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VTT Pharmacology 7
VTT Pharmacology FINAL
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The Woods lamp is used to detect what? | ringworm |
| What type of antimicrobial is highly lipophilic, making them one of the few antibiotics available to treat prostate infections? | Quinolones |
| What type of bacteria are aminoglycosides highly effective against? | aerobic bacteria |
| Does Gentamicin work well in the presence of purulent debris? | no |
| Why should tetracycline's not be administered at the same time as Pepto-Bismol? | Because they are readily chelated in the gut my mineral divalent cations such as Ca (calcium), Mg(magnesium), Fe(iron), Cu (copper) |
| Is tetracycline bactericidal or bacteriostatic? | bacteriostatic |
| Do cats and dogs contract pinworms? | no |
| What kind of drug could be used to treat psittacosis? | Doxycycline |
| Which species can be infected with coccidia? | dogs, cats, poultry, cattle |
| Which of the azoles is most likely to cause vomiting and hepatotoxicity? | ketoconazole |
| Why are sulfonamides often combined with other drugs? | to make them bactericidal Vs. Bacteriostatic |
| Tetracycline is readily chelated in the gut by what? | mineral divalent cations |
| Which azole is most likely to be used for otitis externa caused by Malassezia? | clotrimazole |
| The route of administration for oxytetracycline is what? | Parenteral |
| Which group of antibiotics will permanently teeth if given to young animals (including children)? | tetracyclines |
| What is the route of administration and frequency for Simplicef?? | Oral S.I.D |
| How are cephalosporins categorized? | by when they were first developed |
| Aspergillus can grow in where?? | old bread |
| Praziquantel is used to treat what? | cestodes |
| Which drug is used topically to treat KCS? | Cyclosporine |
| What is the proper term for ringworm? | Dermatophytosis |
| What is the proper term for valley fever? | Coccidioidomycosis |
| Which is the only FDA approved systemic antifungal for veterinary use? | Griseofluvin |
| Why is Griseofluvin supplied in microsize ultra microsize formulations? | particle must be very small to be absorbed by the gastrointestinal tract |
| What is the Pasteurella species found in cats? | Pasteurella Multocida |
| Expired tetracyclines decompose to a nephrotoxic compound that causes what? | Fanconis Syndrome |
| What are the clinical signs of Fanconis syndrome? | polyuria, polydipsia, reduced appetite, weight loss, lethargy, poor body condition, reduced/abnormal growth (rickets) in young growing animals |
| What is Fanconis Syndrome? | The presence of glucosuria in the absence of hyperglycemia |
| What breed has a genetic predisposition for Fanconis syndrome? | Basenji |
| What aminoglycoside is the active ingredient in Neosporin? | Neomycin |
| What are the 2 main adverse effects of the aminoglycosides? | Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity |
| What is the active ingredient in Convenia? | Cefovecin |
| What organism causes salmon poisoning? | Rickettsia Helminthoeca, which infects the parasite nanophyetus salmincola |
| Which antibiotic help tear staining in dogs? | tetracyclines |
| Is it normal for Convenia to turn an amber color during storage after it has been opened? | yes |
| What kind of drug is Cipro? | Quinolone |
| Cefopodoxime proxetil is a prodrug, What is the active metabolite? | Cefopodoxime |
| What is the MOA of the quinolones? | interferes with DNA gyrase. preventing bacterial DNA from supercoiling |
| What is the route of administration for amphotericin B? | Parenteral IV |
| What is the primary adverse effect of amphotericin B? | Nephrotoxicity |
| How does methimazole control hyperthyroidism? | by blocking the incorporation of iodine |
| What kind of drug is Apoquel? | Janus Kinase (JAK) Inhibitor |
| What is the active ingredient in Apoquel? | oclacitinib |
| What is Apoquel (oclacitinib) used to treat? | pruritus associated with allergic dermatitis and control of atopic dermatitis |
| Apoquel is used to control atopic dermatitis is dogs that are how old? | 12 months or older |
| Can Apoquel be taken with NSAIDS? | Yes |
| What is the drug of choice for coccidia infections? | Sulfadimethoxine |
| What is the trade name for Sulfadimethoxine? | Albon |
| What causes a goiter? | Hypothyroidism caused by a lack of iodine in the diet, T3 and T4 cannot be produced leading to increased output of TRH &TSH causing thyroid cells to proliferate, and the gland increases in size |
| Which canine parasite is not treated with pyrantel pamoate? | canine whipworm |
| What is the scientific name for the canine whipworm? | Trichuris Vulpis |
| What is the indication for the use of oral Maropitant? | For the prevention of acute vomiting as well as vomiting due to motion sickness |
| What is the trade name for maropitant? | Cerenia |
| What is the minimum age for use of Cerenia (maropitant)? | 8 weeks of age |
| What is the active form of thyroid hormone? | T3 triiodothyronine (3 iodines ) |
| What is the inactive form of thyroid hormone? | T4 tetraiodothyronine/ thyroxine (4 iodines) |
| What is the treatment of choice for canine hypothyroidism? | Levothyroxine |
| Why is levothyroxine the treatment of choice for canine hypothyroidism? | because it allows each tissue to convert T4 to T3 as needed |
| What is visceral larval migrans (VLM) | condition in which ova of toxocara canis or T.cati are ingested, the larva then hatch, penetrate the wall of the G.I.T and migrate into the viscera (usually the liver, but also the lung, brain, and even eyes) |
| What is the scientific name for the canine heartworm? | Dirofilaria |
| What drug is used to kill adult heartworms? | Melarsomine dihydrochloride (Imitticide) |
| What is the active ingredient in Advantage? | imidacloprid |
| What is the active ingredient in Frontline? | Fipronil |
| What is the active ingredient in Program? | Lufeneron |
| What is the active ingredient in Capstar? | Nitenpyram |
| How does Advantage kill fleas? | effects the nervous system of fleas which are different than that of mammals |
| How frequently can Capstar be given? Why? | daily, very short half life |
| What is the name of the parenteral flea medication for cats? | Program |
| What are pyrethrins derived from? | Chrysanthemums |
| What are the different types of insecticides? | pyrethrins, synthetic pyrethroids, chlorinated hydrocarbons, carbamates, organophosphates, formamidines |
| What is an example of a formamidine? | Amitraz |
| Is Amitraz safe for use in dogs and cats? | No, Safe in dogs only, toxic to cats |
| What synergist increases the efficacy of pyrethrins and some pyrethroids? | piperonyl butoxide |
| 1000mg equals what? | 1 gram |
| What carries an impulse away from the neuron cell body? | axon |
| What drug is used to treat urine spraying in cats? | Buspirone |
| Name an alpha 2 antagonist used to reverse the effects of xylazine | Yohimbine |
| What is an epidural? | regional nerve block |
| What are the symptoms of organophosphate toxicity? | S.L.U.D.D.E salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, dyspnea, emesis |
| multimodal pain managment | the use of multiple drugs from different classes concurrently to control pain |
| What drug is used to manage urinary incontinence in dogs? | Phenylpropanolamine or PPA |
| Name the anticholinergic used to treat cilliary spasm in a painful eye | atropine |
| What drug is nick named milk of amnesia? | Propofol |
| What drug is called laughing gas? | nitrous oxide |
| What drug penetrates the skin readily and tastes like garlic? | DMSO |
| What drug has 100% bioavailability in cats when given via OTM route? | buprenorphine |
| What drug is mixed in equal volumes with ketamine and given IV? | diazepam |
| What drug is a polysulfated glycosaminoglycan? | Adequan |
| What is the active ingredient in Rimadyl? | Carprofen |
| How many pairs of cranial nerves are there? | 12 |
| What part of the brain is responsible for pain perception? | thalamus |
| How many mg are in a grain? | 64.8mg |
| What does MAC measure? | how potent an inhalant agent is |
| Describe apneustic respiration | a deep inhale, held then rapid shallow exhalations |
| What cholinergic drug controls vomiting by increasing peristalsis? | metoclopramide (Reglan) |
| What opioid is used as an antitussive? | Butorphanol |
| Expectorant that doubles as an IV induction agent in horses | Guaifenesin |
| What is the benzodiazepine component of telazol? | zolazopam |
| What drug reacts with Baralyme to create compound A | Sevoflurane |
| What local anesthetic has a rapid onset and short duration of effect? | lidocane |
| What is the active ingredient of Domitor? | medotomidine |
| What drug is used to treat canine cognitive dysfunction? | Anipryl |
| What drug is used to treat idiopathic epilepsy? | phenobarbital |
| What class of drug is phenobarbital? | class IV |
| Parasympathomimetic | cholinergic |
| What adrenergic drug is used to treat acute renal failure? | dopamine |
| What opioid can be supplied as a transdermal patch? | Fentanyl |
| What receptors does fentanyl act upon? | Mu |
| What drug may cause permanent penile prolapse in horses? | Acepromazine |
| Lipophilic drugs tend to be more readily absorbed via what route? | PO |
| Hydrophilic drugs tend to be more readily absorbed via what route? | IM |
| Is the somatic nervous system under voluntary control? | yes |
| alpha and beta receptors are located where/ | sympathetic nervous system |
| The peripheral nervous system includes what? | the nerves that are outside the brain and spinal cord |
| What carries messages to the neuron cell body? | dendrite |
| What is an agonist? | a drug that combines with a receptor and produces and effect on the cell |
| What is an antagonist? | A drug that combines with a receptor to inhibit an effect on the cell |
| DEA | Drug Enforcement Administration |
| The cell body of a pre-ganglionic neuron is located where? | thoracic or lumbar spinal cord |
| What makes the capillaries of the brain different from the capillaries of the body? | Capillaries of the body have fenestrations whereas the capillaries of the brain do not |
| Alpha receptors are activated primarily by what? | norepinephrine |
| Dopamine may be used to treat what? | anuric renal failure |
| What drug is used to treat the tachycardia seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? | propranolol |
| What is the primary neurotransmitter in the parasympathetic nervous system? | Acetylcholine |
| Which type of drug is most likely to pass through the blood brain barrier? | lipophilic drugs |
| What part of the brain interprets sensory input? | cerebral cortex |
| a hepatic effect in which some PO administered drugs do not make it to systemic circulation because they are removed by the liver | the first pass effect |
| When dopaminergic receptors are stimulated it causes what? | vasodilation in the kidneys |
| An F-1 drug is said to have what? | 100% bioavailability |
| A cholinergic drug may also be called what? | a Parasympathomimetic |
| Parasympathomimetic drugs can be used to do what? | decrease intra-ocular pressure, control vomiting, treat urinary retention |
| Beta agonists can be used to treat what? | asthma |
| What part of the brain controls vital functions such as blood pressure and respiration? | medulla oblongata |
| What part of the brain controls the pituitary gland? | hypothalamus |
| The hepatic portal system is most relevan in which route of drug administration? | PO- per os- by mouth- oral |
| Name 4 things that happen when you stimulate the sympathetic nervous system | increased HR, increased RR, Mydriasis, decresed GI motility |
| What does PPA stand for? | phenylpropanolamine |
| What is PPA used for? | to treat urinary incontinence in dogs |
| What are the 2 sites in the body that have simillar barrier to drug distribution as the brain? | the globe of the eye, the prostate |
| Relative to the ANS how does metoclopramide control emesis? | by increasing peristalsis, moving stomach contents through the system more quickly. less time in the stomach = less opportunity to vomit contents back up |
| What does hemostasis mean? | the stopping of a flow of blood |
| homeostasis | the tendency toward a relatively stable equilibrium between interdependent elements, especially as maintained by physiological processes. |
| Why is atropine used to treat an eye that is painful due to a corneal ulcer? | to reduce cilliary spasms |
| What are the 2 indirect means by which a drug may mimic a natural neurotransmitter? | 1. stimulate the release of the natural neurotransmitter without binding to the receptors itself. 2.inhibit the breakdown of the natural neurotransmitter |
| Why is epinephrine added to a local anesthetic such as lidocane? | because it causes vasoconstriction, therefore decreasing perfusion and prolonging the duration of the local anesthetic |
| name 3 sites that are innervated by sympathetic nerve fibers but NOT parasympathetic? | sweat glands, hair follicles, adrenal medulla |
| Whay does an afferent nerve cell do? | sends messages to the CNS (sensory) |
| What is oliguric renal failure? | a condition in which the kidneys are producing very little "scanty" urine |
| What does SLUDDE stand for? | Salivation, lacrimation, urination defecation, dyspnea, emesis |
| What causes SLUDDE? | Organophosphate toxicity |
| What does a vasopressor do? | increases blood pressure |
| Why would glycopyrrolate be used in rabbits instead of atropine? | because some rabbits produce atropinase, which makes them break down atropine more quickly than other species |
| A micro-drip IV administration set will deliver what? | 60gtt/ml |
| CNS excitement and aggression can sometimes be seen with what drug? | Acepromazine |
| True or false? ketamine provides for excellent visceral analgesia and is therefore ok to use alone for a procedure such as a spay? | False, why? Ketamine provides peripheral anesthesia |
| True or false? perivascular injection of some drugs, like certain barbiturates can lead to tissue necrosis and tissue sloughing | true....what drug will you see this with? |
| Why is diazepam supplied in an amber bottle? | because it is light sensitive |
| True or false? After administration of euthanasia solution, cardiac activity may persist for several minutes after respiratory arrest | true |
| What type of drug is the active ingredient in most euthanasia solutions? | barbiturate |
| Diazepam is a good example of a true what? | tranquilizer |
| Why are barbiturates used with caution if at all in sight hounds? | |
| true or false, diazepam can soak into plastic | true |
| What is the reversal agent for xylazine? | yohimbine |
| What is important to know about the xylazine and its dosing in cattle? | the cattle dose is 1/10 the horse dose |
| in the pain pathway, the translation of a noxious stimulus into a pain message is called? | transduction |
| What is the reversal agent for dexdomitor? | Atipamizole |
| there is a partial recovery, or lessening of anesthesia, shortly after giving an IV barbiturate. this is caused by? | redistribution of the drug into lesser perfused tissues such as fat |
| Dissociative can cause what side effects? | hyper salivation, pain when given IV seizures, increased muscle tone, exaggerated laryngeal reflexes |
| When monitoring a patient who has been given dexmetetomidine, what would you expect to see? | pale MM's, slow CRT, bradycardia |
| What is acepromazine commonly used for? | pre-med prior to anesthesia, chemical restraint, sedation for traveling, sedation for 4th of july/new years/thunderstorms |
| Which drug is used as an appetite stimulant in cats? | diazepam |
| What drug is used as an emetic in cats? | xylazine |
| What is the concentration of acepromazine? | 10mg/ml |
| general anesthesia affects what part of the pain pathway? | conscious perception |
| What drug causes potentially permanent penile prolapse in horses? | acepromazine |
| What is the medical term for penile prolapse? | paraphimosis |
| What drug is commonly used for the management of idiopathic epilepsy? | phenobarbital |
| While under the influence of dissociatives what is it called when an animal holds its breath and exhales in short shallow breaths? | Apneustic respiration |
| How to alpha-2 agonists cause sedation? | by stimulating the alpha-2 receptors causing a decrease in norepinephrine |
| What is norepinephrine responsible for? | general alertness |
| What are the 2 active ingredients in telazol? | tiletamine and zolazepam |
| dissociatives inhibit which receptors in the spinal cord? | NMDA |
| What does NMDA stand for? | N-Methyl-D-Aspartate |
| What is spinal cord wind up? | process of increasing sensitivity of spinal cord to pain impulses |
| What does paradoxical mean? | opposite to what you would expect |
| What is the toxic ingredient in some snail baits that will cause fatal seizures in animal? | metaldahyde |
| What is needed for ordering class II drugs? | form 222 |
| Where does form 222 come from? | the DEA |
| What is the main advantage with administration of midazolam as compared to diazepam? | midazolam is hydrophilic so it absorbs well IM & SQ |
| What is the maximum parenteral dose of acepromazine in dogs? | 3mg |
| What is the maximum parenteral dose of acepromazine in cats? | 1mg |
| Why should you not give acepromazine to an animal that is going to undergo intradermal skin testing for allergies? | it has acepromazine has antihistamine properties and intra dermal allergy testing relies on a histamine response for accurate results |
| What are the 3 classes of drugs in kitty magic | opioid, dissociative, alpha 2 agonist |
| ketamine is contraindicated in what 2 injuries? | head trauma, open globe injury |
| How can phenylbutazone be administered? | IV PO |
| What medical condition in cats can lead to thromboembolus and therefore warrant the use of aspirin therapy? | hypertrophic cardiomyopathy |
| Flunixin meglumine is used off label to treat dogs with parvo virus, and calves with diarrhea, what exactly is being treated? | endotoxemia |
| The only FDA approved use for DMSO IS? | Topical application to reduce acute swelling due to trauma |
| How does the maintenance dose of meloxicam compare to the loading dose? | half of the loading dose |
| Adequan reduces inflammation and increases hyaluronate in arthritic joints resulting in? | thicker synovial fluid |
| What is combined with aspirin to make it buffered? | an antacid |
| What are the 2 approved routes of administration of Adequan? | IM IA |
| When orally dosing liquid meloxicam to small dogs how should it be administered? | on their food, not into their mouth |
| Which NSAID has a black box warning because it has caused death in cats? | meloxicam |
| What did cats killed by meloxicam die from? | acute renal failure/ toxicity |
| What irreversible ocular problem in dogs can be caused by etodolac? | KCS |
| What is proud flesh? | exuberant granulation tissue |
| give an example of an exogenous pyrogen? | virus. bacteria, |
| phenylbutazone is used predominantly in what species? | horses |
| What are the 4 clinical signs of inflammation | heat ,swelling, pain, redness |
| What does acetominaphen cause in cats? | methemoglobinemia |
| What breed may be susceptible to acute liver failure with Rimadyl | Labrador retrivers |
| in addition to the usual side effects which NSAID can cause flatulence and hairloss | tepoxalin/zubrin |
| What is the active ingredient in Adequan? | polysulfated glycosaminoglycan |
| What is the active ingredient in aspirin | acetylsalicylic acid |
| What does DMSO stand for? | dimethyl sulfoxide |
| list 3 potential side effects of NSAIDS? | GI ulceration, renal toxicity, bleeding problems due to anti-platelet effects |
| When phenylbutazone is given to cattle what is the withdrawl time for a single dose? | 30 day |
| What do NSAIDS inhibit in the arachidonic acid cascade | cyclooxygenase |
| Which COX-2 selective NSAID has been approved for oral use in cats? | ONSIOR- Robenacoxib |
| What is the maximum length of time Onsior can be given to cats? | 3 days |
| What NSAID is supplied as a rapidly dissolving tablet? | tepoxalin/zubrin |
| What does idiosyncratic mean | unpredictable |
| what does idiopathic mean? | unknown cause |
| What does iatrogenic mean? | caused by the health care professional |
| what does opishotinus mean? | the head is thrown back and the legs go rigid |
| Synthetic progestins can cause what? | adrenocortical suppression, mammary neoplasia, DM, Pyometra |
| Opioids when used in which species will cause CNS excitement? | horses and cats |
| behavioral drugs work by? | altering neurotransmitters in the brain |
| inhalents move from the lungs to the blood via what? | a concentration gradient |
| inhalents with a high vapor pressure require what? | precision vaporizer |
| What does MAC tell you about an inhalant agent? | how potent it is |
| How often are fentanyl patches removed? | every 3 days |
| Which inhalant is known to sensitize the myocardium and cause arrythmias | halothane |
| What behavior disorder is selegiline (Anipryl) used for in dogs? | canine cognitive dysfunction |
| neurleptanalgesia | using a higher amount of an opioid and tranquilizer in combination to produce profound sedation and analgesia |
| What is an example of a natural opiod like substance that our bodies make | endorphins |
| Why was N2O used with halothane and methoxyflurane? | to speed up induction and recovery provide extra analgesia and reduce adverse effects by lowering the MAC of the other agents |
| What is TIVA | Total intravenous anesthesia |
| When is TIVA used? | field anesthesia, or if the procedure is less than an hour |
| Why should buprenorphine not be swallowed? | first pass effect |
| What is the active ingredient in clomicalm | clomipramine |
| Inhalant anesthetics can cause what hyper metabolic syndrome in humans and animals? | malignant hyperthermia |
| What is malignant hyperthermia called when it occurs in swine? | porcine stress syndrome |
| Sevoflurane can react with Baralyme to produce what? | compound A |
| What does compound A cause | renal damage |
| What color is associated with sevoflurane | yellow |
| What color is associated with isoflurane | purple |
| What color is associated with desflurane | blue |
| What drug usually comes in ampules? | buprenorphine |
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