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CDC 2AX5X -1,2,&3
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What instrument measures the weight of air? | Mercurial Barometer |
| What is the standard atmospheric pressure at sea level measured in inches of mercury? In psi? | 29.92 inches of mercury; 14.7 psi |
| What are the two temperatures scales that are commonly used? | Fahrenheit and Celsius |
| What is the term for the curve of the surface of an airfoil from the leading edge to the trailing edge? | Camber |
| What aerodynamic forces affect in flight? | Lift, weight, thrust, and drag |
| How does drag act in relation to relative wind? | Parallel |
| Define AOA. | The angle between mean chord line of an airfoil and the aircraft flight plan |
| How are airframe components joined? | By rivets, bolts, screws, and adhesives |
| What are the five stresses to which airframes are subjected? | Tension, compression, torsion, shear, and bending |
| Which fuselage design does not use formers, frame assemblies, or bulkheads to give shape to the fuselage? | The monocoque design |
| What internal wing components serve as an attachment point for the skin? | The ribs and stringers |
| What type of material is usually used for construction of flight control surfaces? | Aluminum Alloy |
| What is used to round out the angle formed between the fixed tail surfaces and the fuselage? | Fairing |
| What structural unit provides a smooth airflow around and into the engine inlet? | Engine Nacelles |
| What component controls airflow around the weapons to reduce turbulence in the bay on some bomber aircraft? | Bay spoilers or air spoilers |
| How do doors differ from panels? | Doors are hinged |
| Most transparent structures on an aircraft, such as canopies, windshields, and windows, are made of what two materials? | Transparent plastics or safety glass |
| How do paint removers and stripping compounds affect the plastic facings of a radome? | It may adversely affect its electrical properties or strength |
| How are fuselage station numbers measured? | In inches from the reference datum or zero point on or near the aircraft nose |
| What are the three axes that an aircraft operates around? | Longitudinal, lateral, and vertical |
| What are the lateral control surfaces of the aircraft? | Ailerons, spoilers/speed brakes, and wing flaps |
| What controls all directional movements of aircraft? | Primary flight controls |
| What primary flight control guides the aircraft about the vertical axis? | Rudder |
| Which type of stabilator has both sides connected together so that when one side moves the other side must move in the same direction and amount? | Solid type |
| What is an elevon? | It is a combination of an aileron and an elevator |
| What are five types of wing flaps? | Plain, split, folwer, slotted, and leading edge slats or flaps |
| What is the difference between leading-edge flaps and wing slats? | If the leading edge operates in conjunction with the trailing edge flaps, then you have leading-edge flaps. If they operate independently of the flaps then they are called slats. |
| What is the purpose of speed brakes? | Increase the drag to slow the aircraft and/or reduce landing distance |
| List the three types of trim systems | Roll, pitch, and yaw |
| Which type of flight control system reduces the need for long cables, turnbuckles; quick disconnects, push-pull rods, and associated flight control hardware? | Fly-by-wire |
| What are the two major parts of the AFCS? | Stab aug system and the A/P system |
| What system is used to make bomber aircraft stable for launching weapons? | Stab aug |
| What auto pilot system mode automatically maintains aircraft speed? | Mach hold |
| Define electricity. | A class of physical phenomena arising from the existence and interactions of electric charges |
| Of what particles are atoms composed? | Neutrons, protons, and electrons |
| List four examples of insulators. | Wood, rubber, plastic, and glass |
| List four examples of conductors. | Platinum, gold, copper, and silver |
| Where do you normally use semiconductors? | In solid-state devices |
| What is EMF? | Electromotive Force; the electrical pressure that causes electrons to flow through the conductor |
| Define electrical current. | The movement of electrons through a conductor |
| What factors affect the amount of resistance in a conductor? | The type of material used, temperature, and size |
| What unit of measurement is used to express electrical power? | Watts |
| What is a simple definition of magnetism? | The ability of a substance to attract |
| How are artificial magnets classified? | Permanent or temporary |
| What is permeability? | The ease of ability to conduct magnetic lines of force |
| What is residual magnetism? | The amount of magnetism that remains in a temporary magnet |
| How is magnetism induced in magnetic material? | Place in a magnetic field or bring it into contact with another magnet |
| Can magnetic lines of force be insulated? | No |
| What are the three most commonly used shapes of magnets? | Bar, ring, and horseshoe |
| How can a magnet be weakened? | Heating or excessive jarring |
| Define flux. | A term for magnetic lines of force |
| How is electromagnetism developed? | By current or electricity |
| When current flows through a conductor, does a magnetic field exist? | Yes |
| What must you know to apply the "left hand rule"? | The direction of the current flow |
| What rule do you use to determine the flux direction of a wire in a loop? | The left-hand rule |
| How can an electromagnet's field strength be increased? | By using a few turns of wire carrying a larger current or using many turns of wire carrying a small current |
| What is the purpose of a conductor? | Provide a path for electrons to flow with minimum resistance |
| Why are protective devices installed in aircraft electrical systems? | Protect against system overloads and shorts in a circuit |
| How much time must pass before resetting a trip-free type circuit breaker? | After a cooling-off period of approx. 1 minute |
| What is the purpose of a current limiter? | Provide protection against fault currents |
| Why is alternating current used as the primary electrical source in aircraft? | Less power is lost during transmission and the elimination of insulation and brushes |
| What is the unit of measurement for frequency? | Hertz |
| Define phase relationship. | A condition in which two moving objects are changing in, or out, of step |
| What are the two classifications of AC generation systems? | Variable-frequency and constant-frequency |
| What frequency is used for AC power generation on aircraft? | 400 Hertz |
| How is voltage induced in a brush-type generator? | DC from an integral exciter generator is passed through windings on the rotor |
| What are the three generators that make up a brushless AC generator? | A permanent magnet generator, an AC exciter generator, and the main AC generator |
| What weak point was eliminated by the design of a brushless-type generator? | Arcing (which more easily occurs in rarefied air) |
| What are the two main components of an AC generator? | Rotor assembly and stator |
| What three components make up the stator? | PMG armature, exciter field, and main armature windings |
| What are the two functions of the CSD governor system? | To control the drive output speed and equalize the load between generators operating in parallel |
| If CSD output rotation drives the generator below 365Hz, what component removes the generator from the bus? | Under-speed switch |
| If the CSD temperature rises to an overheat condition, what should be done to prevent further damage? | Disconnect the CSD |
| What is installed on most IDGs to provide for easier installation and removal? | A quick attach-detach clamp |
| What are the typical functions of a GCU? | Voltage regulation, generator disconnect control, etc. |
| How is voltage regulation and current limiting accomplished in the GCU? | By varying the generator excitation field |
| How does the frequency and load controller for each generator system regulate the frequency of the generator CSD? | By controlling the magnetic trim head governor on the CSD |
| What are the internal components of a battery? | Plates, separators, and electrolytes |
| What are the primary causes of premature failure of a lead-acid battery? | Abuse, overcharge, low solution, undercharge, and mountings |
| What is the fundamental unit of the nickel-cadmium battery? | The cell |
| How are nickel-cadmium cells constructed? | By inserting positive and negative plates in cases with nylon and cellophane separators |
| When does a nickel-cadmium batteries electrolyte reach its maximum level? | When the battery is fully charged |
| How are motors classified? | By voltage, current used (AC or DC), and methods of motor excitation |
| How can the direction of rotation for a series motor be changed? | By reversing the current flow in a field winding or reversing current flow in the armature |
| What advantages does the series motor have over other types of motors? | It operates on AC or DC excitation |
| How is the field winding of a shunt motor connected with the armature? | In parallel |
| What type of T-R is used to charge a nickel-cadmium battery in many aircraft? | Charging T-R |
| What is another name for a T-R? | Converter |
| Define matter. | Any substance that occupies space and has weight |
| Since liquids and gases have many properties in common, how are the frequently classified? | As fluids |
| All matter is made up of what? | Molecules |
| Which matter has the property of resisting changes in shape when a force is applied? | Solid |
| When sufficient force to a solid cause distortion, the solid is said to have exceeded what? | Its elastic limit |
| Which factors affect the amount of expansion and contraction of a solid? | The amount of temperature change and expansion characteristics of the solid |
| What are the most outstanding characteristics of a liquid? | Its ability to conform |
| For a liquid to transmit a pushing force, what condition must exist first? | It must be completely enclosed in a container |
| What would cause a cylinder of air to increase in pressure when placed in the sun? | The air (gas) expands as its temperature increases, and since it is confined by the cylinder, its pressure will increase |
| What is one of the main differences in the characteristics of gases when compared to liquids? | Gases are compressible while liquids are not |
| State the basic principle of Pascal's Law. | When a fluid is confined and force is applied, this force (pressure) is transmitted equally to all points in the system |
| Under what conditions does Pascal's Law not apply to fluids? | Fluids in motion |
| State the basic principle of Boyle's Law. | If the pressure on a confined gas varies, its volume will vary inversely in the same proportion as long as the temperature does not change |
| What is another name for Boyle's-Charles' Law? | General Gas Law |
| What characteristic of a fluid determines its resistance to flow? | Viscosity |
| What effect does an orifice have on fluid-flow when compared to a venturi? | An orifice will cause more turbulence and thus more energy loss than a venturi because it is not streamlined |
| How can resistance to flow be reduced? | By streamlining the flow |
| What pressure difference can be observed during fluid-flow through a venturi? | There is a pressure drop at the narrow opening of a venturi as the rate of flow of the fluid increases at this point. The pressure will increase again after passing through the throat |
| How much fluid should a reservoir hold? | Enough fluid to supply the normal operating needs of the system, along with an additional amount to replace fluid lost through minor leakage |
| Why do nonpressurized reservoirs have space above the fluid? | To allow the fluid to purge itself of air bubbles that are picked up from the system |
| What prevents foreign material from entering the reservoir during servicing? | A wire screen |
| What are the two main reasons for pressurizing a reservoir? | -It stops the fluid from foaming at high altitudes -It ensures a positive supply of fluid to the pumps |
| How do you service a pressurized hydraulic reservoir with fluid? | Use a portable servicing cart |
| What unit in the pressurized hydraulic reservoir pressurizes the hydraulic fluid to 5psi? | A piston spring |
| To service or perform maintenance on an air-pressurized reservoir, what is the first thing you must do? | Depressurize the reservoir |
| Name three functions of the air-pressurized reservoir pressure regulator. | -It regulates the pressure to the reservoir -Acts like a relief valve -Has a differential valve to allow equalization of pressures between outside air and air inside the reservoir |
| How are pumps classified? | By their displacement (volume) output |
| What two purposes does the hand pump serve? | It can be used as an emergency source of pressure or as an auxiliary source of pressure for ground-checking the operation of the system units |
| When the hand pump handle is on the retraction stroke, which check valve is closed? | The inlet check valve |
| What indicates that either check valve inside the hand pump has malfunctioned? | The hand pump will become completely inoperative |
| If a third check valve is installed, what could be the problem if fluid is only sent into the system on the extension stroke? | The inlet check valve is malfunctioning |
| What is a drawback of a constant-volume pump? | As long as the pump rotates, the fluid-flow it produces will eventually build up pressure high enough in the confined area to burst the lines and container |
| What is the thinned portion of the drive shaft of a gear-type pump called? | Shear section |
| On a vane-type pump, what keeps the vanes against the housing wall? | Springs |
| In the constant-volume piston pump, what drives the cylinder block? | Universal link |
| Why does a constant-volume piston pump always have a constant intake and output of fluid? | There are always pistons somewhere between the upper and lower piston |
| What does the suction boost pump do for engine-driven pumps? | Ensures the engine pumps get an adequate supply of fluid |
| What regulates pressure in a variable-volume pump? | An integral flow control valve (compensator) |
| What is the main difference between a Vickers stroke-reduction pump and a constant-volume pump? | The angle between the drive shaft and the cylinder block |
| What position is the Vickers pump's cylinder block and yoke in when the system is at 0 psi? | The extreme angle position, full flow |
| Do the pistons have a stroke when the Vickers pump reaches the zero flow point? | No |
| What are the two major component groups of the Kellogg pump? | The rotating group and the pressure-compensating group |
| What determines the length of the Kellogg pump's stroke? | The angle setting of the cam plate |
| What is the purpose of the creep plates in the Stratopower pumps? | Cooler operation |
| Describe the pistons of the Stratopower pump. | The pistons have fairly large hollow centers connected with cross-drilled holes |
| Which way would you turn the adjusting screw on the Stratopower pump to increase pressure? | Clockwise |
| What is the purpose of a hydraulic motor? | To convert hydraulic pressure into rotary mechanical motion |
| What can be used to control the speed of a hydraulic motor? | Flow control valve |
| Explain the principle of a jackscrew. | The screw remains stationary and the nut turns |
| What is the purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system? | To store a volume of fluid under pressure, provide space for thermal expansion, and act as a cushion against pressure surges. |
| What is the most common type of accumulator used? | Cylindrical type |
| Which accumulator has a drilled passageway in the piston for lubrication? | Piston |
| Where is the air-servicing valve located on the piston accumulator? | At the bottom of the accumulator |
| What is the piston accumulator serviced with? | Nitrogen or dry air |
| Which accumulator has four separate chambers? | Self-displacing accumulator |
| What is the only moving part of a self-displacing accumulator? | The piston |
| In the self-displacing accumulator system, where is the relief valve located? | Between the pressure line and return line |
| What are the three basic parts of a filter assembly? | Head, element, and bowl |
| Which part of the filter assembly is mounted to the aircraft? | Head |
| What does micron rating mean? | The amount of dirt or contaminates that can be filtered out |
| How is oxygen separated from other gases in the air? | By compressing and cooling the air |
| Why must aviator's breathing oxygen be "bone dry"? | To ensure operation of oxygen system components Oxygen with high moisture content would freeze at high altitudes, causing the oxygen to be inoperative |
| List some of the warning signs of hypoxia. | Blurred vision, slight shortness of breath, a vague weak feeling, light dizziness |
| What is the maximum pressure at which low-pressure gaseous oxygen cylinders are charged? | 450psi |
| What color are low-pressure gaseous oxygen cylinders painted? | Yellow |
| How are oxygen tubes color-coded? | With bands of green and white cellulose tape |
| What two types of connections are used in a low-pressure oxygen system? | Pipe-thread and flared-tube connections |
| What component reduces system pressure in a high-pressure gaseous oxygen system? | A pressure-reducer valve |
| What construction methods prevent high-pressure gaseous oxygen cylinders from shattering? | Heat-treated alloy wrapped with steel wire |
| What are the two main types of oxygen regulators? | The continuous-flow and pressure-demand type |
| What's a disadvantage of the continuous-flow regulator as compared to other types? | Wastes oxygen |
| The MD-1 oxygen regulator can be used with what types of oxygen systems? | With high- or low-pressure gaseous or liquid oxygen systems |
| In an emergency the pressure-demand regulator can supply oxygen to what altitude? | 50,000 ft |
| What should system pressure be during an operational check of a regulator? | Near normal operating pressure |
| Explain how the molecular sieve bed operates. | Nitrogen in the air is absorbed in one bed of molecular sieve while oxygen passes through the bed. When the molecular sieve becomes saturated, the concentration vents the nitrogen overboard |
| What happens if the MSOGS concentrator fails? | It will turn on an OXYGEN caution light in the cockpit and automatically switch to the backup oxygen supply |
| What's the temperature of liquid oxygen? | -297°F |
| Why should liquid oxygen never be sealed, capped, or trapped in a container without a relief valve? | It will rupture the container |
| What factors are used to determine converter size? | The number of crew, mission duration, and the type of oxygen regulation equipment used |
| What's probably the cause if frost appears on the outside of a LOX container? | Vacuum loss |
| How are pressure control valves controlled? | Spring-loaded bellows |
| What's the primary purpose of the pressure-closing valve? | To maintain a constant head pressure on top of the liquid oxygen in the storage container |
| What's the normal position of the pressure-opening valve? | Closed |
| Why is it important to ensure there is no moisture in the fill, buildup, and vent valve? | It may freeze in the vent position |
| In what position should you manually place the buildup/vent during a filling operation? | VENT position |
| How are the check valves in quick disconnect operated? | Automatically |
| What are the two modes of operation in the supply sequence of the liquid oxygen system? | The economy mode and demand mode |
| What technical manual covers the requirements for LOX systems inspection? | -6 technical manual for the specific aircraft |
| What is the purpose of a bleed air system? | To operate or control pneumatic systems or components |
| What are the three sources of bleed air used for system operations on jet aircraft? | Aircraft engines; ground air cart; and gas turbine compressors, gas turbine units, or auxiliary power units |
| What equipment provides bleed air when the aircraft is on the ground with the engine shutdown? | A ground cart |
| List the components of a bleed air system. | Check valves, shut off valve, wing isolation or body crossover valves, flow control valves, pressure regulating valves, bleed air ducting, and the necessary controls |
| What is the purpose of a ground-air-connection check valve? | Prevent the escape of bleed air from the system |
| What material is usually used for high-pressure/high-temperature ducting? | Stainless steel |
| What action should you take to ensure a good airtight seal when installing a V-band clamp? | Tap around the circumference of the clamp as it is tightened |
| Why should you install the bottom bolts on a bolted flange duct first? | This forms a cradle and holds the gasket in place while you install the remaining bolts |
| Besides stainless steel, what other materials can be used in the construction of medium-pressure/medium-temperature ducting? | Titanium to aluminum alloy |
| What type of lubricant can be used on beaded duct sleeves to aid in installation? | Water only |
| Where in the aircraft is molded fiberglass ducting used to distributing conditioned air? | Cabin area |
| What's the purpose of gaskets? | To make an airtight seal with most types of flange connections |
| What devices are installed in bleed air systems to compensate for thermal expansion of ducting? | Expansion joints (bellows), thermal compensators, universal joints, loops, horseshoe bends, and offsets |
| What's the most important reason for insulating ducts? | To prevent heat damage to structural members, electrical wiring, and combustible material, as well as hydraulic, oxygen, and fuel lines |
| What type of insulating material is fireproof? | Fiberglass fabric blankets |
| What is the purpose of the rubber accordion boot wrapped around the duct between the sections of the insulation? | This boot allows for differences in expansion rates of the duct and insulation |
| What's used to lace the studs together in a metal foil blanket? | Wire |
| What are the most common types of duct damage? | Scratch, minor dent and gauge |
| Define gouge. | A defect wherein the surface of the material is cut or removed sufficiently to cause the duct wall thickness to be reduced |
| Which bleed air duct system is subjected to the highest pressure/temperature? | High-pressure/High-temperature |
| What should you do anytime you locate a nonpermissible leak in the high-pressure/high-temperature section of the bleed air system? | Inspect the aircraft structure in the immediate area of the leak for heat damage |
| What is air conditioning? | The simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, and air distribution within a space |
| Does heat always move to cold or does cold always move to heat? | Heat always moves to cold |
| While the aircraft is in flight, what controls the flow of ram air to the primary heat exchanger(s)? | Moveable ram air inlet and/or exit doors that modulate in flight |
| During low airspeeds or grounding operation what induces cooling airflow to the primary heat exchangers when there is not enough ram air to cool the primary heat exchangers? | Ejectors |
| What consists of a centrifugal air compressor and an expansion turbine, and is often known as a "pack"? | Air Cycle Machine (ACM) |
| Why would some of the outlet air from the primary heat exchanger need to bypass the air cycle machine? | If cabin temperature controls call for warmer air |
| What component provides an additional stage of cooling after the bleed air has left the primary heat exchanger and, if required, the air cycle machine? | Secondary heat exchanger |
| What is the primary purpose of the refrigeration bypass valve? | To prevent water from freezing in the water separator |
| What component uses centrifugal force to remove moisture in the air that is caused by rapid cooling? | The water separator |
| What two forms of energy are essentially interchangeable? | Pressure and temperature |
| What happens to heat of the engine bleed air as it passes through the primary heat exchanger(s)? | Some of the heat is transferred to ram air |
| What happens to the pressure of the engine bleed air as it passes through the primary heat exchanger(s)? | Almost no change |
| What happens to the air as it enters the compressor of the air cycle machine? | The pressure increases and, therefore, the temperature increases |
| What results in a very large decrease to the air within the air cycle machine? | As the air expands across the turbine, the pressure decreases greatly |
| What are the two methods of cooling used in a typical bootstrap system? | -By transferring heat to the ram air -Removing most of the heat by expanding it and converting it into work to drive the compressor |
| The refrigeration bypass valve opens so that warm air can mix with the air in the water separator if the water separator's outlet air temperature falls below what temperature? | 38°F |
| What percentage of the earth's atmosphere is nitrogen? | 78% |
| List the three pressurization ranges. | Unpressurized range, isobaric range, and differential range |
| What is the isobaric range? | 8,000-21,000 ft above sea level |
| Where does the differential range extend? | From where the isobaric range stops to maximum altitude of the aircraft |
| What component opens and closes to control the amount of air leaving the aircraft's pressurized area? | Outflow valve |
| What is the approximate pressure at sea level? | 14.7psi |
| The aneroid is fully expanded and the metering valve closed at what specific altitude? | 8,000 ft |
| What two pressures are applied to the differential diaphragm? | Control and atmospheric pressure |
| What section of the pressure regulator protects the crew from too fast a rise in cabin pressure? | The rate control section |
| In addition to a regulator, two outflow valves, and a pneumatic relay, what other component is a part of the dual-differential regulator? | Dump valve |
| What component operates as a safety valve if the regulator fails? | Outflow valve |
| Why are two outflow valves used on aircraft with large crew areas? | Because of the large volume of air to be relieve |
| How can the dump valve be operated in case of electrical failure? | Manually |
| What are the three features of the pressure controller? | Isobaric, differential, and rate controls |
| How is isobaric control maintained? | Adjusting spring tension |
| What types of pressure act on the differential controller's diaphragm? | Control head and atmospheric |
| How is the rate control orifice size adjusted? | Rate control knob |
| During a dive, what prevents damage caused by reverse flow of atmospheric air? | The ball check valve |
| Describe the purpose of the manual control valve. | It's used to manually set and regulate the control pressure if the automatic cabin pressure controller fails |
| What happens if the pressure regulator test handle remains in the TEST position? | The aircraft will pressurize on the ground |
| Where are fire detectors normally placed on aircraft? | On conventional aircraft they are placed in the engine and baggage compartments. On jet aircraft they are placed on the engine section, nacelle, or tail cone |
| How are the thermal switches connected? | In parallel with each other, and in series with the warning light |
| What are the two types of thermoswitches? | FENWAL switch and Iron Fireman switch |
| How do the FENWAL and Iron Fireman detector switches operate? | The inside of the switch has a low coefficient of expansion, while the shell has a high coefficient of expansion. When they are heated, they will expand and contact will be made. |
| What are two precautions you must take when handling thermal switches? | Be cautious when handling these units. Use caution in securing the lock washer |
| What causes a thermocouple fire detector system to activate? | A rapid rate of temperature increases beyond normal engine warm-up |
| What are the three circuits in the thermocouple fire warning system? | The detector, alarm, and test circuits |
| How are the thermocouples connected in respect to each other? | In series |
| What does a photoelectric detector cell consist of? | A glass envelope, which is coated on the inside with infrared-sensitive lead sulfide |
| The amplifier of a photoelectric fire detection system is sensitive to what frequencies? | Between 7 and 60 Hz |
| How can you distinguish the fire warning light from the overheat light in the photoelectric fire detection system? | The overheat light flashes, and the fire warning light is steady |
| What are fire detector sensing loops made of? | A center conductor embedded in a semiconducting compound enclosed within a tube |
| How do liquid agents extinguish fire? | By excluding oxygen from the fire area |
| How will an insufficient nitrogen charge affect agent discharge? | The cylinder won't have enough pressure to discharge properly |
| What shape are aircraft fire extinguisher containers? | Spherical |
| What prevents leakage between the bonnet assembly and container during discharge? | A rubber O-ring packing |
| How are squibs fired? | Applying a 28VDC to the squib |
| What is incorporated in some two-shot systems to delay electrical current to the bonnet assemblies? | Time delay relay |
| What does a flashing red light in a fire emergency control handle (T-handle) indicate? | An overheat |
| What is usually found at the lowest point of a fuel tank? | A sump and drain |
| What is installed in fighter aircraft fuel tanks that prevent fuel sloshing and reduce the potential for fuel ignition or explosion if the aircraft is hit by enemy fire? | Foam blocks |
| Which fuel tank type is made of a rubber or nylon material and conforms to the shape of the vacant cavity within the fuselage where it sits? | Bladder-type |
| Which type of fuel tank is not removable and is not self-sealing? | Integral |
| What is the primary purpose of a centrifugal pump? | Pressurize the fuel manifold |
| What distinct advantage do centrifugal-type pumps have over other types of pumps? | They tend to run cooler because there is no contact between the rotating impeller and the stationary housing of the pump body |
| Why must the centrifugal-type pump be installed at a location where fuel will flow to the pumps inlet? | Rotary vane-type pumps |
| When would a rotor vane-type pump most likely be used? | Scavenging operations |
| What principle applies to the operation of an ejector pump? | Venturi |
| What is the function of the rotor in an air-refueling pump? | To remove fuel vapors caused by the centrifugal force of the impeller |
| List two types of check valves. | Flapper and pressure-loading |
| What is the purpose of the small-drilled hole in the center of the flapper? | Allows some fuel to return from other parts of the system to lubricate a dry pump |
| How is pressure-loaded check valves opened? | By pump pressure only |
| Why is shutoff valves installed in a manifold? | To control the flow of fuel or air through a manifold or into a tank |
| What is an advantage of the sliding gate shutoff valve? | It has the advantage of being able to control a large flow of fuel |
| What components make up a rotary plug shutoff valve? | Valve body, motor, and rotor plug |
| What type of seal is used between the disc and valve body of a disc type shutoff valve? | O-ring |
| What is the purpose of a fuel-level control valve? | Provides for automatic control of the fuel level during the filling of a fuel tank |
| Piston-type fuel level control valves operate on what principle? | Hydromechanical |
| How is the diaphragm-type valve controlled? | Electrically |
| What controls the operation of the fuel control valve in a combination fuel control valve and pilot valve? | The pilot valve |
| What condition may cause temporary malfunction of a vent float valve? | Frozen condensation within the valve |
| What is the definition of a switch? | A component used to open or close an electrical circuit or to select paths through the circuit |
| List three types of fuel-controlled switches. | Pressure, float, and fuel-flow indicator |
| How are float switches actuated? | By fuel level |
| What switch indicates a flow or no flow condition? | Fuel-flow indicating switch |
| List two types of fuel quantity indicating switches. | The DC liquid-level and capacitance-type |
| What type of fuel quantity indicating system uses the potentiometer wiper mechanism? | The DC liquid-level type |
| The capacitance-type fuel indicating system shows how much fuel is in the tank, using what form of measurement? | Pounds of fuel |
| What component controls the amount of pressure entering a fuel tank? | Air Pressure regulator |
| If the air pressure regulator fails, what unit will relieve the excess pressure? | The pressure/vacuum relief valve |
| What item of a disconnect coupling prevents fuel leakage from an installed external tank? | An O-ring |
| What is the purpose of the aircraft fuel system? | Stores fuel and delivers the proper amount of clean fuel at the right pressure to meet the demands of the engine |
| What are the four components of the engine feed system? | Pumps, check valves, shutoff valves, and thermal relief valves |
| If a pump fails to operate, what component prevents the reverse flow of fuel through the pump? | Check valves |
| What is the purpose of thermal relief valves? | To relieve pressure from heat expanded fuel |
| What controls all shutoff valves in an engine feed system? | Throttles |
| What is the purpose of the crossfeed system? | To ensure fuel is supplied to the engines at all time |
| What are the three methods used to transfer fuel? | Pump, air pressure, and gravity flow |
| What component controls fuel level in the receiving tank during fuel transfer? | Fuel level control valve |
| How is a fuel control valve controlled? | Either by the solenoid or the pilot float |
| What components are required during gravity transfer of fuel? | Shutoff valve and float valve |
| Where are vent ports located? | Top of the fuel tank |
| List the personal characteristics that cause a person to perform an unsafe act or to overlook or tolerate an unsafe action. | Inattentiveness, excitability, impatience, and stubbornness |
| What should be accomplished after a maintenance action? | The area should be policed and left in a clean, orderly condition |
| Failure to clean up drips and spills can cause what dangers? | Slips and falls |
| What is considered to be the direct cause of many accidents? | Unsafe acts and conditions |
| What is defined as rough or boisterous play, but is a major cause of accidents? | Horseplay |
| What type of protective clothing do you wear while working around hot exhaust or tailpipes? | Gloves and long-sleeved shirts |
| What position do you assume to lift an object from a level lower than your waist? | Squatting position, back straight |
| Why must supervisors be given formal safety training? | Accident prevention know how |
| Name the two most frequent methods used in job safety training. | Personal interviews by the supervisor and 5 minute "stand up" talks |
| When should you replace cracked or broken tools? | Immediately |
| What should you do if your clothes become splashed or sprayed with chemicals? | Leave the area immediately and remove them |
| What information does MSDS provide you? | An explanation of the physical data of the chemicals you work with. |
| What information must be included on hazardous waste labels? | Melting, boiling, and flash point, toxicity, health effects, first aid, storage, and spill procedures |
| What must be considered to make a sealant effective? | Type of waste and the "accumulation start" entries. Correct sealant be chosen for the specific area or situation and be applied correctly. |
| Sealants are packaged and available in what general U/Is? | Two-part can kit, semkit cartridge, premixed and frozen |
| What TO covers sealants, solvents, and adhesives? | 42A3-1-2 and 1-1-691 |
| What is the sealant application life? | The length of time a mixed sealing compound remains usable at 77° F and 50% relative humidity. |
| What is the purpose of solvents? | Dissolve oily soils so that they can be easily wiped away or absorbed on a cloth |
| List three sources of antenna radiation. | High frequency radio transmitter, radar, and electric countermeasure devices |
| What are the effects of antenna radiation on the human body? | Burns beneath the skin, cataracts in the eyes, and body organ damage |
| Briefly describe the hazards associated with an overheated brake assembly. | Blowout or fire |
| From what direction do you approach an aircraft with overheated brakes? | Aircraft's nose or tail direction - never in line with the axles |
| List the major danger areas around an operating jet engine | Engine intake, exhaust, turbine plane of rotation, and high-intensity sound |
| What's the normally considered safe distance from an operating jet engine intake? | 25 ft to the front and sides of the intake duct |
| What is normally considered a safe distance to the rear of jet engine exhaust? | About 200ft |
| Why is the plane of rotation of the engine turbine wheel considered dangerous? | If a turbine wheel disintegrates while you're in the plane of rotation, there's a good chance that you'll have serious fatal injuries. |
| In addition to earplugs, what protective device do you wear when working in high-intensity noise areas? | Ear defenders |
| Define and "explosive loaded" aircraft. | When an aircraft carries munitions, internally, or externally |
| Where must an explosives loaded aircraft be parked? | A designated explosives parking area |
| Which personnel are allowed to remove safety devices from explosive devices? | ONLY weapons personnel |
| Describe a composite material. | Many different materials such as fiberglass, carbon fiber, Kevlar, etc |
| Besides being assigned to a crash recovery team, as a flight-line crew chief what is your most likely chance of being affected by the dangers of composite materials? | Aircraft fire |
| Why should AF personnel be so concerned about FOD? | FOD translates into the loss of resources, money, or someone's life |
| What can happen when loose objects are blown or washed onto the runway? | They can be ingested into an aircraft engine through its intake. |
| Who is tasked with the overall responsibility for the FOD prevention program? | Wing Vice Commander (WG/CV) |
| Who is responsible for preventing FOD by looking for and removing hazards? | Everyone |
| What must all workers account for at the beginning and end of each maintenance action? | Tools |
| If a missing tool is not found after a thorough initial search is completed, who initiates a lost tool report? | The person who was issued the too |
| What must you wear when you are required to physically enter an aircraft engine's intake or exhaust? | Pocket less coveralls or equipment (Bunny suit) |
| To whom should you report damaged paving in aircraft parking areas and taxiways for immediate repair? | Base airfield manager |
| What is a dropped object as it relates to aircraft operations? | Any aircraft part, component, surface, or other item that has been lost during aircrew operations from engine start to engine shutdown |
| Who must develop a DOPP (Dropped Object Prevention Program)? | All units that fly, service, or maintain aircraft |
| What are the prime contributors to dropped objects? | Latches and fasteners |
| Who normally must investigate incidents as soon as they are discovered? | QA |
| What references provide guidance for servicing operations? | AFI 91-203, TO 00-25-172, and specific aircraft TOs |
| What can result from prolonged fuel saturation on your skin? | Skin can become irritated, and it could progress to a severe rash |
| Why is it important to inspect fire extinguisher seals? | To ensure the extinguisher wasn't previously discharged |
| What TOs list criteria for positioning fire extinguishers? | 00-25-172 and aircraft specific |
| What's the minimum safe distance for operating ground power equipment during oxygen servicing? | 50 ft |
| What should you do if a control valve becomes clogged with ice during LOX servicing? | Thaw it with warm air or water. |
| What device is used to help prevent over pressurization of an aircraft component during pneumatic servicing? | Pressure regulator |
| Why do many job guides list nitrogen as the preferred choice for servicing compressed gas components? | Because of nitrogen's inert qualities |
| What references contain info about ground handling? | Specific aircraft TO, AFI 91-203, AFI 11-218, TO 00-25-172 |
| Where do most aircraft specific TOs list safe for maintenance precautions? | In the first couple steps of the task |
| Preparations for aircraft launch include what? | Checking the aircraft forms and obtaining all required AGE. |
| When the aircraft taxis after launch, what tasks are accomplished by the ground controller? | Police the parking area and prepare AGE for pickup |
| During recovery, wing walkers are necessary under what conditions? | When taxiing through congested areas. |
| Why should an aircraft be moved in a straight line for 5 ft after a turn? | To relieve loads on MLG |
| As a general rule, where should you be positioned for marshaling your aircraft? | In front of the aircraft and to the left of the pilot |
| When is a safety observer positioned by a parked aircraft? | When any portion of the aircraft extends into an active taxiway |
| When mooring an aircraft, how do you position the aircraft in relation to the wind? | Head the aircraft into prevailing winds |
| What are the usual causes of towing accidents? | Inexperienced personnel and failure to follow correct towing procedures |
| What's the minimum number of tow crew members? | Three |
| During towing, why do you start and stop all movements slowly? | Sudden starts/stops may damage the aircraft. |
| What should you do before towing an aircraft across an active taxiway? | Get clearance from the control tower. |
| In addition to the aircraft's -2 TO, what TO sets down the basic rules for grounding an aircraft? | 00-25-172 |
| What are some of the reasons for jacking an aircraft? | Weigh aircraft, change landing gear, repair landing gear, and change tire/brake |
| What jacking accessory is positioned under reinforced areas of the aircraft and prevents damage to the aircraft structure? | Jack Pads |
| If the aircraft TO doesn't establish it, what's the maximum wind velocity for a jacking operation? | 15mph |
| What is the basic function of maintenance? | To ensure assigned aircraft and equipment are safe, serviceable, and properly configured to meet mission needs. |
| What are the two basic types of maintenance performed at unit level? | On-Equipment and Off-Equipment |
| What does preventative maintenance on our equipment help ensure? | It is ready and available when needed. |
| What TO describe preventative maintenance concepts? | 00-20-1 |
| What, if properly used, helps determine where your organization has been, where you are going, and how (or if) you are going to get there? | Maintenance Performance Indicators (MPI) |
| Which MPI is perhaps the best-known yardstick for measuring a maintenance unit's performance? | MC rate |
| What are some of the issues that can contribute to a low MC rate? | Experiencing many hard brakes, parts supportability shortfalls, workforce management issues, or high commitment rates |
| Which MPI is perhaps the most important and accurate measure of a unit's maintenance quality? | Repeat/recur rate |
| What can you do to contribute to keeping a low R/R rate? | Ensure that you always use the proper tech data in all parts of inspecting, troubleshooting, and repairing aircraft. |
| When are discrepancies considered deferred/delayed? | They are discovered and the decision is made to defer them. |
| What should you do if you have a lot of DDs and it will be a long time before your aircraft is scheduled for extended downtime? | Coordinate with your production superintendent and PS&D scheduler to get some downtime scheduled so that you can fix as many DDs as possible. |
| List three processes of the MDD system. | -Collection –Storage –Retrieval |
| What off-base agencies use the information provided through MDD? | AFMEA, MAJCOMS, and DOD |
| On-base, which individuals receive MDD information feedback? | Base managers and supervisors |
| Which major command is responsible for the overall material management of Air Force systems and equipment? | AFMC |
| What does the ACM provide unit managers the capability to determine? | Actual versus approved configuration of an aircraft |
| In what TO can you find the details for recording specific entries of AFTO 781 series forms? | 00-20-1 |
| What AFTO 781 series form is the identification document for the series binder? | 781F |
| What AFTO 781 series form is used for recording flight time, sorties, or events for input into the MIS? | 781 |
| Aircraft maintenance status and servicing information is entered on what AFTO 781 series form? | 781H |
| What AFTO 781 series form is used to record discrepancies discovered by aircrew or maintenance personnel? | 781A |
| What AFTO 781 series form is used to record engine oil time? | 781J |
| What AFTO 781 series form is used to record delayed discrepancies and calendar inspection information? | 781K |
| What AFTO 781 series form is a continuation of the calendar and hourly inspection item schedule shown on AFTO Form 781K? | 781D |
| What AFTO 781 series form contains basic information to aid in making entries on the 781A and 781K forms? | 781M |
| What is AFTO Form 95 used for? | For a permanent record of significant maintenance actions on aerospace equipment including engines, engine modules and designated MDS specific -6 TO components |
| What happens to the AFTO Form 95 when you remove and replace a component having an AFTO Form 95? | It accompanies the equipment when transferred |
| What is IMDS designed to give managers? | Visibility and control of resources at unit level |
| Which subsystem of IMDS provides the capability to order needed parts? | IMDS CDB/SBSS |
| Why are preventative maintenance schedules entered into IMDS? | To help track and report completion, deviation, or rescheduling actions |
| What IMDS subsystem provides information about jobs performed by maintenance activities? | IMDS JDD |
| What is the purpose of the initial evaluation? | To determine what specific tasks the individual is or is not qualified to do. |
| As a trainer, what is your responsibility in cases where a newcomer is qualified on a task required for the new work center? | What is the purpose of GAS? |
| What is the purpose of GAS? | Enables you to tell a school house how they are doing. |
| What is CFETP? | A comprehensive education and training document that identifies life-cycle education and training requirements, training support resources, core home station training, and deployment/UTC task requirements for an entire FS |
| What type of information is found in Part I of the CFETP? | Information necessary for overall management of the specialty |
| In what part and section of the CFETP do you find information that identifies the duties, tasks, and technical references to support training? | Part II, Section A |
| What is TBA? | An AF Portal, web-based application providing AF personnel real-time visibility of qualifications, certificates, and status of training. |
| What is the purpose of TBA? | Allows authorized users with ready access to training related info currently maintained in many different places and not readily accessible to those who need the info. |
| What is the description of the training manager's role in TBA? | This role has oversight of an organization |
| What makes up a TO library? | One or more current TOs with all changes, revisions, and supplements maintained on a continuing basis or a special-purpose library that might contain noncurrent TOs |
| Where would you find a transient aircraft library? | On bases where it’s common to service or perform organizational or intermediate level maintenance on aircraft not normally assigned to the base. |
| What information is required on a TO binder? | Binder number and contents of the binder |
| What are the functions of groups four through six of a TO number? | They further subdivide the TO into system and subsystems as applicable |
| ETIMS is web-based through the Air Force Portal to assist with what TO functions? | TO catalog search and ordering of TOs and TO account management |
| What's the purpose of the LOAP? | Provides a listing of all TOs that apply to a specific military system and related end items |
| What are the four major types of TOs? | -Technical Manuals –TCTOs –Abbreviated TOs –MPTOs |
| Describe the types of information found in technical manuals. | Instructions pertaining to operation, service, maintenance, inspection of complex weapon systems, and overhaul of component parts |
| How are the columns in Section I of the TS manual labeled? | Trouble, Probable Cause, and Remedy |
| What schematic diagrams are included in Section II of the TS manual? | Schematics of each related system for that TO |
| Name three types of abbreviated TOs. | -Check Lists (CLs) –Charts -Workcards (WCs) |
| Why does the Air Force use abbreviated TOs? | To simplify use |
| What are some examples of abbreviated TOs? | Aircraft towing, aircraft jacking, oxygen servicing, refueling and defueling, and engine run. |
| What type of TO lists minimum inspection requirements? | Workcards (WCs) |
| What are the five types of TCTOs covered in the text? | -Immediate Action –Record -Urgent Action –Interim -Routine Action |
| Which type of TCTO has red Xs around the first page? | Immediate Action |
| What type of TCTO is issued for a potentially hazardous condition that could result in injury to personnel or damage to property? | Urgent Action |
| Which TCTO is issued for a mechanical condition that would constitute a hazard through prolonged usage? | Routine Action |
| Which TCTO does not list step-by-step procedures? | Record |
| How are ITCTOs issued? | By electronic means when urgent circumstances don't allow for a timely publication of emergency instructions. |
| What are category MPTOs? | Category 00 |
| What form is used for TO improvement reporting? | AFTO IMT 22 |
| What are the three classifications of TO improvement reports? | -Emergency –Urgent -Routine |
| Emergency TO improvement reports are submitted for what reason? | When a fatality, serious injury, extensive damage, or destruction of equipment or property results or it affects the ability to achieve or maintain an operational posture, including work stoppage. |
| What type of improvement report is submitted if safety could be jeopardized? | Urgent |
| What type of report is for TO deficiencies and is processed within 45 days? | Routine |
| What are the two categories of publications? | -Directive -Nondirective |
| What type of publications does not list procedures or detailed "how-to" instructions? | PDs |
| What type of publication is used to direct action and ensure compliance across the Air Force? | Instruction |
| Which type of directive publication has two categories - departmental and field level? | Manuals |
| What is the purpose of an OI? | To assign responsibility, direct, actions, and prescribe procedures |
| What nondirective publication that explains or instructs can be permanent? | VA |
| Where can you find a listing of current Air Force manuals, pamphlets, instructions, and VA's online? | AF e-publishing website |
| Information about nonpowered AGE can be found in which technical orders? | The 35 and 37 series |
| What are the basic parts of a maintenance stand? | A base assembly, upper-structure assembly, platform assembly, and, on most stands, a hydraulic system |
| How is height of the platform adjusted on the B-1 maintenance stand? | By the extension and retraction of a hydraulic cylinder assembly |
| Which maintenance stand is best suited for performing maintenance and inspections on the vertical stabilizer and rudder? | B-2 |
| What should you ensure prior to standing on the ladder of a scissors-type maintenance stand? | The safety pins are installed |
| What should you do with the wheels of a B-4 or B-5 maintenance stand before towing? | Lock the rear casters in the fore and aft position to prevent the wheel assembly from swiveling. |
| How is operation of the model 4000/4100 maintenance trailer controlled? | Hydraulically |
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