no moving parts B. They work on principle of mutual induction C. They work most efficiently on pulsating DC D. They are designed to regulate voltage | C. They work most efficiently on pulsating DC |
| If a transformer is supplied with 16 volts and 4 amperes the output current from this transformer with an output voltage of 1200 volts would be? A. 24volts B. 0.02volts C. 480amperes D. 800 amperes | B. 0.02 volts |
| All of the following are true of autotransformers EXCEPT? A. They are considered a variable transformer B. The primary & secondary coils are in series C. The primary and secondary windings share a common coil D. They are effective in controlling volt on | D. They are effective in controlling voltage on the high voltage side of the circuit |
| The first coil in a transformer is called the primary coil? A. True B. False | A. True |
| Power loss due to resistance in the wire of the coils is called hysteresis loss? T/F | False |
| Laminated transformer cores help to reduce power loss from eddy currents? T/F | True |
| This transformer will raise voltage? A. Step up B. Step down | B. Step down |
| This transformer uses electromagnetic self induction? A. Step up B. Autotransformer C. Step down | B. Autotransformer |
| A rectifier changes? A. DC to AC B. AC to DC | B. AC to DC |
| The effective of a magnetic field is dependent on which of the following? 1. Diameter of the coil 2. Length of the coil 3. Current in the coil A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 1,2 and 3 | D. 1, 2 and 3 |
| In the left-hand rule, the fingers indicate which of the following? A. Direction of electron flow B. Direction of the conventional current flow C. Direction of the magnetic field D. Direction of the conductor motion | C. Direction of the magnetic field |
| Which type of transformer core is most commonly used with x-ray generators? A. Shell core B. Closed core C. Open core D. Air core | A. Shell core |
| A transformer has 100 primary and 400 secondary turns of wire. What is the secondary voltage if 220 volts are placed on the primary coil (assuming no power loss occurs)? A. .88volts B. 880volts C. 1880volts D. 88volts | B. 880 volts |
| If a magnet is brought near a piece of iron, the iron nearest the magnet will assume the opposite polarity. This is called what? A. Permeability B. Retentivity C. Induction D. Paramagnetism | C. Induction |
| The process of electron being emitted form heated metallic surfaces is called? A. Thermionic emission B. Electrolysis C. Electroplating D. Potential difference | A. Thermionic emission |
| Lines of force always flow _________ to _______ inside a magnet? A. South to north B. North to south C. East to west D. West to east | A. South to north |
| Which of these units is not classified as a diagnostic unit? A. Chest-dedicated unit B. Particle accelerator C. Radiographic and fluoroscopic D. C-arm | B. Particle accelerator |
| Which tube suspension system offers the greatest multidirectional movement? A. Overhead tube suspension system B. Floor to ceiling tube suspension system C. Floor tube suspension system D. Mobile tube suspension system | A. Overhead tube suspension system |
| Which generator provides the greatest x-ray output? A. Full wave single phase B. 3phase, 6pulse C. 3phase, 12pulse D. Half-wave, single phase | C. 3phase 12 pulse |
| If 60Hz AC power is full-wave rectified, output voltage will consist of? A. Zero ripple B. 70% ripple C. 60 pulses per second D. 90 pulses per second E. 120 pulses per second | E. 120 pulses per second |
| Power to the primary side of the high-voltage transformer comes from the? A. Filament transformer B. Line voltage compensator C. Rectifier D. Autotransformer | D. Autotransformer |
| Heating the filament to liberate electrons is called thermionic emission? T/F | TRUE |
| Rectification is the process of changing DC to AC? T/F | FALSE |
| Electrons flow from - to + in x-ray circuits? T/F? | TRUE |
| At what point in the x-ray circuit is the rectification circuit located between? A. The semiconductors & the valve tubes B. The step-down transformer & the rheostat C. The stepup transformer & x-ray tube D. The thermionic diode tubes and the xray machine | C. Between the step-up transformer and the x-ray tube |
| The exposure switch on an x-ray machine is intended to? A. Initiate the exposure B. Terminate the exposure C. Both initiate and terminate the exposure D. Rotate the anode up to speed | A. Initiate the exposure |
| All of the following are radiographer-operated controls except? A. kVp selection B. Timer selection C. Rotor speed D. mA selection | C. Rotor speed |
| When using AEC at 80 kVp, backup times? A. Must not exceed 600 mAs B. Are of no concern due to the AEC reliability C. May range from 600 to 2000 mAs D. Should be manually set at 300% of the expected manual mAs | A. Must not exceed 600 mAs |
| Nearly all types of x-ray equipment operates from an incoming line of A. 210 V B. 120 AC C. 120 Hz D. 210 A | A. 210 V |
| All of the following are desired features of radiographic tables EXCEPT? A. Variable height to improve pt safety B. Floating table tops to enhance patient positioning C. Low abrasion surface to lessen pt slippage as they transfer D. Carbon fiber material | C. Low abrasion surface to lessen pt slippage as they transfer |
| Falling load generator? A. Permit high mA exposures for short exposure times B. Permit the mA to fall as exposure time increases C. Are designed to use the highest allowable mA D. All of the above | D. All of the above |
| Automatic exposure control (AEC) technology determines? A. Pt thickness B. Exposure time C. kVp D. mA | B. Exposure time |
| When compared to batterypowered portable units, capacitor discharge mobile units? A. Produce average kVp energy higher than battery units B. Never need external source for charging C. Have a tendency to produce leakage exposure after exposure termination | C. Have a tendency to produce leakage exposure after exposure termination |
| When compared to single-phase electrical current, 3phase power? A. Permits shorter exposures B. Produces 360 pulses per second C. Produces less voltage ripple D. All of the above | D. All of the above |
| The filament current is measured in? A. Volts B. Amps C. Kilovolts D. Milliamperes | B. Amps |
| The tube voltage is measured in? A. Volts B. Amps C. Kilovolts D. Milliamperes | C. Kilovolts |
| An electron cloud (thermionic emission) is produced around the cathode inside the x-ray tube via the? A. Filament circuit B. High voltage circuit C. Phototimer circuit D. Low voltage circuit | A. Filament circuit |
| The electron in the question above are drive across the anode of the x-ray tube by the? A. Filament circuit B. High voltage circuit C. Phototimer circuit D. None of the above | B. High voltage circuit |
| The mA controls the _____ of x-rays produced by the x-ray tube? A. Quality (penetrating ability) B. Quantity (number of x-rays) | B. Quantity (number of x-rays) |
| The kVp controls the ____ of x-rays produced by the x-ray tube? A. Quality B. Quantity | A. Quality |
| What is the power output of a 3phase generator that can produce 100 kV at a maximum of 500mA? A. 600 KW B. 600,000KW C. 50,000KW D. 50KW | C. 50,000KW |
| The rheostat is connected to the? A. kV selector B. mA selector C. Time selector | B. mA selector |
| The autotransformer is connected to the? A. kV selector B. mA selector C. Time selector | A. kV selector |
| The timing circuit is connected to the? A. kV selector B. mA selector C. Time selector | C. Time selector |
| What device makes sure that the x-ray tube operates in a saturated state (max mA all the time)? A. Space charge compensator B. Falling load generator C. Kilovoltmeter D. Ammeter | A. Space charge compensator |
| 12 pulse rectification produces ripple of about 4%? A. Single phase generator B. 3phase generator C. High frequency generator D. Capacitor discharge generator E. Falling load generator | B. 3 phase generator |
| Discharges a capacitor thru the x-ray tube to create x-rays? A. Single phase generator B. 3phase generator C. High frequency generator D. Capacitor discharge generator E. Falling load generator | D. Capacitor discharge generator |
| 6pulse rectification produces ripple of about 14%? A. Single phase generator B. 3phase generator C. High frequency generator D. Capacitor discharge generator E. Falling load generator | B. 3 phase generator |
| kV drops in relation to the selected mAs during exposure (not good)? A. Single phase generator B. 3phase generator C. High frequency generator D. Capacitor discharge generator E. Falling load generator | D. Capacitor discharge generator |
| Requires 3 of everything-autotransformers, step up windings, etc.? A. Single phase generator B. 3phase generator C. High frequency generator D. Capacitor discharge generator E. Falling load generator | B. 3 phase generator |
| Uses a chopper to produce output current 500-5000Hz? A. Single phase generator B. 3phase generator C. High frequency generator D. Capacitor discharge generator E. Falling load generator | C. HIgh frequency generator |
| Step-up transformer and rectifier system can be made very small? A. Single phase generator B. 3phase generator C. High frequency generator D. Capacitor discharge generator E. Falling load generator | C. High frequency generator |
| Max mA is always selected by the machine during exposure resulting in short exposure (no breathing technique)? A. Single phase generator B. 3phase generator C. High frequency generator D. Capacitor discharge generator E. Falling load generator | E. Falling load generator |
| Tilting tables are sometimes described by their tilting capabilities? T/F | TRUE |
| It is acceptable to use compression bands as the sole restraint device? T/F | FALSE |
| What is the power output of a singe phase generator that can produce 110 kV and 300 mA? A. 33,000KW B. 33KW C. 23,300KW D. 23.3KW | C. 23,300 KW |
| What is the filament made of? A. Copper B. Tungsten C. Iron D. Molybdenum | B. Tungsten |
| A dual focus tube will always have 2? A. Anodes B. Rotors C. Focal tracks D. Filaments | D. Filaments |
| Sudden movements of the tube can cause damage because of the? A. Gyroscopic effect B. Anode heel effect C. Space-charge effect D. Saturation effect | A. Gyroscopic effect |
| Tungsten is the choice material for x-ray anodes because of its A. High atomic number B. High rpm C. High x-ray intensity D. Low atomic number | A. High atomic number |
| After adequate filament temp has been achieved, a further small rise in filament temp will cause tube current to? A. Decrease very much B. Increase very much C. Not change | A. Decrease very much |
| A cathode sending all of its boiled off electrons to the anode is said to be in what state? A. Space charge limited B. Saturated | B. Saturated |
| The x-ray tube current? A. Controls x-ray energy (quality) B. Is controlled by the filament current C. Is the current that flows thru the filament D. Flows thru both filaments at the same time | B. Is controlled by the filament current |
| With the line focus principle, the effective focal spot is _____ than the actual focal spot? A. Bigger B. Smaller C. Same size D. None of the above | B. Smaller |
| Generally, a small focal spot will allow longer exposure time than a large focal spot? T/F | FALSE |
| This narrows the electron cloud as it travels toward the anode? | Cathode |
| this is made of pyrex glass? | Focusing cup |
| This contains the electromagnets, which causes rotation inside the tube? | Glass envelope or Tube window |
| This part, inside the tube, makes up the rotating part of the induction motor? | Stator windings |
| This part is connected to question above, and is struck by electrons? | Rotor |
| Contains the vacuum? | Anode |
| Contains the oil? | Glass envelope |
| More intense radiation on this side of the tube due to the anode heel effect? | Metal housing |
| This part contains silver plated steel ball bearings for perfect rotation? | Cathode |
| This provides the target for the electrons made of tungsten (or molybdenum in mammographic tubes)? | Rotor |
| The function of the cathode is to produce? A. A focal spot B. An electrical connection to the rectifier C. A thermionic cloud D. A grounding effect | C. A thermionic cloud |
| A filament may break due to? A. Evaporation B. Deposition C. Increased sensitivity D. Vaporization | D. Vaporization |
| Pitting of the anode commonly occurs? a. When the unit is not warmed up properly B. When the anode is off-focus C. With extended use D. When the kV is too high E. When the stator fails and the rotor ceases to turn | C. With extended use |
| As the actual focal spot increases, the effective focal spot size? A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains the same D. Cannot be determined | A. Increases |
| The only portion of the anode assembly placed outside the vacuum of the envelope is the? A. Stator B. Rotor C. Rotating disc D. Molybdenum neck | A. Stator |
| Insulation of the high-voltage components of the tube and absorption of the hat produced by x-ray production is achieved thru the use of? A. Small fan B. Vacuum C. Stator D. Dielectric oil | D. Dielectric oil |
| Leakage radiation from the lead-lined housing must not exceed? A. 10mR/hr measured at 40 in B. 100 mR/min measured at 36 in C. 10 mR/min measured at the tube lead D. 100 mR/hr measured at 1 meter | D. 100 mR/hr measured at 1 meter |
| X-ray production requires all oft he following to be present except a? A. Electron source B. Appropriate target material C. Technologist D. Vacuum | C. Technologist |
| When radiographing a wedge-shaped anatomical structure such as a femur, the thicker portion of the anatomy should be positioned? A. Under the cathode end of the tube B. In the exact cent of the beam C. Off center laterally to negate the heel effect | A. Under the cathode end of the tube |
| Almost all of the kinetic energy of the incident electron is converted to? a. A bremsstrahlung photon B. A characteristic photon C. Light D. Heat | D. Heat |
| Driving the thermionic cloud from the cathode to the anode requires? A. A grid biased anode B. Small voltage C. Large amperage D. Small amperage | D. Small amperage |
| The focusing cup has a ____ charge? A. Neutral B. Atomic C. Positive D. Negative | D. Negative |
| X-ray photon production occurs at the? A. Anode B. Cathode C. Filament D. Stator | A. Anode |
| Cracking of the anode typically occurs? A. With extended use B. When the anode is off-focus C. When a cold anode is hit with a high kVp exposure D. When the cathode cup touches the anode, causing a short | C. When a cold anode is it with a high kVp exposure |
| The area of the focal spot that is projected out of the tube toward the object being radiographed is the? A. Effective focal spot B. Line focus C. Actual focal spot D. X-ray tube long axis | A. Effective focal spot |
| The function of the stator and rotor assembly is to? A. Create a vacuum B. Rotate the anode C. Insulate the anode D. Disrupt the electromagnets of the induction motor | B. Rotate the anode |
| What type of radiation is composed of photons not produced at the actual focal spot? A. Off-focus B. Extrafocal C. Both A and B D. Primary | C. Both A and B |
| Roentgen discovered x-rays with what tube type that did not have a vacuum but instead contained known volumes of gases? A. Crookes B. Oersted C. Watts D. Einstein | A. Crookes |
| A high speed rotor (10,000rpm) permits longer exposure times than low speed rotors at single-phase operation? T/F | TRUE |
| Almost all of the kinetic energy of the incident electrons is converted to? A. Bremsstrahlung photon B. Characteristic x-ray photon C. Light D. Heat | D. Heat |
| What percentage of target interaction results in the production of x-ray photons? A. 1% B. 50% C. 99% D. 100% | A. 1% |
| The transfer of the incident electron's kinetic energy to the energy to the outer shell electrons causing vibration of the outer shell electron in the emission of? A. Infrared radiation B. UV radiation C. Light D. Sound | A. Infrared radiation |
| Bremsstrahlung interactions may occur only when the incident electron interacts with? A. Inner shell electron B. Outer shell electron C. Force field around the nucleus D. Nuclear force within the nucleus | C. The force field around the nucleus |
| Characteristic interactions may occur only when the incident electron interacts with? A. Inner shell electron B. Outer shell electron C. Force field of the nucleus D. Protons within the nucleus | A. Inner shell electron |
| During a characteristic interaction, the kinetic energy of the incident electron must be ___ the electron it knocks from its orbit? A. Less than that of B. Greater than that of C. Proportional to that of D. Characteristic of | B. Greater than that of |
| During a characteristic interaction the dropping of a high-energy state electron into a lower- energy state "hole" results in the emission of? A. Photon of electromagnetic energy B. High energy electron C. Low energy electron D. Gamma photon | A. Photon of electromagnetic energy |
| The energy of a characteristic photon is? A. equal to binding energy of the entering electron B. Equal to binding energy of exiting electron C. Sum of the binding energy of the outer & inner shell between the electron drop D. The diff between binding | D. The difference between the binding energy of the outer and inner shells between which the electron dropped |
| At the end of the characteristic cascade, the ____ shell is missing an electron? A. Innermost B. K C. Outermost D. Characteristic | C. Outermost |
| The K shell can hold a maximum of ___ electrons? A. 1 B. 2 C. 6 D. 8 | B. 2 |
| Electrons traveling from the cathode filament to the anode are called? A. incident electrons B. Primary electrons C. Scatter electrons D. Secondary electrons | A. incident electrons |
| When comparing the x-ray emission spectrum between beams produced at 70kV and 110 kV? A. the 110 kV beam would demonstrate less brems and high characteristic spike B. 110 kV beam would demonstrate more brems and higher characteristic spike C. 70 kV beam | B. The 110 kVp beam would demonstrate more brems and a higher characteristic spike |
| when an x-ray photon passes thru matter, it undergoes a process called? A. induction B. filtration C. attenuation D. resonance | C. attenuation |
| During the process of attenuation x-ray photons in the beam? A. reduce in number B. lose energy C. interact D. all of the above | D. all of the above |
| During the process of attenuation, the x-ray photon may interact with? A. nucleus B. entire atom C. orbital electron D. all of the above | D. all of the above |
| Which atomic shell possesses the highest binding energy? A. K B. L C. M D. N | D. N |
| As the electron shells move farther form the nucleus, total electron energies _____ and binding energies _____? A. decrease; decrease B. increase; increase C. increase;decrease D. decrease; increase | C. increase; decrease |
| When x-ray photons interact with matter and change direction the process is called? A. absorption B. scatter C. interpolation D. extrapolation | B. Scatter |
| If a photon interacts with matter and scatters, the photon? A. no longer exists B. exists with greater energy C. exits with less energy D. is totally absorbed | C. exists with less energy |
| When an xray photon with a slightly greater energy than the binding energy of the inner-shell electron interacts with that inner-shell electron, the following interaction results? A. compton scatter B. coherent scatter C. photoelectric absorption D. chara | Photoelectric absorption |
| During photoelectric absorption a _____ shell electron is ejected? A. inner- B. middle- C. outer- D. all of the above | A. inner- |
| During photoelectric absorption, the ejected electron is called? A. incident electron B. photoelectron C. characteristic electron D. nuclear electron | B. photoelectron |
| A photoelectron? A. is matter and possesses energy B. typically travels 1-2 mm in soft tissue C. is capable of creating biological changes D. all of the above | D. all of the above |
| When an electron form an outer shell fills a vacancy in an inner shell? A. the total energy of the electron increases B. the electron increases its mass C. a photon is released D. all of the above | C. a photon is released |
| During the photoelectric interaction, as an electron transfers from an outer shell to a vacant inner shell, energy is released in the form of? A. characteristic photon B. primary radiation C. incident electron D. gamma photon | A. Characteristic photon |
| An interaction that occurs between very low energy x-ray photons and matter is called _____ scatter? A. coherent B. classical C. unmodified D. all of the above | D. all of the above |
| During coherent scattering, the scattered photon possesses _____ as the incident photon? A. the same energy, same frequency, same wavelength B. same energy , same frequency, diff wavelength C. same energy, diff frequency, same wavelength | A. the same energy, the same frequency, and the same wavelength |
| Compton scattering occurs when an incident x-ray photon interacts with a ____ electron? A. loosely bound inner-shell B. tightly bound inner-shell C. loosely bound outer-shell D. tightly bound outer-shel | C. loosely bound outer-shell |
| The electron dislodged during Compton scattering is called? A. photoelectron B. recoil electron C. incident electron D. secondary electron | B. recoil electron |
| The photon that exits the atom after a Compton scattering is called the Compton? A. scattered photon B. scattered electron C. recoil electron D. photoelectron | A. scattered photon |
| During Compton scattering, the incident photon energy is divided between the? A. recoil electron and the scattered photon B. incident photon and the scattered photon C. incident photon and the recoil electron D. recoil electron and the phototelectron | A. recoil electron and the scattered photon |
| As the angle of deflection is increased from 0 to 180 degrees? A. all energy is imparted to incident photon B. less energy is imparted to recoil electron C. greater energy is imparted to scattered photon D. greater energy is imparted to recoil electron | D. greater energy is imparted to the recoil electron |
| Unwanted radiographic image densities cause predominantly by scattered photons is? A. base fog B. radiation fog C. chemical fog D. photoelectric fog | B. radiation fog |
| During which interaction with matter is the x-ray photon converted to matter in the form of two electrons? A. pair production B. compton scatter C. photoelectric absorption D. coherent scatter | A. pair production |
| In which process is matter converted back to energy? A. nuclear reaction B. annihilation reaction C. Compton scatter D. phototdisintegration | B. annihilation reaction |
| Which of the following interaction has a significant impact on the x-ray images? A. photoelectric absorption B. coherent scatter C. pair production D. photodisintegration | A. Photoelectric absorption |
| In the human body _____ is the predominant interaction thru most of the diagnostic x-ray range? A. compton scattering B. coherent scatter C. photoelectric interactions D. phototdisintegration | A. Compton scattering |
| Which of the following interactions with matter results in a radiograph with a loss of radiographic image contrast? A. compton B. coherent C. photoelectric D. photodisintegration | A. Compton scattering |
| Which of the following interactions with matter results in a radiograph with higher contrast? A. compton B. coherent C. photoelectric D. photodisintegration | C. photoelectric interactions |
| The incidence of the photoelectric effect increases with? A. increasing kV B. increasing atomic number of the absorber C. decreasing x-ray wavelength D. photon energies above 1.02mMeV | B. increasing atomic number of the absorber |
| In diagnostic radiology, radiographic image contrast is principally due to the predominance of? A. photodisintegration interactions B. Bremsstrahlung interactions C. photoelectric interactions D. Compton interaction | C. Photoelectric interactions |
| Energy exerted on electrons by the nucleus of the atom? | Binding energy |
| Results from electrons interaction with the nuclear force field? | Bremsstrahlung radiation |
| Energy that has ionizing potential and no mass? | Electromagnetic energy |
| Product of pair production? | positron |
| No loss in energy? | Coherent scattering |
| Yield photons with each transition? | Characteristic cascade |
| Compton scattering? | Ei=Es + Eb + Eke |
| A pt may elect to assume the relatively small risk of exposure to ionizing radiation to obtain essential diagnostic medical info when: 1. illness occurs 2. injury occurs 3. a imaging procedure for health screening is prudent? A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 | D. 1,2, and 3 |
| Effective measures employed by radiation workers to safeguard pt, personnel, & the general public form unnecessary exposure to ionizing radiation defines? A. Diagnostic efficacy B. Optimization C. Radiation protection D. Equivalent dose | C. Radiation protection |
| Which of the following is a method that can be used to answer pt questions about the amount of radiation received from radiographic procedure? A. ALARA B. BERT C. BRET D. EPA | B. BERT |
| The degree to which the diagnostic study accurately reveals the presence or absence of disease in the pt defines? A. Radiation protection B. Radiographic pathology C. Effective diagnosis D. Diagnostic efficacy | D. Diagnostic efficacy |
| Which of the following was sued as the first measure of exposure for ionizing radiation? A. Roentgen B. Skin erythema C. Sievert D. Rad | B. Skin erythema |
| Which of the following is the unit of collective effective dose (ColEfD)? A. Coulombs per kg-Sv B. gray-sV C. Person-Sv D. Rad-sV | C. Person-sV |
| The concept of tissue weighting factor (Wt) is used to do which of the following? A. Account for the risk to the entire organism brought on by irradiation of individual tissues and organs B. eleminate the need for determining effective dose C. measure ab | A. Account for the risk to the entire organism brought on by irradiation of individual tissues and organs |
| What does the traditional radiation unit, the roentgen, measure? A. Equivalent dose B. absorbed dose in biologic tissue C. Radiation exposure in air only D. Speed at which x-ray photons travel | C. Radiation exposure in air only |
| Which radiation quantities accounts for some biologic tissues being more sensitive to radiation damage than other tissues? A. Absorbed dose B. exposure C. equivalent dose D. effective dose | D. effective dose |
| If 100 people received an average effective dose of .35sV what is the collective effective dose? A. 17.5 person-Sv B. 35 person-Sv C. 70 person-Sv D. 285 person-Sv | B. 35 person Sv |
| Which of the following chemicals functions as the sensing material in a thermoluminescent dosimeter? A. barium sulfate B. calcium tungstate C. Lithium fluoride D. sodium iodine | C. lithium fluoride |
| During routine x-ray procedures, when a protective apron is not being worn, the primary dosimeter should be attached to the clothing on the front of the body at? | |
| During routine radiographic procedures when a protective apron is not being worn the primary dosimeter should be attached to the clothing on the front of the body at? | Collar level to approximate the maximum radiation dose to the thyroid and the head and neck |
| During diagnostic imaging procedures, how should the radiation dose to the abdomen of a pregnant worker be monitored during gestation? | It should be obtained from a second radiation monitor worn at abdominal level |
| To implement an effective radiation safety program in a facility that provides imaging services, the employer must provide all of the following except? | X-ray equipment that can produce only very low kV and very high mA |
| From which of the following sources do human beings receive the largest dose of ionizing radiation? A. Radioactive fallout from atomic weapons testing B. Medical radiation procedures C. cosmic rays D. area around a nuclear reactor | B. Medical radiation procedures |
| The amount of radiation a pt receives may be indicated in terms of? 1. entrance skin exposure 2. bone marrow dose 3. gonadal dose A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2, and 3 | D. 1,2 and 3 |
| Medical radiation procedures account for? A. the largest dose of ionizing radiation to humans B. the second largest dose of ionizing radiation to humans C. the smallest dose of ionizing radiation to humans D. negligible doses of ionizing radiation | A. the largest dose of ionizing radiation received by humans |
| The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom constitutes the atomic number? T/F | TRUE |
| EfD enables the calculation of EqD? T/F | False |
| Which of the following factors must be multiplied to determine the EfD from an x-radiation exposure of an organ or body part? A. EqD x Wr x D B. Wt x Wr x ColEfD C. D x Wr x Wt D. D x C/kg | C. D x Wr x Wt |
| Short term effects of radiation includes? 1. Nausea and fatigue 2. blood and intestinal disorders 3. diffuse redness of the skin and shedding of its outer layer A. 1, 2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2 and 3 | D. 1,2 and 3 |
| Which of the following radiation quantities is used to describe population or group exposure to low doses of the different sources of ionizing radiation? A. D B. EqD C. Exposure D. ColEfD | D. ColEfD |
| Which of the following types of radiation has a Wr of 20? A. Alpha particles B. gamma radiation C. neutrons, energy <10keV | A. alpha particles |
| Which of the following is or are not traditional units? A. C/kg B. Gy and Sv C. R, rad, rem D. A and B | D. A and B |
| Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen discovered x-rays on Nov 8, 1895? T/F | TRUE |
| Skin erythema dose was an accurate means of measuring radiation exposure because the same amount of radiation produced erythema in all pts? T/F | FALSE |
| In keeping with the ALARA concept, most health care facilities issue personnel dosimetry devices when personnel might receive about ___ of the annual occupational EfD limit in any 1 month, or approximately .5 mSv? | D. 1% |
| Diagnostic imaging personnel should wear a personnel dosimeter during routine operations in an imaging facility because the device provides? | An indication of an individual's working habits, An indication of working conditions in the facility |
| The OSL dosimeter uses? A. An Al2O3 detector B. LiF as a sensing material C. Miniature ionization chamber as a detector D. Radiation dosimetry film as a detector | A. An Al2O3 |
| Personnel dosimeter protect the wearer from exposure to ionizing radiation? T/F | FALSE |
| Wearing a personnel dosimeter in a consistent location is the responsibility of the individual wearing the device? T/F | TRUE |
| Which of the following devices are used for personnel monitoring? 1. OSL dosimeter 2. TLD 3. Ionization chamber-type survey meter A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2 and 3 | A. 1, and 2 only |
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