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SGT 210

Chapter 19 Plastic & Reconstructive Surgery

QuestionAnswer
1. The dermis and epidermis are components of which body system? B. Integumentary
2. Which epidermal stratum is present only on the palms of hands and soles of feet? D. Lucidum
3. Which epidermal stratum is the outermost layer? B. Corneum
4. Which of the following are oil-producing glands? D. Sebaceous
5. What is the name of the oil that is secreted from glands in the skin? A. Sebum
6. Which type of gland is found only in the ear canal and is responsible for creation of ear wax? B. Ceruminous
7. How many degree classifications of skin burns are there? C. Four
8. In which degree of skin burn does the tissue appear as pearly white or charred and will likely require debridment of eschar? C. Third
9. Split-thickness skin graft are used to cover which type of burned tissue? B. denuded areas of third degree burns
10. The rule of nines is used in burn patients to estimate: A. Body surface area burned
11. What is the term for the process of removing necrotic tissue or eschar prior to skin grafting? A. Debridment
12. Which glands are found only in the external genitalia and axillae? A. Apocrine
13. What does a mesh graft device do? B. It Expands the size of the skin graft
14. Which of the following statements regarding routine prepping for skin graft procedures is CORRECT? A. Donor site is prepped first and considered clean
15. Any of the following may be used topically for hemostats of the STSF donor site EXCEPT: B. Mineral oil
16. Relaxation and hypertrophy of the eyelid skin is also known as: C. Dermatochalasis
17. Cheiloplasty and palatoplasty are corrective procedures for which of the following? B. cleft lip and palate
18. Which term describes the palmar surface of the hand? A. Volar
19. Which term describes the thumb side of the hand? B. Radial
20. Which anatomical area is a TRAM flap used to reconstruct? A. Breast
21. For which would the surgical technologist prepare a tumescent solution? B. Liposuction
22. What is the term for webbed digits of the hand or foot? D. Syndactyly
23. Submalar augmentation is performed to address structural deficiency in the: B. Cheeks
24. Which procedure is performed for dermachalasis? B. Blepharoplasty
25. Which cosmetic procedure is performed for micrognathia? C. Mentoplasty
26. The mandibular symphysis is better known as the: A. Chin
27. The pinna, helix, crus, and tragus are all portions of the: A. Ear
28. For which procedure would the surgical technologist possibly need a second setup for obtaining a cartilage graft? B. Otoplasty For microtia
29. Which type of scissors would most likely be used to trim a full-thickness skin graft (FTSG) to size? D. Tenotomy
30. Which of the following letters represents the incisional configuration MOST commonly used for scar revision procedures? D. Z
31. Which type of incision is MOST frequently used to excise excess skin in a blepharoplasty procedure? A. Elliptical
32. Breast ptosis is surgically corrected by: B. Mastopexy
33. In which procedure would the procures and corrugator muscles be ablated, avulsed, resected, or separated? C. Endoscopic brow lift
34. Which of the following terms is more commonly referred to as a full face lift? D. Rhytidectomy
35. Which method of anesthesia is preferred to rhytidectomy procedures? C. Monitored MAC
36. "Cupid's bow" is reconstructed in which of the following procedures? A. Cleft lip repair
37. For which procedure would the surgeon require a sterile tattoo machine and inks? C. Nipple reconstruction
38. A full-thickness skin graft may be taken from the inner thigh or labial fold to re-create which area? A. Areola
39 .Crescent, Benelli, and Benelli-lollipop lifts are techniques used during: A. Mastopexy
40. Anchor-shaped incisions with joining of tissue envelope folds are performed in which procedure? C. Mastopexy
41. Which of the following might be used for stabilization in a Dupaytren's contracture release if an _ is unavailable? C. Lead hand
42. Which cranial nerve must NOT be compromised by retractor placement during rhytidectomy? C. seventh
43. Which position should facial procedure patients maintain postoperatively to minimize edema? D. Head elevated
44. When would a congenital facial deformity likely occur? B. First trimester
45. Which type of suture would MOST likely be used during a cleft lip repair? A. Fine absorbable
46. Which of the following bones make up the palm of the hand? B. Metacarpals
47. Approximately how many muscles and their tendons control movement of the wrist, hand, and fingers? C. 40
48. Which nerves passes through the carpel tunnel? A. Median
49. Which of the following order of steps for replantation of a digit is CORRECT? D. Bones, tendons, vessels then nerves
50. Vessel loops are available in all of the following colors EXCEPT: A. Green
51. What suturing technique would the surgeon use to attach tendons in a toe-to-thumb transfer procedure? B. Figure of eight
52. Which of the following terms means surgical fixation of joint, eventually resulting in international bone fusion? D. Arthrodesis
53. What is the medical term for the congenital deformity commonly called "Club hand"? D. Radial Dysplasia
54. A patient scheduled for centralization of radial dysplasia would be about what age? B. 12 months old
55. Which of the following statements describing variations of polydactyly is NOT correct? A. The condition mainly involves the carpal and metacarpal bones
56. Before closure in augmentation mammoplasty, what is done to verify correct size? D. temporary sizers are placed and filled with saline and the table is raised to sitting position to evaluate appearance
57. All of the following are locations for incision in augmentation mammoplasty EXCEPT: B. Subclavicular
58. How would a transverse rectus abdomens musculocutaneous flap be classified? B. Pedicle flap graft
59. Why would two separated setups be required for immediate reconstruction following mastectomy? D. To prevent seeding of cancer cells if same instruments are used for both
60. Which sterile device will be used during TRAM flap reconstruction to verify the blood supply of the remains instant? A. Doppler probe
61. Which of the following his NOT a type of liposuction? A. Electrosurgery
62. Which muscles are tightened in an abdominoplasty procedure? B. Rectus abdominis
63. Under which muscle is the pocket for breast implant often crated for greater support? C. Pectoralis Major
64. Which type of specialized retractor enhances visualization in many breast and abdominoplasty procedures? B. Fiber optic
65. Which type of grafted tissue would have skin sensation preserved? B. Pedicle flap
1. Type of dressing used for frequent dressing changes and wound assessment; prevents excoriation from tape application and removal. G. Montgomery straps
2. Severe blood and fluid loss, making it difficult for the heart to pump; post-op complication of aggressive liposuctioning. D. Hypovolemia
3. Rapid side-to-side movement used for sharp dissection. J. Oscillating
4. Tissue transplanted from another person or cadaver B. Heterograft
5. Distinct individual tissue layer. E. Stratum
6. Dead tissue that sloughs off of healthy skin. A. Eschar
7. Excoriated tissue; loss of intact coverings. I. Denuded
8. Type of procedure performed to improve appearance rather than to strictly treat pathological conditions. F. Anesthetic
9. Type of drape designed to encase and cover the hair of the head. C. Turban
10. Device used to measure distance between two opposite sides. H. Caliper
Plastic and reconstructive surgeries must be done only after an individual has stopped growing, due to potential changes in anatomy of younger patients. F
Patients with cleft palates may have difficulty sucking, swallowing, or forming sounds. T
Incisions made for endoscopic brow lifts and rhytidectomy are often placed within the hairline for camouflage. T
Abdominoplasty procedures cannot be performed on patients who have undergone cesarean sections, due to excessive adhesions in the lower abdomen F
Severed digits should be kept tightly covered and warm to prevent clot formation and necrosis, preventing replantation. F
Created by: mdr87
 

 



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