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Financial Test
Question | Answer |
---|---|
The State Guaranty Association Guarantees | That a claim will be paid if an insurer becomes insolvent |
Nonparticipating insurers do not allow their policyowners to receive the following | dividends |
All of the following are systems that support the sale of insurance through agents and brokers EXCEPT | Fraternal Benefit Society System |
What is a participating life insurance policy? | Contract that allows the policyowner to receive a share of surplus in the form of policy dividends |
Which of the following is a type of insurance where an insurer transfers loss exposures from policies written for its insureds? | Reinsurance |
Which of the following is an insurer established by a parent company for the purpose of insuring the parent company's loss exposure? | Captive insurer |
A participating company is also referred to as which type of insurer? | Mutual insurer |
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of insurance? | Losses due to fraud are eliminated |
Which of the following is a contract that involves one party which indemnifies another when a loss arises from an unknown event? | Insurance contract |
John has an insurance policy that gives him the right to share in the insurer's surplus. What kind of policy is this? | Participating |
Mutual insurers pay dividends to participating policyowners if the insurer has which of the following? | Divisible surplus |
Which entity has as one of its objectives preserving state regulation of insurance? | National Association of Insurance Commissioners |
Which of the following statements regarding types of insurers is NOT correct? | Reinsurers usually deal with group policyowners. |
Explain the difference between what a general agent does as compared to a PPGA? | PPGA's primarily sell. General agents primarily recruit, train, and manage. |
All the following types of insurance companies may be approved to operate in nearly all states EXCEPT | Lloyds of London |
What is the purpose of insurance? | To replace the uncertainty of risk with guarantees |
Which title can a life insurance agent use when conducting business? | Broker |
Which of the following statements is correct when comparing participating policies with non-participating policies? | Premiums for participating policies are usually higher than for non-participating policies |
All of the following methods support the sale of insurance through agents EXCEPT | Direct selling |
A life insurance company that shares its suplus earnings with its insureds is known as | a participating company |
Participating insurers allow their policyowners to | share in any company earnings and receive a dividend |
A situation in which there is ONLY a chance of loss or no loss is a | pure risk |
All of the following circumstances must be met for loss retention to be an effective risk management technique EXCEPT | Probability of loss is unknown |
Restoring an insured to the same condition as before a loss is known as | Principle of indemnity |
Which of the following describes the statement "The more times an event is repeated, the more predictable the outcome becomes"? | Law of large numbers |
Which of the following is NOT considered to be a definition of the term "loss"? | Probability that an event will occur |
Which of these statements correctly describes risk? | Pure risk is the only insurable risk |
Which type of risk is gambling? | Speculative risk |
Which of the following is considered to be a situation that has the potential for loss? | Loss exposure |
Which of the following is NOT an element of an insurable risk? | Loss must be catastrophic |
Which of the following would NOT be accomplished with the purchase of an insurance policy? | Risk is eliminated |
Which of the following refers to a condition that may increase the chance of a loss? | Hazard |
Which of the following describes the increase in the probability of a loss due to an insured's dishonest tendencies? | Moral hazard |
Which of the following is NOT considered a definition of risk? | The cause of a loss |
Who is considered the owner of a mutual insurance company? | Policyholders |
Which of the following statements correctly describes a contract of indemnity? | One party is restored to the same financial position the party was In before the loss occurred |
Which of the following contracts is defined as "one that restores an injured party to the condition that was present before the loss"? | Indemnity contract |
Which of the following is NOT a requirement of a contract? | Equal consideration is required between the involved parties |
Which principle is accurately described with the statement "Insureds are entitled to recover an amount NOT greater than the amount of their loss"? | Indemnity |
A unilateral contract is one in which | only one party (the insurer) makes any kind of legally enforceable promise |
The importance of a representation is demonstrated in what rule? | Materiality of concealment |
Which course of action is the insurer entitled to when deliberate concealment is committed by the insured? | Rescinding the contract |
Which statement is CORRECT when describing a contract of adhesion? | Contract may be accepted or rejected by the insured |
A contract requires | an offer and acceptance of the contract terms |
Which of the following is NOT required in the content of a policy? | Probability of loss |
Which of the following requires insurers to disclose when an applicant's consumer or credit history is being investigated | 1970 - Fair Credit Reporting Act |
An agent is required to provide which of the following to the applicant when they make a proposal of insurance | Buyer's guide and policy summary |
Dividends from a stock company are paid to stockholders, whereas in a mutual company dividends are | paid to the policyowners |
Companies that sell more than one type of insurance are | multi-line insurers |
John and Mary have a handicapped child that is financially dependent upon them. The death of one of the parents would not be financially disastrous, however the death of both likely would be. Which policy would be best suited for them? | Second-to-die policy |
An insurance policy written after 1988 that fails to pass the seven-pay test is known as | a modified endowment contract |
What is the proper order of initial life insurance premiums, from lowest to highest? | Modified premium, ordinary life, single premium |
In a renewable term life insurance policy, the contract will usually | require a higher premium payable at each renewal |
Which of the following is NOT a true description of non-medical life insurance? | Applicants are not required to answer medical questions on the application |
A life insurance policy's limit of liability would be | the policy's face amount |
Which of the following is NOT true regarding a family policy that covers children? | Conversion of child's coverage to permanent insurance requires evidence of insurability |
A life insurance policy where the insured can choose where the cash value can be invested is called | variable life |
Variable life | allows the insured to choose where the assets backing the cash value are invested. |
A life insurance policy that pays the face amount if the insured survives to a specified period of time is called | endowment insurance |
Mark, age 45, has a Modified Endowment Contract (MEC). What is the tax penalty for taking a loan against this policy prior to age 59 1/2? | 10% |
In a modified endowment contract, the penalty tax imposed on withdrawals is | 10% |
Which of the following types of life insurance combines a savings element along with a flexible premium option? | Universal life |
Which of the following is a life insurance policy that does NOT require a physical exam? | Non-medical |
Which of the following statements do NOT apply to child coverage in a family policy? | Only children born prior to policy's issue date may be included |
Which of the following types of life insurance is normally associated with a mortgage loan? | Decreasing term |
When does a life insurance policy's waiver of premium take effect? | Insured becomes totally disabled |
When a life insurance policy is surrendered, how does the cost recovery rule apply? | The policy's cost basis is exempt from taxation |
How are acts of war considered under a group life insurance policy? | Policy exclusion |
A life insurance policy can be surrendered for its cash value under which policy provision? | Nonforfeiture options |
Which statement is true regarding policy dividends? | A dividend option is selected by the insured at the time of policy purchase |
An insurer can be protected from adverse selection with which policy provision? | Suicide clause |
Jerry is an insured who understated his age on his life insurance application, paying $12 per $1,000 of insurance instead of $15 per $1,000. If he dies, how will the adjusted death benefit be calculated? | 12/15th of the policy's face amount |
When an accidental death benefit is added to a whole life policy, how does this affect the policy's cash value? | Policy's cash value is not affected |
After a policy has lapsed, which provision allows the insured to continue coverage? | Reinstatement provision |
What are collateral assignments normally associated with? | Bank loans |
In a life insurance policy, the entire contract consists of the | policy and attached application |
Which of these is NOT a valid policy dividend option? | Monthly income payments |
What does the grace period allow a life insurance policy-owner to do? | Make a premium payment after the due date without any loss of coverage |
What does the guaranteed insurability option allow an insured to do? | Purchase additional coverage with no evidence of insurability required |
Which provision will pay a portion of the death benefit prior to the insured's death due to a serious illness? | Accelerated death benefit |
Pam is the primary beneficiary of a life insurance policy and wants to let the death benefit accumulate and receive only the monthly investment proceeds. Which settlement option should she choose? | Interest Option |
A creditor would be allowed rights to life insurance policy proceeds if which of the following beneficiaries is chosen? | The insured's estate |
How are death benefits that are received by a beneficiary normally treated for tax purposes? | Exempt from federal income taxes |
Which of the following is NOT a life insurance settlement option? | Extended term option |
When calculating life insurance premium rates, which component would an agent's commission fall under? | Insurer's expenses |
Premiums are best described as | money paid by the insured to acquire a policy's benefits |
When calculating life insurance premium rates, which component is affected by an insured's age and gender? | Mortality |
Which of the following is NOT a component of determining policy premiums? | Dividends |
Which of the following describes the number of deaths in a year compared to the number of people in a select group? | Mortality rate |
The probability of death, listed by year, are demonstrated in | mortality tables |
Part 3 of the application contains what? | The agent's report of personal observations about the insured. |
What risk classification rewards exceptionally good risks which will result in premium rates that are lower than standard risk? | Preferred risk |
When an insurance company requests an attending physician's report, the request must be accompanied by a | copy of the signed authorization |
What are members of the Medical Information Bureau (MIB) required to report? | Medical ailments discovered during the underwriting process |
Most U.S. life insurance companies belong to the | Medical Information Bureau |
How does a conditional receipt differ from a binding receipt? | Binding receipts always provide insurance which starts from the date of receipt |
Which of the following life insurance classifications charges the highest premium? | Substandard |
The Medical Information Bureau consists of | life and health insurance companies |
Which of the following types of information is NOT required for a life insurance application? | Ethnicity |
When an applicant applies for insurance, the process by which the insurer determines whether to issue a policy is called | underwriting |
Which of the following statements regarding the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) is CORRECT? | Applicants must be notified within a short period of time that their credit report has been requested. |
An agent's report (Part III of the application) provides additional information about the | applicant's financial condition, character, purpose of the sale, how long the agent has known the applicant |
All of the following employees would normally be excluded from a group term life plan EXCEPT | A full-time employee who has been on the job 2 years |
Tim was recently terminated from his employment and opted to change his existing group term life insurance to individual permanent life insurance. What is this process called? | Conversion |
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a terminated employee that has exercised the conversion privilege? | Provide proof of insurability |
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the conversion privilege? | Employer pays the premium for the converted policy |
All of the following are considered characteristics of group life insurance EXCEPT | individual policies |
A terminated employee that has exercised the conversion privilege is able to convert | term group life coverage into permanent insurance |
How is the cost of employer-provided group life insurance with coverage amounts above $50,000 treated for tax purposes? | Taxable income to the employee |
Which of the following describes a contributory group insurance plan? | Part of the premium is paid by the employee |
Who is issued a certificate of insurance with a group insurance policy? | Participant |
How does underwriting differ between group life and individual life insurance? | Medical questions must be answered on individual life insurance |
In an employer group plan, what is the name of the policy issued to the employer? | Master contract |
Which of the following statements regarding equity index contract factors is most CORRECT? | Cash values of equity index contracts typically grow at a minimum interest rate. |
Premium paid for a variable annuity less expenses equal which of the following? | Accumulation units |
During the payout period of an annuity, the interest portion of the payment is | taxed as ordinary income |
The monthly amount of benefit an annuitant receives is based on all of the following factors EXCEPT the | exclusion ratio applied |
Variable annuity sales are subject to which of the following regulations? | SEC and state regulation |
Which of the following is NOT a feature of equity-indexed annuities? | Offers a maximum interest rate that increases annually |
What distinguishes a deferred annuity from an immediate annuity? | The time at which benefit payments start |
The systematic liquidation of a sum of money is provided by a(n) | annuity |
An annuity which is backed by a life insurer's separate account is called a(n) | variable annuity |
Joanna and her husband, Tom, have a $40,000 annuity that pays them $200 a month. Tom dies and Joanna continues receiving the $200 monthly check as long as she lives. When Joanna dies, the annuity payments cease. This is an example of | a joint and full survivor annuity |
Which of the following is a fair comparison between life insurance and annuities? | Both life insurance and annuities use mortality tables. |
In a cash refund option, if the annuitant dies before the annuity fund is depleted, where does the balance go? | Beneficiary |
The purpose of the exclusion ratio is to | allocate principal and interest, so to properly determine taxable and non-taxable amounts that are paid to annuitants |
Variable annuity payouts are adjusted based upon which of the following? | Annuity units |
State insurance laws generally allow a number of groups to hold blanket life insurance policies, all of the following are examples of groups eligible for blanket life insurance EXCEPT | A start up company to cover it’s employees health insurance needs. |
All of the following statements regarding annuities are correct | Annuities are sold by life insurance agents, An annuity is a periodic payment, Annuitants can pay the annuity premiums in lump sums |
When a cash value life insurance policy is converted into an annuity in a nontaxable transaction, that event is generally known as | a 1035 exchange |
The interest credited to an equity indexed annuity is tied to increases in | a specific equity or stock index |
In a straight life income option, if the annuitant dies before the annuity fund is depleted, where does the balance go? | Insurer |
At what age is a surviving spouse without dependents eligible for Social Security survivor benefits? | 60 |
A worker is entitled to Social Security disability benefits if all of the following are true | worker is under age 65, worker is insured for disability benefits, disability is expected to continue for 12 months or result in death |
How long is a person expected to be disabled in order to receive Social Security disability benefits? | 12 months |
Who is eligible for Social Security survivor benefits? | A widow at any age who is caring for children younger than 16, A widow at full retirement age, Full-time students under the age of 19 |
Which of these factors affects the Social Security normal retirement age? | Year in which worker was born |
In order to be considered "currently insured" under Social Security, an individual must be credited with | 6 quarters of coverage during the last 13-quarter period |
What is considered to be the definition of disability, according to Social Security? | Unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity (SGA). |
According to Social Security, an individual with 6 credits of coverage during the previous 13-quarter period is considered to be | currently insured and eligible for limited survivor benefits, you must have 6 credits of coverage during the last 13-quarter period. |
An individual that has 40 quarters of coverage, for Social Security purposes, is considered to be | Fully insured. |
Which type of worker has Social Security benefits available to them? | Fully insured |
ESOPs are typically invested in | employer stock |
What area of group health insurance is regulated under the Employee Retirement Security Act of 1974 (ERISA)? | Disclosure and reporting |
How are Roth IRA's treated for tax purposes? | Non-deductible contributions and tax-free distributions |
What does ESOP stand for? | Employee Stock Ownership Plan |
Retirement plans are prevented from favoring highly compensated employees under which government regulation? | Nondiscrimination |
All of these are examples of a business use for life insurance | Buy-sell funding, Key person, Partnership entity plan |
Three individuals form a partnership with equal shares valued at $300,000. If they were persuaded to use an "entity" buy-sell plan funded with life insurance, how many policies and for what amounts would be purchased? | Three policies for $100,000 each |
"Life insurance creates an immediate estate". This phrase means | when the insured dies, a death benefit is paid |
Key person insurance is intended to | cover business losses due to the death of a key employee |
Which of the following pieces of information is gathered during the personal financial planning process? | An individual's assets, An individual's expenses, An individual's income |
Which of these requires an analysis of a family's financial needs and objectives should the breadwinner die or become disabled? | Needs Approach |
What is the tax advantage of key-person life insurance? | Death proceeds are nontaxable |
Which plan can be used as an incentive by an employer to help an employee buy life insurance? | Split-dollar plan |
Under a partnership cross-purchase plan, when there are 4 partners how many policies are needed? | 12 |
All of the following factors are used in the needs approach for determining the amount of required life insurance | the monthly income, the emergency fund period, the education fund |
All of these are examples of a business use for life insurance | Buy-sell funding, Key person, Partnership entity plan |
During the underwriting process for a group health policy, it was discovered that 15 out of 50 members of the group have major health issues. How would the insurer handle this? | Accept or reject the whole group |
What percentage of eligible employees must participate in a noncontributory group health plan before it can be put in effect? | 100% |
Who is financially liable for the payment of covered claims in a fully insured group health plan? | Insurer |
Minimum participation standards exist for group health insurance plans in order to | prevent adverse selection |
Business Overhead Expense Insurance pays for | business expenses when a business owner becomes disabled |
What type of policy covers unusual hazards typically not covered under ordinary accident and health insurance? | Special risk policy |
Which of the following is typically covered under vision care insurance? | Eyeglasses, Examinations, Contacts Retina surgery is not include |
The problem of overinsurance is addressed in which health insurance provision? | Coordination of benefits |
Buy-sell plans are typically funded by which two types of insurance? | Life insurance and disability insurance |
Coverage is limited for vision and dental insurance in all of the following ways EXCEPT | Number of teeth cleanings per year, Dollar amount for eyeglass frames, Number of X-rays performed per year EXCEPT Specific dollar amount for examinations |
Individual health insurance policies are typically written on which basis? | Non-Participating |
Individuals become eligible for Medicare Part A benefits at what age? | 65 |
Disabled workers are covered under Workers' Compensation medical expense benefits for how long? | No limit |
Medicare Part B has an initial enrollment period. How many months after an individual's 65th birthday month does this enrollment period end? | 3 months |
Coverage for care received from a network provider pays more than care received from a non-network provider in what type of health plan? | Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) |
At age 65, which of the following is available at no cost to all individuals? | Medicare Part A |
Medicare Part A covers what type of care? | Skilled nursing facility care |
How is a Medicare claim submitted? | Expenses are submitted to Medicare by the health provider |
Which of the following does Medicare Part A provide coverage for? | Hospice, Hospitalization, Inpatient care not provide Doctor's services |
Which statement regarding Medicare is true? | Benefits for diagnostic tests and X-rays performed on an outpatient basis are provided by Part B |
Who acts as the gatekeeper in a Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)? | Primary care physician |
An employee for XYZ Corp is injured on the job. Where does coverage for the employee's injuries come from? | Workers' Compensation |
Which statement is TRUE regarding Workers' Compensation coverage | Employer pays the entire premium for Workers' Compensation coverage |
Which of the following does specified disease insurance cover? | medical expenses that are noncovered, incidental costs, out-of-pocket expenses Not costs covered by medical expense insurance |
Allen has a disability income policy with a $2,500 monthly benefit and a 30-day elimination period. He is unable to work 90 days following an automobile accident. What will the policy pay? | $5,000 |
What is the purpose of a Disability Income Benefit? | Provide money for living expenses |
Which of the following is NOT included in comprehensive major medical plans? | First-dollar coverage |
Medical expense policies will typically cover which of the following? | Injuries caused by accidents |
When does an insured qualify for stop-loss coverage? | When claims exceed a specified limit in a set period of time |
Which of these statements is true concerning recurrent disabilities? | The recurrence of a disability must occur within a specified time period after the prior disability, A recurrent disability is considered to be a continuation of the prior disability, The recurrent disability must be caused from the original disability. |
What does a Hospital Confinement indemnity policy pay for? | Pays a specified daily amount while the insured is confined to a hospital |
Which of the following terms is associated with a Major Medical policy? | Stop-loss, Comprehensive, Deductible not Capitation |
What does the term coinsurance refer to? | After the deductible is satisfied, the percentage paid by the insured for the remaining covered expenses |
From an insurance perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY risk associated with disability? | Loss of income |
Which disability policy provision would address any concerns of the value of the benefits decreasing over time? | Cost of living benefit |
What is the elimination period of an individual disability policy? | Time period a disabled person must wait before benefits are paid |
A disability elimination period is best described as a | time deductible |
A rehabilitation benefit is intended to | prepare the insured to return to employment |
Chris is an insured bricklayer and substitute high school who severed his left hand in an automobile accident so can't be performed. He collects a full disability income check every month. How does his policy define total disability? | Own occupation |
Frank is shopping for a disability income policy. Which of the following would have the HIGHEST premium? | 14 day waiting period / 10 year benefit period The disability income policy with the lowest waiting period and longest benefit period would have the highest premium. |
What is the primary factor that determines the benefits paid under a disability income policy? | Wages |
Loss of income insurance provides | an individual the means to replace wages |
Coming from an insurance point of view, which of the following is the main risk associated with disability? | loss income |
Which type of disability would be less than total impairment and equal to permanent impairment? | Permanent partial disabilty |
An example of a presumptive disability would be | deafness |
Bryce purchased a disability income policy with a rider that guarantees him the option of purchasing additional amounts of coverage at predetermined times without requiring to provide evidence of insurability. What kind of rider is this? | Guaranteed insurability rider |
Which clause defines total disability as being unable to perform the major duties of the insured's regular occupation? | Own occupation |
Which of the following would be considered an activity of daily living under a long term care policy? | Bathing |
Periodic increases in policy benefits are allowed in which long-term care policy provision? | Inflation protection |
All of these statements concerning Medicare are true | Medicare is primarily funded by Federal payroll and self-employment taxes, Hospice is covered by Medicare Part A, Doctors' services are covered by Medicare Part B. Not Long-term care is covered by Medicare Part C |
Which of the following plans will cover medical costs that Medicare doesn't cover? | Medicare supplement |
Under a long-term care insurance policy, adult day care coverage will provide for | part time care at a facility for elderly individuals who live at home |
Which of the following is a required uniform provision in individual health policies? | Legal Actions, Notice of claim, Reinstatement Not Change of occupation |
The misstatement of age provision in a health policy states that if an insured gives the wrong age at the time of application, what action can the insurance company take? | Benefits can be adjusted |
The conditions, times, and circumstances under which an insured is NOT covered by a health policy are called | exclusions |
Under a health insurance policy, the provision that states the kind of benefits provided and the circumstances under which they will be paid is called the | insuring clause |
Under the Payment of Claims provision, when are benefits typically payable after proof of loss is received? | Immediately |
The insurer has the option of terminating a health insurance policy on a date stated in the contract. What type of policy is this? | Optionally renewable |
Which type of health insurance policy cannot be canceled by the insurer nor increase the premiums? | Noncancellable |
Christine has a health insurance policy that has been in force beyond the incontestable period. The insurer has discovered that a fraudulent statement . What would the insurer have to pay on a claim, assuming this wasn't a guaranteed renewable policy? | Nothing |
A health insurance policy paid on a quarterly basis has a grace period of | 31 days |
What type of changes can be made to a guaranteed renewable health insurance policy? | The premium rates of the policyowner |
In what situation does a waiver of premium provision keep a health insurance policy in force without premium payments? | When an insured becomes totally disabled |
All of the following are primary risk factors in underwriting individual health insurance policies | Moral hazard, Occupation, Physical condition Not Geographical location |
What is the effect of an impairment rider attached to a health insurance policy? | To exclude from coverage losses resulting from specified conditions |
Major risk factors in health insurance underwriting include all of the following | Physical condition, Habits or lifestyle, Occupation Not Marital status |
If a health insurance policy has lapsed and it is later reinstated, the reinstated policy will cover only sickness that begins | At least 10 days after the date of reinstatement |
Which of the following statements BEST represents the tax status of personal disability income policies | Premiums are not deductible; benefits are tax-free |
Which of these factors do NOT affect the rates of medical insurance? | race |
Which of the following is NOT considered to be insurer expenses? | policy premiums |
Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining the morbidity of a group of individuals? | race |
What is the term used to describe the frequency and severity of certain illnesses and accidents? | Morbidity |
Jim is the insured on a health insurance policy and holds 2 jobs. If "occupation" is used to classify the risk, the insurer will most likely classify Jim according to the occupation that | is most hazardous |
Which of the following would probably NOT be considered in underwriting a health insurance risk? | Marital status |
An increase in which factor will decrease the disability insurance premium? | Interest rate |
The expected incidence of sickness or disability within a given group during a given period of time is | morbidity |
Which of the following is covered by the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)? | Pregnancy, Adoption, Attending to the serious health condition of a parent Not Traveling overseas with a spouse |
Which of the following acts is a Federal offense committed by an insurance agent? | Embezzlement, Insurance fraud, Falsify records Not Misrepresentation on an insurance application |
Which of the following is a primary objective of insurance regulation? | Insurance Code enforcement, Licensing agents, Protect policyowners Not Interpret policy provisions |
Which type of jurisdiction requires an insurer to have its rates accepted by the Insurance Department prior to using them? | Prior acceptance |
Where must you specifically reside to qualify for MRMIP? | California |
What is the purpose of the Pre-Existing Condition Insurance Plan (PCIP)? | PCIP was created by the State of California for people rejected by private health insurers due to pre-existing conditions |
MRMIP stands for | Major Risk Medical Insurance Program |
In what order are people on the MRMIP waiting list allowed to enroll? | Based on the date an individual's application is received |
What effect did the Pregnancy Discrimination Act have on the health industry? | Pregnancy must be treated as any other medical condition |
Which of the following does the California Department of Insurance (CDI) have NO jurisdiction over? | Medicare |
Who does a life settlement broker represent? | Individual wanting to sell their life policy to a third party |
What is an insurance solicitor authorized to do? | Help an agent or broker sell insurance |
An insurance company entitled to transact business in California is called a(n) | admitted carrier |
When selling a long term care insurance rider to an applicant, a life agent must take into consideration all of these factors | Ability to pay, Needs of the client, Goals of the client Not Attending physician's statement |
Which of the following does the California Insurance Code NOT require an insurance policy to specify? | Insurer's financial rating |
A representation may be altered or withdrawn | only before the insurance is in effect |
How many "activities of daily living" must an insured be UNABLE to perform in order to meet the chronically ill requirement of a Long-Term Care policy? | Minimum of two activities of daily living |
A person who asserts a right of recovery under an insurance policy is called | claimant |
Which of the following does have to be included on life insurance policy illustrations? | Age of the insured, Name of the agent, Name of the insurer Not Statement that all values and benefits are guaranteed |
According to the California Insurance Code, what term is used to describe a fact so important it could affect the policy premium? | Materiality |
Which of the following is considered to be an act of insurance solicitation? | An agency sending out direct mail for a promotion, An agent giving a rate quotation, Airing a television commercial recommending an insurance product Not Publishing a magazine where one of the advertisers is an insurer |
According to PPACA, how long can an adult be covered as a dependent under their parents' insurance plan? | Up to age 26 |
How long must a policy be in force before an insurer is prohibited from denying claims based on misstatements made on the health policy application? | 2 years |
Anyone employed in California to assist an insurance agent in transacting insurance is called an insurance | solicitor |
According to the California Insurance Code, what is the maximum penalty per violation for anyone who unwillfully commits an unfair method of competition? | $5,000 |
An agent's attempt to stop the replacement of an existing life insurance policy is known as | conservation |
How long must life agents keep their transaction records? | 5 years |
Life insurance surplus must be distributed to policyowners at what frequency? | Annually |
In California, the elderly can receive information about health related issues from | Health Insurance Counseling and Advocacy Program (HiCAP) |
The cost of services charged by the Health Insurance Counseling Advocacy Program (HiCap) is | no cost |
Which of the following is covered by the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)? | Traveling overseas with a spouse |
The California Insurance Code allows an individual how many days to cancel a life policy for a full-refund? | Between 10 and 30 days |
What type of license is required for an individual who charges a fee to review an insured's existing life insurance policy? | Life and disability analyst |
Which of the following is an accurate description of Access for Infants and Mothers Program (AIM)? | Eligibility is based on income, Low-cost health care coverage for pregnant women, Only women who have private insurance plans with a maternity-only deductible or copayment greater than $500 are eligible |
In California, an insurer organized under the state laws of Oregon is called a(n) | foreign insurer |
According to the California Insurance Code, how is the word "may" interpreted? | Permissive |
What is an insurance solicitor authorized to do? | Help an agent or broker sell insurance |
Which word implies permissiveness according to the California Insurance Code? | May |
What does the term "illustration" mean when used in the phrase "life insurance policy illustration", according to the California Insurance Code? | Presentation of policy features that includes non-guaranteed elements |
An individual who transacts life, disability, or life and accident and health insurance on behalf of an insurer is called a(n) | life agent |
Which of the following is protected under the California Life and Health Guarantee Association? | Policyowners, Primary beneficiaries, Insureds Not Insurers |
According to the PPACA, the medical enrollment tier that has 80% actuarial value is called | gold |
According to the PPACA, an adult can be covered by a parent's health care plan until what age? | Age 26 |
What does the term "indemnity" mean as it pertains to insurance? | To make whole |
According to the California Insurance Code, what is "insurance"? | A contract |
The free-look period for life insurance policyowners age 60 or older is | 30 days |
According to PPACA, what is a health benefits exchange? | An entity to which individuals and small businesses can have access to affordable health coverage |
Which of the following is NOT considered to be an unfair claims settlement practice? | Advising a claimant to hire an attorney |
Which of the following actions is allowed by Health Insurance Counseling and Advocacy Program (HiCAP) counselors? | Medical record keeping assistance, Assist in policy evaluation, Assist in understanding Medicare Supplements Not Charge a fee |
Pete is a life agent who has misappropriated fiduciary funds to his own use. What is Pete guilty of? | Theft |
People with low income can be provided with medical assistance through which program? | Medi-Cal |
Paul has an existing annuity and is sold a new one, in which the new policy holds no greater financial benefit to him than the existing contract. This is considered a(n) | unnecessary replacement |
The California Insurance Code requires that an insurer must have enough assets to cover its liabilities and for reinsurance of all outstanding risks. To remain solvent, it must also possess additional assets equal to what amount?. | Its paid-in capital |
When an insurer has met the qualifications necessary to transact business in California, it is said to be | admitted |
Jim is applying to become an insurance agent and has a past misdemeanor conviction that was later expunged due to California Penal Code 1203.4. Which of the following statements is correct? | Jim must still disclose the conviction on his insurance license application |
What time period allows an insured's life insurance policy to remain in force even if the premium was not paid on the due date? | Grace period |
Which policy provision protects the policyowner from unintentional lapse of the contract? | Grace period |
Who is eligible for retirement benefits under Social Security? | Fully insured workers |
How are Roth IRAs treated for tax purposes? | Non-deductible contributions and tax-free distributions |
The California Insurance Code defines "policy" as a(n) | written contract |
MRMIP is a | tate program that offers health coverage to California residents who are not able to obtain coverage due to pre-existing conditions |
Both the Federal and state governments jointly finance which health insurance entitlement program? | Medi-Cal |
An agent has advertised that the insurer to which the agent is appointed with is a member of the Insurance Guarantee Association. This agent has committed a(n) | unfair method of competition |
Which entity has jurisdiction over health care coverage providers? | Department of Insurance |
How is an agent's first year commission calculated for a replacement long-term policy? | Based on the difference between the new and original policy annual premiums |
Before an insurer is allowed to test an individual for HIV, what must be completed? | Consent form |
What is the insurance term the State of California uses for an insurer that is eligible to transact business in this state? | Admitted |
When intentional concealment is involved, what course of action is the injured party entitled to? | Rescission of the contract |
What is required after a life agent sells an insurance policy to an applicant without being appointed by the insurer? | Notice of appointment must be submitted to the Commissioner |