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VTT Equine Final Pre
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| True or False: The two most important minerals in a horses diet are calcium and phosphate. | False, it's calcium and phosphorus |
| True or False: A horse is considered a pony if it is under 14.2 hands. | True |
| True or False: The miniature horse is the only horse not to be measured from ground to withers, it is measured from ground to poll. | False, it is measured to the last true hairs |
| True or False: Draft horses are gentle in disposition making them a great all around horse for riding and light work. | False, Coldblood or draft horses are used for heavy work and warmblooded horses are great all around horses for riding and light work |
| True or False: There are two shades of black, fading and non-fading. | True |
| True or False: A horse should be fed 2.5% of it's body weight daily for maintenance. | False, it should be fed 1.5% of it's body weight daily for maintenance. |
| True or False: The Ca:P ratio for foals is 1:1 to 1:3. | False, the ratio is 1:1 to 3:1 |
| True or False: Horses are the only animal to not have a gall bladder. | No, though they are one of the few large animals not to. Deer also do not. |
| Define Foal: | Horse under 1 year of age |
| Define Gelding: | Castrated male horse |
| Define Suckling | Horse that is still nursing |
| Define long yearling: | Horse between ages 1 1/2 and 2 years |
| Define short yearling: | Horse between ages 1 and 1 1/2 years |
| List each horse gait in order from Fastest to Slowest. | Gallop, canter, trot, walk |
| List each horse gait in order from Slowest to Fastest | Walk, Trot, Canter, Gallop |
| What are the two ways to group breeds? | Temperament, body type |
| Name two color breeds | Palomino, Paint |
| Name three types of bedding. | Straw, wood shavings, Peat moss |
| What are the three temperament breeds? | Cold, warm, hot |
| What is the difference between a white and grey horse? | Black skin = grey while White skin = white |
| What are the three(out of nine) species, of the equus genus that we discussed in class? | Zebra, caballus, asinus |
| What is the horse dental formula? | 2(I 3/3, C 1/1, P 4/4, M 3/3) = 44 |
| What is the alternative term for first phalanx? | Long pastern |
| What is a pro to using straw bedding vs wood shavings? | Less bacteria, doesn't get in wounds, safe for foals |
| What does hind gut fermentation mean? | Cellulose digested by bacteria in hind gut |
| What is the average daily consumption of water? | 5 to 10 gallons |
| On average how long does it take food to pass through the entire digestive tract? | 36-72 hours |
| What color should a horse's forage be? | Green |
| When do the energy requirements change for a pregnant horse? | Month 7 |
| How much is a hand? | about 4 inches |
| What is the birthday that all horse's share in the Northern Hemisphere? | Jan 1st |
| Name two gaited breeds. | Tennessee Walking Horse, Missouri Trotter |
| True or False: Vision is assessed by the pupillary light reflex. | False, Vision is assessed by the menace reflex, the pupillary light reflex is used to assess neurological conditions. |
| True or False: For a prepurchase exam, the exam is paid for by the seller and the vet is acting in the seller's best interest. | False, it is paid for by the buyer and the vet is acting in their best interest |
| True or False: If you are acting in the patient's best interest, it is okay to pass judgement on the owner's husbandry practices. | False, you should use a nonjudgemental guiding approach or they may just not tell you or worse not call you at all when they do something or something is wrong. |
| True or False: The blind spots in a horse are directly in front and directly behind. | True |
| True or False: The most common way to test for hydration status is by skin turgor. | True, mucus membranes also help to assess this |
| True or False: Splayed legs and pawing at the ground is referred to as "snaking". | False, shaking the lowered head from side to side is called "snaking" |
| True or False: When walking behind a horse, you should either stay 15 feet back or as close as possible while keeping a hand on the horse. | True, this keeps you out of the kick zone and/or keeps them aware of your presence so they don't become startled and kick you. |
| True or False: A halter is an ideal way to restrain a young foal. | False, never restrain or lead a foal with a halter, they are not trained with it and may resist causing injury |
| True or False: The shoulder twitch should only be used as a last resort when restraining a horse. | False, the EAR twitch should only be used as a last resort |
| True or False: One of the purposes of a tail tie is for rectal exams. | True, another is obsetetrics |
| List three ways to get a respiratory rate on a horse. | Visual observation often done at a distance 1st, Auscultation noting sounds and when sounds occur (inspiration vs expiration), Feel (resting hand on the side) |
| List the four quadrants of the abdomen. | Upper Right, Lower Right, Upper Left, Lower Left |
| List the three reasons for lameness (General not specific disease processes) | Pain, Neurological, mechanical interference |
| List two signs of pain. | Rolling, Groaning |
| List two clinical signs of colic patients. | Distended abdomen, pinging on auscultation, pawing at ground, flank watching, profuse sweating, decreased deification, kicking at belly, poor appetite |
| What is the difference between an insurance exam and a prepurchase exam? | In a prepurchase exam you're acting in the best interest of the of the buyer, buyer pays. In the insurance exam a lot of what you examine depends on what the use of the horse will be. Both determine the value of the horse, client pays. |
| When assessing gait for a neurological exam or a lameness exam, what two gaits do you most commonly observe? | walk, trot |
| What does it mean when a horse has it's ears turned back? | Listening behind |
| What kind of vision does the horse have? | Monocular and Binocular |
| What is the horse's field of vision? | 350 degrees |
| What does it mean when a horse has it's ears pinned back? | Angry |
| The stomach contents voided through a nasogastric tube are referred to as what? | Reflux |
| The pulse rate is taken by what? | Palpation of the arteries |
| When the pulse and heart rate don't match up, it's called a what? | Pulse deficit |
| The normal temperature in horses varies how? | By age temperament and environement |
| True or False: The normal temperature in horses is lower in draft horses. | True |
| Is the normal temperature in foals higher or lower than it is in adults? | Lower |
| Brick red gums indicate what? | septic shock |
| What is the kick zone of a horse? | 5.5 to 8 feet |
| What is NOT a type of twitch used with horses Ear twitch, tail twitch, mechanical twitch, shoulder twitch? | Tail twitch |
| What are stocks used for? | Dental work, Nasogastric intubation, Rectal palpations, fluid administration |
| What does chewing (without food) indicate? | Relaxed |
| When is a foals respiratory rate 60-80 breaths per minute? | About 5 minutes after birth |
| What is the normal respiratory rate in the horse? | 8-12 breaths per minute |
| What is the first step to a proper physical exam? | History |
| Information about the animal's history should be kept in what order? | Sequential |
| What is something that can't be observed from a distance? | Heart rate |
| What are 3 things that can be observed from a distance? | Respiration, Posture, Alertness |
| What must also be noted, along with breaths per minute, with respiratory rate? | Rate, Effort, Sounds |
| What is the most convenient location to get a pulse rate? | Facial |
| Why is it useful to have a ring on the ned of the thermometer? | Aspiration of the thermometer, Pushing out of thermometer, To attach string |
| When auscultating the abdomen how would normal mobility be recorded? | +2 |
| When performing a skin turgor test on a severely dehydrated patient, how many seconds might it take for the skin to return to it's normal position? | 8 seconds |
| True or False: A Sweeney occurs because of the influx of blood supply to the area after trauma or strain. | False, it occurs because the shoulder atrophies |
| True or False: One of the clinical signs of a bone spavin is pain upon flexion of the hock. | True |
| True or False: When diagnosing a lameness in the hind limb, the head will rise when the lame limb is bearing weight. | False, This is only true if it's a forelimb that is lame if it is a rear limb then it's the croup that rises and if it's more than one limb they'll be resistant to move. |
| True or False: Most horses won't bear weight on a lamb limb. | True |
| True or False: When both limbs are affected (lameness in both), the horse's croup will rise upon movement. | False, they will be hesitant to move. |
| True or False: The primary cause of quittor, is chronic inflammation of the coffin bone. | False, puncture wounds |
| True or False: One of the clinical signs of navicular syndrome is a choppy stride. | True |
| True or False: Seedy toe is the equivalent to a hot spot, but on the horse's hoof. | False |
| True or False: One treatment for side bone is regular trimming of the hooves. | False |
| True or False: The most common location for blood draws on a horse is the jugular vein. | True |
| True or False: Cystocentesis is not feasible in large animal. | True |
| True or False: The parasitic evaluation of feces is performed by culture and sensitivity. | False, C&S are done to test for things such as bacterial infection. |
| True or False: Abdominal fluid is normally pale yellow, clear, odorless with the consistency of honey. | False, it has the consistency of water |
| True or False: Dose syringes should be placed between the hors's incisors for delivery of medications. | False, between the canines and premolars |
| True or False: A balling gun is the large animal version of a pill gun and makes for giving horse's pills much easier. | False, it is designed to do this, but isn't good at it. |
| True or False: Endometrial biopsies are given a grade of a 1-5 by the histopathologist. | False, 1-3 with 1 being normal, 2 being above normal, and 3 being severe |
| True or False: Stage 2 of parturition is when the foal is delivered. | True, it begins with water breaking and ends with delivery |
| True or False: C-secion is common in horses and the foal has a good chance of survival. | False, it is the last resort |
| True or False: After birth, the umbilicus should be checked at least twice a day. | True, for omphalophlebitis or possible formation of abcess |
| True or False: Foal side test kits are used to test antibody levels in the field. | True, usually done in the first 18 to 24 hrs |
| True or False: Recovery is not always possible after surgery on a bone spavin. | True |
| True or False: The most common location for lameness is in the hind limb of large animals. | False, the most common location is in the forelimb |
| True or False: Neurologic disorders cause lameness without pain, but lameness is usually associated with pain. | True |
| True or False: Surgery is a possible treatment for laminitis. | True, antiendotoxic therapy, corrective trimming, and surgery |
| True or False: Venous blood draws are more prone to hematomas than arterial blood draws. | False, it's the reverse |
| True or False: EDTA is used as the anticoagulant for blood gas samples. | False, heparin is |
| True or False: Voided urine samples are the accepted compromise for not being able to perform cystocentesis on horses. | False, catherization is |
| True or False: Calcium carbonate crystals are normal in horses but not very common. | False, they are normal and common |
| True or False: Abdominocentesis is performed in standing recumbency in adults, lateral recumbency in foals. | True |
| True or False: A reliable method of medicating horses is feed additives. | False, it's unreliable |
| What are the three types of oral medications? | Powder, tablet, liquid |
| What are the three disadvantages to feed additives? | Tend to sift to the bottom of the feed bucket, may fall from mouth and not be taken in, May refuse food and meds due to taste |
| What are the five most readily accessible muscles in horses? | Brachiocephalicus, Pectoral, Gluteal, Semitendinosus, Triceps brachii |
| What is the maximum capacity of volume that can be administered IM in large muscles? | 15 ml |
| What is the maximum capacity of volume that can be administered IM in small muscles? | 5 to 10 ml |
| What are two parts of dental procedures an LVT can perform? | Floating, deciduous extractions |
| What three pieces of equipment are needed for a dental exam? | Light, speculum, syringe |
| Define "points" of the teeth. | Sharp points are referred to as hooks on the upper maxillary bucal area. Ramps on the lower mandibular lingual side. |
| What is the average length of gestation in horses? | 330-345 days |
| What is the average age of puberty in horses? | 10-24 months |
| What are the five "successes" that must occur to produce a live foal? | Insemination, conception, implantation, gestation, partruition |
| The estrous cycle mares have is called what? | Seasonally Polyestrus |
| To extend the estrus cycle of mares, what can people use? | Artificial light |
| The most common cause of dystocia is what? | fetal malposition. |
| The position a foal should be in during delivery is what? | nose up feet out |
| If the foal is unable to be delivered the last resort to retrieve the foal is what? | cesarean (C-section) |
| How soon does fresh semen have to be used? | Immediately |
| How long can cooled semen be stored for? | 24 hrs |
| Frozen semen requires what to be used? | thawing |
| Barbaro originally broke is rear leg. During recovery what did he develop in his remaining limbs. | Laminitis |
| What type of lameness was the laminitis that Barbaro had? | Compensatory/complementary |
| The other name for non-weight bearing lameness is what? | Swinging leg disorder |
| The cause of navicular disease is what? | Unknown |
| The neonatal period is what? | The first 4-5 days of life. |
| What is the most common way to collect semen from a stallion? | Artificial Vagina |
| The average litter size of a horse is what? | 1 foal |
| What is the percentage of foals that die within 48 hours of birth? | 2% |
| How soon after failed breeding will a horse cycle again? | 3 weeks |
| What volume of liquid would be used for a uterine infusion after an abortion? | Several gallons |
| What is a "jump mare"? | Mare in heat for stallion to mount during semen collection |
| What is a "teaser mare"? | Mare in heat used to cause erection in stallion |
| When are embryos transferred to recipient during embryo transfer? | 2 hrs after collection, can be stored for 12-24 hours |
| What is the most common cause of dystocia in horses? | Malposition |
| When is the suckling reflex present? | 5 minutes after birth |
| What environmental interferences may affect the bonding of a mare with a foal? | Humans, loud noises, dogs, other horses |
| What is meconium? | first feces |
| How long can colostrum be stored in milk banks? | 1 year |
| When would microbial culture and sensitivity be done in a uterine sample? | If infectious disease is suspected |
| What size syringe is most commonly used for administering liquid/paste medications? | 60 ml |
| How long can a nasogastric tube be kept in place for medication administration? | 24-48 hrs |
| When administering a medication via parental injection, what should be used to clean the skin? | Alcohol |
| What vein are most IV injections given into? | Jugular |
| How many times a year is it recommended to do a fecal floatation on a horse? | twice yearling, in the spring and fall |
| What do large strongyle adults cause in the horse? | Anemia |
| How are bot flies diagnosed in the horse? | Visual assessment - yellow eggs on legs and stomach |
| What type of lesion do stomach worms cause? | summer sores |
| How is the threadworm diagnosed? | Fecal float |
| How many hours after ingestion can Red Maple Leaf Poisoning cause death? | 24-48 hours |
| What do blister beetles feed on? | Alfalfa |
| How soon after ingestion of yew does death occur int he horse? | 2-3 hours |
| How long must locoweed be consumed before it elicits a reaction? | 2 weeks |
| What type of toxin are foxglove, oleander, and rhododendron considered? | Cardiac glycoside |
| What disease does yellow star thistle cause? | Chewing disease |
| What is the toxin that blister beetles release when killed? | Cantharidin |
| True or False: The most nerve racking part of large animal anesthesia is intubation. | False, it's recovery |
| True or False: The primary protection against compartment syndrome is constant movement off muscle compartments. | False, it's maintaining a good blood pressure |
| True or False: One way we can reduce anesthetic time for the patient is clipping the surgical area before induction. | True |
| True or False: Another name for a field block is a line block. | True |
| True or False: The first priority once the foal is born is drying/warming. | False, it's making sure the foal is breathing |
| True or False: Failure to apply adequate padding can lead to pressure necrosis. | True |
| True or False: It is important to apply constant tension to each layer, keeping all layers the same tension level. | False |
| True or False: If a patient is tampering with their bandage, it may require caustic chemicals to keep them from chewing on it. | No, that can hurt them, use a neck cradle |
| True or False: When using rolled gauze, it is best to use gauze that is less than 3". | False, at least 3" |
| True or False: Cast application is almost always done under anesthesia. | True |
| The family of bandages used to cover open surgical or traumatic wounds on the underside of the hoof are called what? | hoof bandages |
| The most important layer in a bandage is which layer? | Padding |
| What is the padding layer primarily used for? | To prevent the strangulation of blood supply |
| Which layer in a bandage is the only optional layer? | The finishing layer |
| What is the purpose of the finishing layer? | To prevent bedding and other debris from entering the bandage |
| What are the four muscle compartment we discussed in reference to compartment syndrome? | quadriceps, triceps, masseters, gluteals |
| List four of the nine areas/parameters we include in a "cast check" | Hot spots, weight bearing, temp, swelling, odor, exudate, wear, cast integrity, inflammation |
| What does external coaptation refer to? | Bandages, splints, casts |
| What is the commercial name for hoof bandages? | EZ boots |
| Name two common things struts are made from. | wooden poles, metal rods, casting tape |
| Why are anticholinergics not commonly used for pre-anesthetic drug combinations? | They decrease GI mobility which can lead to colic |
| What method of induction and maintenance would we use for a procedure lasting less than one hour? | Injectable/Injectable |
| What is the most common route of tracheal intubation? | Orotracheal |
| How is ideal dept of anesthesia assessed? | Eye position (rostral), Palpebral reflexes |
| What is the simplest type of splint? | Robert-Jones |
| How often should a bandage be checked? | Once daily |
| How can we prevent patient tampering in horses? | Neck cradle |
| Exercise bandages are used for what? | Protecting the lower legs during exercise, Protection of the hoof/heel bulbs, support of lower legs during exercise |
| What anatomical structures should a shipping bandage cover? | Below carpus to coronary band |
| True or False: Hoof bandages can be made from standard bandaging material. | True |
| Who typically applies a hoof bandage? | The ferrier |
| Can hoof bandages be made commercially bought? | True |
| What is the third layer of a distal limb bandage? | Padding |
| What is the most common product used for the wound dressing layer of a bandage? | Telfa pad |
| What artery do you need to be cautious with when applying a tail wrap? | Coccygeal |
| How close to surgery would a horse be allowed to eat hay? | 2-4 hours |
| What class of drug used for epidurals blocks motor fibers along with sensory fibers? | Local anesthetics |
| When is grain most commonly returned to the horse post-surgery? | 24 hours post-surgery |
| During what surgery may anticholinergics be indicated as a pre-med for a horse? | Ophthalmic |
| How close to surgery are foals allowed to nurse? | 30 to 60 minutes prior |
| What are the minimum vitals that should be taken prior to surgery? | TPR, lung/heart auscultation, and weight |
| When would we use injectable induction with injectable maintenance? | Surgeries lasting less than 1 hour |
| True or False: Older horses and miniature horses tend to be more predisposed to choke. | True |
| True or False: Guttural pouch diseases do not occur frequently, but when they do they are medical emergencies. | False |
| If epiglottic entrapment occurs during exercise, a standing endoscopic exam is sufficient to make a diagnosis. | False, you have to recreate the circumstance that causes the entrapment |
| True or False: Intermittent DDSP occurs each time a horse swallows. | False |
| True or False: "Roarers" are horses that have been diagnosed with epiglottic entrapment. | False, they have been diagnosed with laryngeal hemiplegia |
| True or False: Laryngeal hemiplegia only occurs in male thoroughbreds that are used for racing. | False |
| True or False: Coughing and shortness of breath are symptoms of atrial fibrillation, but most of the time there are no symptoms present. | True |
| True or False: COPD is one of the only respiratory diseases in horses that can NOT be diagnosed by endoscopy. | False |
| True or False: When a horse is diagnosed with EIA, the owner can opt to euthanize or place the horse in quarantine with the state. | False, the state wants the horse euthanized |
| True or False: "Swamp Fever" is another name for rhinopneumonitis. | False, it's another name for Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA) |
| True or False: Corneal ulcers can be caused by a number of things, but the cause is usually never determined. | True |
| True or False: Appaloosas and Paints are more at risk for ERU due to the light pigment around their eyes. | False |
| True or False: Definitive diagnosis of ocular squamous cell carcinoma can be made with a swab culture. | False, it can be made with a biopsy |
| True or False: Tetnus is caused by an aerobic organism that is found in the soil. | False, it is caused by an ANAEROBIC |
| True or False: The form of equine encephalitis that is seen in Washington state is VEE. | False, it's WEE |
| True or False: Botulism causes a progressive flaccid paresis and cranial nerve deficits. | True |
| True or False: Horses in Washington state are at a very high risk for Equine Protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) since every opossum carries the protozoa that causes the disease. | False, not every opossum carries the disease |
| True or False: Determining the cause of colitis is extremely easy after performing a few laboratory tests. | False |
| True or False: Tendonitis can affect both the extensor tendons (on the posterior aspect of the leg) and the flexor tendons (on the anterior aspect of the leg). | False |
| True or False: Homozygous affected HYPP horses tend to have more severe clinical signs than their heterozygous counterparts. | True |
| True or False: Foals can die from septic arthritis; however, the adult form of the disease is far less severe. | True |
| True or False: Male horses are four times as likely to suffer from wobblers as females. | False, they're two times as likely |
| True or False: Signs of OCD can be seen as early as five months of age. | True |
| True or False: Horses with upward fixation of the patella would rather trot than canter. | True |
| True or False: The most common complaint of horses with ethmoid hematoma is severe nosebleeds lasting from minutes to hours. | False |
| True or False: Influenza is not considered life-threatening, however death can occur. | True |
| True or False: Strangles is most commonly caused by Streptococcus hyicus. | False, it's most commonly caused by Steptococcus Equii |
| True or False: Cures for COPD include bronchodilators and steroids. | False, however TREATMENT does include these things |
| True or False: Cribbing is more common in racing communities. | True |
| True or False: Exertional rhabdomyolysis has been recognized in horses as a syndrome of muscle pain and cramping associated with exercise. | True |
| One of the more serious complications of choke is what? | Aspiration pneumonia |
| How many hours after the onset of choke can fever occur | 24-48 hrs |
| The medical term used for describing the inability to swallow food or water is what? | Dysphagia |
| The most common organism involved with guttural pouch mycosis is what? | Streptococcus equi |
| Nasal discharge associated with guttural pouch mycosis is often what color and consistency? | Creamy |
| Which arytenoid cartilage is most commonly affected with laryngeal hemiplegia? | The left |
| Arytenoid cartilage is usually seen in horses between what years of age? | 3 and 7 |
| Arytenoid cartilage is graded on what scale? | 1 to 4, with 4 being complete paralysis of the cartilage |
| Equine Recurrent Uveitis (ERU) is also known as what? | Moon blindness or Periodic Ophthalmia |
| The type of equine encephalitis that is seen most frequently is which? | Eastern Equine Encephalitis (EEE) |
| What is the fatality rate for Eastern Equine Encephalitis? | 75-100% |
| The type of equine encephalitis that is seen less frequently is which? | Western Equine Encephalitis (WEE) |
| What is the fatality rate for Western Equine Encephalitis? | 20-40% |
| When performing a "feed test", a normal horse should finish 8 oz of grain how quickly? | 2 minutes |
| What is the incubation period of Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM)? | Weeks to years |
| What is the prognosis for Epiglottic Entrapment? | Good |
| What is the cure for ERU? | None available |
| What color do ocular squamous cell carcinomas present as? | Pink |
| Who is at risk for tetnus? | Everyone |
| What other disease does HYPP typically present as? | Colic |
| What is the most common point of entry for bacteria leading to septic arthritis? | Umbilicus |
| What horses does tendonitis most commonly occur in? | Racehorses |
| What limb is tendonitis most common in which limbs? | Forelimbs |
| What is the most severe side effect that can occur with Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis? | Death |
| What is wobblers syndrome most commonly cuased by? | Spinal cord injury |
| Where does Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) cause lesions? | Brain |
| What is the definitive host for Sarcocystis neuroma? | Opossum |
| What should be noted on the patient's chart in case of any vaccine reactions? | Location/route given, vaccine lot number, vaccine serial number, any other vaccines given |
| What location in the fridge should the vaccines be stored? | middle |
| Why is it important to always read the vaccine insert? | It will tell you which route the vaccine should be given, the number of doses recommended will be listed, all safety information will be listed including age requirements for foals |
| How many doses of Rabies are given to a foal? | Initial 2-dose series, 1 doses repeated yearly |
| How is West Nile Virus transmitted? | Mosquitoes |
| The only licensed anthrax vaccine is what kind of strain? | Live |
| What is the botulism vaccine primarily preventing? | Shaker Foal Syndrome |
| What is the most infectious disease of the respiratory tract of horses? | Equine influenza |
| What serious symptom can Equine Viral Arteritis cause in the foal if the pregnant mare is not vaccinated? | Death |
| What lameness disease can be caused by Potomac Horse Fever? | Laminitis |
| What is the major cause of foal diarrhea? | Rotaviral |
| How is Strangles contracted? | Direct contact between infected horses |
| When are antibiotics indicated for colitis? | fever, low WBC count |
| What are the three forms of botulism? | Food borne, shaker foal, wound |
| What is a grazing muzzle used for? | to keep the horse from taking large bites of food/repeat offenders |
| What disease might a grazing muzzle prevent? | Choke |
| What is the purpose of the DDSP collar? | to stabilize the larnyx & hyoid bone - not used all the time,used to train the horse how to hold their neck |
| What is the prosthetic laryngoplasty commonly called? | Tie back |
| Which surgery option for laryngeal hemiplegia is a second choice option for horses that had a failed laryngoplasty surgery | Tie back |
| How is EIA transmitted? | blood feeding insects |
| How can we prevent EIA? | Good husbandry & management (clean, use insect testing, owners should verify new horses had coggins test, should quarantine new horses for 45 days, test every 12 months) |
| Confirmed cases of HYPP have been restricted to descendants of what horse? | Impressive |
| What is septic arthritis commonly called in foals? | "Joint ill" |
| What are the two forms of Rhinopneumonitis? | EHV-1, EHV-4 |
| What does EHV-1 commonly cause? | Epidemic abortion in mares, the birth of weak non-viable foals, or a sporadic paralytic neurological disease |
| What does EHV-4 commonly cause? | Respiratory disease (most common), abortion & neurological disease |
| What treatment for DDSP is illegal in some countries (but common for racehorses in the U.S.)? | Tongue tie during exercise |
| What are the most common locations for ocular squamous cell carcinoma? | Eyelid skin, Third eyelid, Limbus(the junction between the cornea and the conjunctiva) |
| What are some treatment methods for cribbing? | Increase pasture time, Increase exercise level, Increase time with horses, and failing that give them a more appropriate item to crib on |
Created by:
Adeprey4311
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