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Pivot Point Ch 15

Study of Skin

QuestionAnswer
Healthy skin requires special care to maintain its health, elasticity, vibrancy and: a. color b. pallor c. dryness d. dullness a. color
What is the technical name for the study of skin, including structure, functions, diseases and treatment? a. etiology b. anatomy c. pathology d. dermatology d. dermatology
The outer protective layer of the skin is called: a. corium b. dermis c. adipose d. epidermis d. epidermis
What is another name for the stratum germinativum? a. epidermis b. dermal layer c. stratum lucidum d. basal or stratum basale layer d basal or stratum basale layer
Where does mitosis (cell division) or replacement of the skin take place? a. stratum lucidum b.stratum corneum c. stratum granulosum d.stratum germinativum d.stratum germinativum
Which of the following layers of skin does not contain any blood vessels? a. cutis b. dermis c. corium d. epidermis d. epidermis
The stratum germinativum and what other layer of the skin contain melanin? a. dermis b. subcutaneous c. stratum corneum d. stratum spinosum d. stratum spinosum
On the human body, the thickest skin is located on the: a. thighs b. buttocks c. abdomen d. palms and soles d. palms and soles
Where are the blood vessels found that transport nourishment to the skin and nerves? a. epidermis b. subcutaneous c. stratum lucidum d. stratum corneum b. subcutaneous
Sudoriferous glands, sebaceous glands, sensory nerve endings, arrector pili muscles and a major portion of each hair follicle are found: a. in the dermis b. in the epidermis c. in the stratum corneum d. in the stratum spinosum a. in the dermis
The layer of the epidermis that is shed and replaced constantly is the: a. stratum lucidum b. stratum corneum c. stratum mucosum d. stratum granulosum b. stratum corneum
What quality is notable about the stratum corneum? a. it is the thinnest layer of the skin b. it is the weakest layer of the skin c. it is the toughest layer of the skin d. it is the lowermost layer of the skin c. it is the toughest layer of the skin
The stratum corneum is composed of: a. melanin b. granules c. keratin cells d. squamous cells c. keratin cells
Which layer is the top, or uppermost, layer of the epidermis? a. dermis b. stratum corneum c. stratum mucosum d. stratum granulosum b. stratum corneum
What part of the skin is often referred to as “true skin”? a. dermis b. epidermis c. stratum lucidum d. stratum germinativum a. dermis
Which layer of the skin contains collagen protein fibers to help give the skin its elasticity and pliability? a. dermis b. epidermis c. stratum lucidum d. stratum granulosum a. dermis
The deteriation of collagen and elastin fibers during the aging process causes: a. rosacea b. freckles c. macules d. wrinkles d. wrinkles
What is a major function of the sudoriferous gland? a. give skin texture b. give skin a healthy color c. protect the skin’s elasticity d. help to regulate body temperature d. help to regulate body temperature
The sebaceous gland produces: a. melanin b. dandruff c. sebum (oil) d. perspiration c. sebum (oil)
What is the function of sebum? a. carry melanin b. produce sweat c. give skin elasticity d. mix with sweat to form the acid mantle d. mix with sweat to form the acid mantle
On what area of the body would you not find any sebaceous glands? a. the face b. in the groin area c. on the arms and legs d. on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet d. on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
Sweat or perspiration is excreted by what gland? a. adrenal b. endocrine c. sebaceous d. sudoriferous d. sudoriferous
The small openings onto the skin from the sudoriferous glands are called: a. ducts b. pores c. glands d. follicles b. pores
Sudoriferous and sebaceous glands are referred to as: a. pores b. follicles c. duct glands d. ductless glands c. duct glands
The excretion of perspiration from the skin is controlled by the: a. nervous system b. muscular system c. endocrine system d. circulatory system a. nervous system
Control and regulation of body temperature by the sudoriferous glands helps maintain the body temperature at: a. 78.0° Fahrenheit or 29.4° Celsius b.94.0° Fahrenheit or 87.9° Celsius c. 88.6° Fahrenheit or 37° Celsius d. 98.6° Fahrenheit or 37° Celsius d. 98.6° Fahrenheit or 37° Celsius
The greatest concentration of sudoriferous glands are found on the: a. arms b. eyelids c. midsection of the body d. palms, soles, scalp and forehead and underarms d. palms, soles, scalp and forehead and underarms
The papillary canal secretes oil (sebum) onto the: a. nerves b. keratin c. blood vessels d. surface of the skin d. surface of the skin
The subcutaneous layer of the skin is made up of mostly: a. keratin b. muscle c. melanin d. fatty tissue d. fatty tissue
Nerve bundles in the subcutaneous tissue branch into the stratum granulosum layer and respond to: a. pain b. light c. taste d. sound a. pain
What tans the skin to help protect it from harmful ultraviolet rays? a. sebum b. melanin c. the acid mantle d. the subcutaneous layer b. melanin
Where is the layer of skin called the subcutaneous layer located? a. above the cuticle b. below the dermis c. above the epidermis d. below the adipose tissue b. below the dermis
Which layer of the skin contains large blood vessels that transport nourishment to the skin? a. epidermis b. melanin layer c. subcutaneous d. stratum spinosum c. subcutaneous
Almost 90% of the skin’s wrinkles are caused by: a. excessive use of astringents b. excessive exposure to the sun c. excessive exposure to pollutants d. excessive exposure to fluorescent lights b. excessive exposure
On the human body, the thinnest skin is located: a. on the chin b. on the eyelids c. on the soles of the feet d. on the skull just behind the ears b. on the eyelids
Light skin and dark skin differ in the: a. number of melanocytes they contain b. amount and type of melanin produced c. number of nerve endings they contain d. number of epidermal cells they contain b. amount and type of melanin produced
Healthy skin’s pH level of 4.5 to 5.5 is: a. highly acidic b. slightly acidic c. highly alkaline d. slightly alkaline b. slightly acidic
What is the technical name for the study of the causes of disease? a. etiology b. anatomy c. pathology d. dermatology a. etiology
What is the technical term for the study of diseases? a. etiology b. anatomy c. pathology d. dermatology c. pathology
Anticipating the most probable course a disease may follow is called: a. analysis b. diagnosis c. prognosis d. recognition c. prognosis
How should a cosmetologist react if the client has a skin disease? a. refer client to a physician b. prescribe proper treatment c. suggest home remedies to the client d. perform the service while wearing gloves a. refer client to a physician
Chronic is the term used to identify conditions that are: a. visible b. brief and severe c. frequent and habitual d. influenced by weather c. frequent and habitual
The term used to identify conditions that are brief and severe is: a. acute b. chronic c. objective d. subjective a. acute
A disease influenced by weather is referred to as: a. serial b. rational c. seasonal d. inflamable c. seasonal
A disease that spreads by personal contact is known as: a. systemic b. congenital c. contagious d. occupational c. contagious
An allergic reaction to cosmetics or chemicals that cosmetologists may be susceptible to is called: a. papules b. chloasma c. lentigines d. dermatitis venenata d. dermatitis venenata
An example of a subjective symptom would be: a. itching b. swelling c. redness d. discharge a. itching
A papule is an example of a: a. tertiary lesion b. primary skin lesion c. a subjective symptom d. secondary skin lesion b. primary skin lesion
Vesicles can be produced by which of the following conditions? a. fever b. verrucas c. poison ivy d. dry, scaly skin c. poison ivy
What is the technical term for freckles? a. vitiligo b. chloasma c. macules d. leukoderma c. macules
Herpes Simplex is the technical term for: a. acne b. eczema c. psoriasis d. fever blisters d. fever blisters
Abnormal changes in the structure of organs or tissues are called primary, secondary and tertiary: a. wheal b. fissure c. lesions d. infection c. lesions
A cyst is defined by which of the following descriptions? a. oozing sore b. wheal lesions c. crack in the skin d. abnormal membranous sac d. abnormal membranous sac
A secondary lesion appearing as round, dry patches of skin covered with rough, silvery scales is called: a. acne b. eczema c. psoriasis d. Herpes Simplex c. psoriasis
A solid mass in the skin that could be soft or hard, fixed or freely movable and may be elevated or deep is called a: a crust b. callus c. tumor d. wheal c. tumor
What may happen to the skin if an area is subject to pressure or friction over a long period of time? a. it may wear thin b. it may become shiny c. it may scale and flake d. it may become callused d. it may become callused
Which of the following skin lesions often occurs when skin loses its flexibility due to exposure to wind, cold, water, etc. and cracks in the skin appear? a. stain b. tumor c. fissure d. papule c. fissure
The lesion found following the healing of an injury is called a(n): a. vitiligo b. fissure c. scar d. excoriation c. scar
Verruca is a name given to a variety of: a. warts b. ulcers c. fissures d. skin tags a. warts
Which of the following terms describes a keratoma? a. a wart b. a callus c. a tumor d. a birthmark b. a callus
What is the technical name for liver spots? a. rubra b. Crustacea c. chloasma d. leukoderma c. chloasma
What is another name for a stain in the skin caused by the dilation of the small blood vessels in the skin, also known as a birthmark? a. scar b. callus c. naevus d. verruca c. naevus
What is the technical term for a decrease in activity of melanocytes? a. acne b. verrugo c. leukoderma d. melanoderma c. leukoderma
Melanotic sarcoma is a skin cancer that begins with: a. a mole b. freckles c. lentigines d. miliaria rubra a. a mole
Comedone is the technical name for: a. naevus b. macule c. blackhead d. whitehead c. blackhead
Accumulations of hardened sebum beneath the skin are called whiteheads or: a. acne b. milia c. rosacea d. comedones b. milia
Acne can be found in two stages, acne simplex and: a. rosacea b. asteatosis c. acne vulgaris d. deep-seated acne c. acne vulgaris
What is a condition called that is characterized by dry, scaly skin with reduced production of sebum? a. rosacea b. steatoma c. asteatosis d. seborrhea c. asteatosis
Which disorder is caused by excessive secretions of the sebaceous glands? a. milia b. asteatosis c. seborrhea d. bromidrosis c. seborrhea
Acne most often occurs on the: a. legs, hips and arms b. face, back and chest c. fingers, toes and soles d. ankles, knees and elbows b. face, back and chest
Where does a steatoma most often appear? a. on the arms, legs and chest b. on the face, feet and hands c. on the fingers, feet and toes d. on the scalp, neck and back d. on the scalp, neck and back
What is the definition of bromidrosis? a. excessive sebum b. the lack of sebum c. the lack of perspiration d. foul-smelling perspiration d. foul-smelling perspiration
What is the disorder called that is an overproduction of perspiration caused by excessive heat or general body weakness? a. anhidrosis b. osmidrosis c. bromidrosis d. hyperhidrosis d. hyperhidrosis
The lack of perspiration caused by fever or disease is called: a. anhidrosis b. osmidrosis c. bromidrosis d. hyperhidrosis a. anhidrosis
What action proper when a client with rosacea requests a facial ? b. avoid the issue of rosacea and proceed with the service c. proceed with the service but wear protective gloves d. proceed with the service with approval of the client’s physician d. proceed with the service with approval of the client’s physician
Products that work to further cleanse the skin and return it to its normal pH include: a. oils b. massage creams c. manual exfoliants d. astringents and tonic lotions d. astringents and tonic lotions
Persons exposed to excessive heat may develop: a. eczema b. anhidrosis c. bromidrosis d. miliaria rubra d. miliaria rubra
A term that is used to describe moisturizing is: a. oiling b. toning c. hydrating d. cleansing c. hydrating
Effleurage is a massage movement that involves a: a. circular movement with no gliding b. light tapping or slapping movement c. light, gentle stroking or circular movement d. light or heavy kneading and rolling of muscles c. light, gentle stroking or circular movement
Applying pressure to motor points will have which of the following effects? a. inflame and irritate muscles b. increase secretion of sebum c. decrease production of keratin d. soothe and stimulate nerves and muscles d. soothe and stimulate nerves and muscles
The gentle massage movement that often begins and ends a massage treatment is: a. vibration b. effleurage c. petrissage d. tapotement b. effleurage
If a client suffers from high blood pressure, has suffered a stroke or heart attack, massage should: a. reduce blood pressure b. reduce the chance of stroke c. reduce the chance of second heart attack d. be avoided since massage increases circulation d. be avoided since massage increases circulation
The massage manipulation that consists of light or heavy kneading and rolling of the muscles is called: a. friction b. vibration c. petrissage d. tapotement c. petrissage
Which massage movement deeply stimulates the muscles, nerves and skin glands? a. friction b. vibration c. petrissage d. tapotement c. petrissage
Which of the following massage manipulations is a circular deep rubbing movement usually carried out with the fingertips or palms of the hands? a. friction b. vibration c. petrissage d. tapotement a. friction
Areas of the skin that are diseased, broken, bruised or scraped: a. require vibration b. should not be massaged c. require petrissage movements d. require tapotement movements b. should not be massaged
The massage movement that should NOT be used when the client needs soothing is: a. gliding b. stroking c. effleurage d. tapotement d. tapotement
All of the following statements are true about paraffin masks EXCEPT: a. heated then applied b. applied over a layer of gauze c. made from clay, sand, zinc oxide or mud d. act to draw oil and perspiration to the top layer of skin c. made from clay, sand, zinc oxide or mud
Which of the following is NOT generally a contraindication for skin care services? a. diabetes b. low blood pressure c. high blood pressure d. pacemaker/metal implants b. low blood pressure
Which of the following descriptions identify where wax should NOT be applied? a. lower leg b. upper leg c. over sunburn d. skin under the eyebrow c. over sunburn
Why is it not recommended to wax lanugo hair? a. skin may lighten b. skin may darken c. hair won’t grow back d. skin may lose its softness d. skin may lose its softness
How do chemical depilatories remove unwanted hair? a. by shrinking the hair shafts b. by turning the hair to liquid c. by burning the hair off chemically d. by degrading the protein structure of the hair d. by degrading the protein structure of the hair
Why do clients think shaved hair feels thicker following removal? a. due to the blunt effect of the razor b. b/c it actually grows back thicker c. due to the fact that the number of hairs increase d. due to the fact that it is darker when it grows back a. due to the blunt effect of the razor
In what direction are eyebrow hairs tweezed? a. always downward b. away from yourself c.away from the client d.in the direction of hair growth d.in the direction of hair growth
What hair removal method is available for clients who cannot tolerate hot wax treatments? a. shaving only b. electrolysis only c. cold wax treatment d. bleaching or lightening only c. cold wax treatment
How do you test the temperature of hot wax prior to applying to your client? a. test on your own face b. test with oven thermometer c. test on the back of your hand d. test on tender skin inside your elbow c. test on the back of your hand
In what direction do you pull removal strips during hot wax treatments? a. toward the floor b. toward the ceiling c. away from client and yourself d. in the opposite direction of the hair growth d. in the opposite direction of the hair growth
What should be applied to the skin following the use of a wax depilatory? a. bleach b. tanning solution c. hydrogen peroxide d. a soothing lotion or toner d. a soothing lotion or toner
Inserting a single needle into a hair follicle for hair removal is called short-wave electrolysis or: a. waxing b. shaving c. hydrolysis d. thermolysis d. thermolysis
What hair removal method removes the hair by decomposing the papilla? a. blend b. waxing c. shaving d. Galvanic d. Galvanic
Most corrective makeup and contouring is done to help the face appear: a. oval b. round c. square d. diamond-shaped a. oval
What facial feature would accompany a heart-shaped face? a. wide jaw line b. close-set eyes c. narrow jaw line d. narrow forehead c. narrow jaw line
What colors seem to recede or diminish the appearance of facial features? a. lighter colors b. darker colors c.primary colors d. complementary colors b. darker colors
What must be done before foundation makeup is applied? a. hair must be styled b. client must remove watches and rings c. client must be wrapped in a warm blanket d. skin must be cleansed, toned and moisturized d. skin must be cleansed, toned and moisturized
What is considered the most important product in makeup? a. powder b. mascara c. foundation d. moisturizer c. foundation
On what area of the face is a foundation tested for a color match? a. nose b. eyelid c. jaw line d. forehead c. jaw line
Unless correction is required, match the foundation to the: a. natural skin tone b. next darker skin tone c. tone one shade lighter than the natural tone d. tone two shades darker than the natural tone a. natural skin tone
Why would the cosmetologist apply a lighter shade when performing corrective makeup? a. to widen an area b. to conceal blemishes c. to minimize a facial area d. to emphasize a facial area d. to emphasize a facial area
Full face applications or two-shade applications must be blended to prevent: a. mixing of the two b. a line of demarcation c. a space between the two shades d. a blurring of the line between two areas b. a line of demarcation
One method to make wide-set eyes appear closer together is: a. uplift the ends of the eyebrow b. make the eyebrow line a high curve c. widen the distance between the eyebrows d. extend the brows past the inside corner of the eyes d. extend the brows past the inside corner of the eyes
What benefit does the wearer receive from mascara? a. detracts from other facial flaws b. hides dark circles under the eyes c. matches eyelash color to hair color d. lengthens, thickens and defines the lashes d. lengthens, thickens and defines the lashes
Face powders come in tinted shades to match foundations, and also: a. only in white b. only in general tints c. only in light, medium and dark d. in translucent form to be worn with any shade d. in translucent form to be worn with any shade
What type of blush blends well and is suitable for any skin type? a. dry b. liquid c. cream d. powder b. liquid
Facial powders are designed to: a. reflect light b. produce odor c. reduce perspiration d. set other makeup products so they last longer d. set other makeup products so they last longer
What is involved in the service of eye tabbing? a. tinting the eyelashes b. applying strip eyelashes c. removing artificial lashes d. applying individual lashes d. applying individual lashes
Semi-permanent individual eyelashes are made of: a. human hair b. animal hair c. synthetic fibers d. inorganic fibers c. synthetic fibers
Semi-permanent individual eyelashes last for a period of approximately: a. 7 to 14 days b. 6 to 8 weeks c. 2 to 3 weeks d. 3 to 6 months b. 6 to 8 weeks
Individual lashes do not adhere to lower lashes for as long as top ones because of: a. perspiration b. their shorter length c. moisture from tears d. the body’s natural oils d. the body’s natural oils
Where in the course of a makeup application does applying lipstick usually occur? a. last cosmetic to be applied b. first cosmetic to be applied c. third cosmetic to be applied d. second cosmetic to be applied a. last cosmetic to be applied
During the draping of your client for a makeup application prepare the client by draping, positioning chair &: a. putting a headband on client b. counting tips c. getting the sheet for the facial chair out of the dryer a. putting a headband on client
 

 



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