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| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Which lung is longer, wider, and has greater capacity, the right or left? | right |
| The amount of blood leaving the left ventricle with each beat of the heart | stroke volume |
| Which muscles are responsible for keeping the spine erect? | erector spinae |
| Microglia are part of the ___? | nervous system |
| A condition in which hemoglobin concentration in the blood is below a defined level, resulting in a reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells | anemia |
| Nerves, ganglia, and receptors are part of the | peripheral nervous system |
| Fatty acid oxidation produces high amounts of ___ | ATP |
| Components of cardiovascular system | heart, blood, blood vessels |
| Components of cardiorespiratory system | heart, lungs, blood vessels |
| Average resting heart rate of healthy adult in beats per minute | 70-80 |
| Your client wants to build muscle, how many seconds rest do you allow between sets? | 30-60 |
| 220-age | maximum heart rate |
| When performing lunges, what is the main joint action? | hip extension |
| Begins when one foot touches the ground and ends when same foot touches the ground again. | gait |
| Point where loss of control of the center of gravity occurs. | limit of stability |
| The body's ability to stabilize joints during movement. | dynamic joint stabilization |
| Degenerative joint disease is another name for | osteoarthritis |
| How often should exercise equipment be inspected? | daily |
| Does using knee wraps and supports help reduce injury? | no |
| An electrolyte disturbance in the blood in which sodium concentration in the plasma is lower than normal | hyponatremia |
| Cause of hyponatremia | drinking too much water |
| Six food groups according to USDA pyramid | grains, milk, meat & beans, oils, fruits, vegetables |
| Women require ___ calories per day | 2100 |
| Decreased ability of the lungs to expand | restrictive lung disease |
| Losing weight during pregnancy can be toxic to the fetus (T/F) | true |
| Pectoralis major is active in shoulder __ and __. | flexion, adduction |
| PNF stretching is a combination of ___ and ___ stretching. | passive, isometric |
| Ability of skeleton to freely, easily, and fluidly float through the ranges of motion | functional flexibility |
| Uses only the tension of the agonists and synergists while the antagonists are being stretched | active flexibility |
| designed to improve muscle imbalances | corrective flexibility |
| Vitamin B12 and Folic Acid play a critical part of ___. | red cell production |
| Fat soluble vitamins | ADEK |
| Water soluble vitamins | BC |
| Required weekly calorie deficit to lose 1 lb. | 3500 |
| How many calories a day does the body require to get the necessary vitamins and minerals | 1200 |
| Cholesterol levels should be kept below __ mg/dl | 200 |
| Calories burned calculated from MET value | calories burned = MET value * body weight in kg |
| Which macronutrient can be metabolized without the presence of oxygen? | carbohydrates |
| The body uses omega-3 fatty acids primarily for the __. | central nervous system |
| RMR (resting metabolic rate) = | weight in kg *24 |
| activity factors for RMR | highly active .5, moderately active .4, slightly active .3 |
| total caloric expenditure = | RMR + (RMR * activity factor) |
| Number of essential amino acids | 9 |
| Which lever class is typical of most joints of the human body | class 3 |
| The fulcrum lies between the effort and the load | class 1 lever |
| The fulcrum is at one end, the effort at the other end and the load lies between the effort and the fulcrum | class 2 lever |
| The fulcrum is at one end, the load at the other end and the effort lies between the load and the fulcrum | class 3 lever |
| What are the prime movers in shoulder extension? | deltoid and latissimus dorsi |
| What are the prime movers in shoulder flexion? | deltoid and pectoralis major |
| What are the prime movers in shoulder adduction? | latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, teres major |
| What is the prime mover in shoulder abduction? | deltoids |
| What are the prime movers in hip flexion? | illiopsoas (iliacus, psoas major) |
| What are the prime movers in hip extension? | biceps femoris, gluteus maximus |
| What are the prime movers in hip abduction? | TFL, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, piriformis |
| What are the prime movers in hip adduction? | Adductors (brevis, longus, magnus), pectineus, gracilis |
| The explanation for how muscles produce force (or, usually, shorten). Thick and thin filaments within the sarcomere slide past one another, shortening the entire length of the sarcomere. | sliding filament theory |
| A thick muscle on each side of the neck, the action of which assists in bending the head and neck forward and sideways. | sternocleidomastoid |
| Which puts more stress on the joint, closed or open chain exercises? | open |
| Activity in which an extremity can move in any direction, because it is not attached at the end. For example, if you raise one of your feet off the ground, you can move that leg in any direction or sequence of movements. | open-chain exercise |
| Activity that fixes the distal end of the extremity either to the ground or to a device that has a predetermined motion. When you keep your feet on the ground while you bend or straighten one joint, the other joints move in a predictable, set manner. | close-chain exercise |
| Basic unit of contraction in the muscle fiber | sarcomere |
| sensory receptors within the belly of a muscle, which primarily detect changes in the length of this muscle. | muscle spindle |
| Which contains more mitochondria, slow-twitch or fast-twitch muscle fibers? | slow-twitch |
| What are the four factors that limit flexibility? | 1. elastic limits of ligaments and tendons crossing the joint 2. elasticity of muscle itself 3. bone and joint structure 4. the skin |
| What area of the body is innervated by the cervical plexus (C1-C4)? | head, neck, upper chest, shoulders |
| What area of the body is innervated by the brachial plexus (C5-T1)? | shoulders down to the fingertips |
| What area of the body is innervated by the lumbar plexus (L1-L4)? | abdomen, groin, genitalia, antero-lateral aspect of thigh |
| What area of the body is innervated by the sacral plexus (L5-S4)? | large posterior muscles of the thigh, lower leg, ankle, foot |
| What are the major characteristics of synovial joints? | Have a joint capsule or cavity between the bones that form them and a variety of movement can occur (ex: knee, elbow, hip). |
| What are the major characteristics of cartilaginous joints? | Have no joint cavity and are held together by cartilage. Little or no movement occurs (ex: where ribs connect to sternum, fibrocartilage b/w vertebrae). |
| What are the major characteristics of fibrous joints? | Have no joint capsule and are held tightly together by fibrous cartilage. Very little movement occurs (sutures b/w bones of skull, joint b/w distal tibia-fibula and radius-ulna) |
| What are the four components of a comprehensive exercise assessment? | 1. cardiorespiratory efficiency 2. muscular strength and endurance 3. muscle and joint flexibility 4. body composition |
| Average resting heart rate for men is __ beats per minute. | 70 |
| Average resting heart rate for women is __ beats per minute. | 75 |
| During a submaximal exercise test, do not allow the exercising heart rate to exceed __ percent of heart rate reserve or maximal oxygen uptake. | 85 |
| To convert a 10 repetition-max weightload to a 1-repetition-max estimation, divide the weight by ___. | .75 |
| Does not factor in the weight of the individual | absolute maximum oxygen uptake |
| Factors in the weight of the individual | relative maximum oxygen uptake |
| Which indicates a higher health risk, upper or lower body obesity? | upper |
| The greatest amount of force that muscles can produce in a single maximal effort. | muscular strength |
| The muscle's ability to exert a submaximal force either repeatedly or statically over time. | muscular endurance |
| Low-weight, high rep muscular endurance tests are most appropriate for whom? | less fit clients/clients that have health-related exercise-strength goals |
| What are three guidelines that ensure a client's heart rate doesn't exceed 150 to 155 bpm during a ross submaximal treadmill test? | 1. don't go to stage II if HR exceeds 140 at stage 1 (this person is unfit) 2. stages IV and V should only be used with clients under age 50 3. Never go to the next stage if the HR exceeds 145 bpm |
| What are the skinfold sites for men? | chest, abdomen, thigh |
| What are the skinfold sites for women? | triceps, suprailium, thigh |
| What is the location of the chest skinfold? | diagonal skinfold taken midway on the anterior axillary line (crease of the underarm and the nipple) |
| What is the location of the abdomen skinfold? | vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus |
| What is the location of the thigh skinfold? | vertical skinfold taken midway between the hip and knee joints on the front of the thigh |
| What is the location of the tricep skinfold? | vertical fold on the back of the upper arm taken halfway between the acromial (shoulder) and olecranon (elbow) processes |
| What is the location of the suprailium skinfold? | diagonal fold taken at, or just anterior to, the crest of the ilium |
| What are the advantages to the bench-press test? | dynamic movement that can be improved over time to show progress; easy to set up and administer |
| What are the disadvantages to the bench-press test? | uses fixed weight, which places lighter clients at a disadvantage |
| What are the advantages to the isometric strength test? | any strength test that involves movement will either underestimate or overestimate maximal force output due to internal friction; easy to administer |
| What are the advantages to the trunk flexion test? | easy to administer and repeat |
| What are the advantages of hydrostatic weighing? | most accurate for most clients, especially when coupled with a residual volume measurement |
| What are the disadvantages of hydrostatic weighing? | can be expensive and time consuming; lack of availability; may be inaccurate with clients uncomfortable with submersion in water |
| What are the disadvantages to the trunk flexion test? | may cause muscle strain if performed too vigorously or when the client is not properly warmed up |
| What are the disadvantages to the isometric strength test? | most workouts will focus on dynamic strength training so using this test for the purpose of establishing a baseline or to track progress may not be suitable |
| What are the implications of a shoulder adductor flexibility test where the arms do not lie flat? | client has shortness in pectoralis major, teres major, and latissimus dorsi area |
| What are the implications of a trunk flexion test in which a 28 yr old female has flexion of 15 inches with a trunk flexion evaluation of poor. | client has below average trunk flexibility with severe low back and hamstring inflexibility |
| What are the implications of a shoulder multi-rotational flexibility test where fingertips are not touching but are less than 2 inches apart? | client has fair rating of shoulder flexibility with lack of internal and external rotation |
| What are the implications of a hip flexor flexibility test where the right leg lifts up off the floor as the left leg reaches 80 degrees. | client has extremely tight hip flexors |
| What evaluation would you give to a client whose trunk is able to move forward on to the thighs and motion can occur at the hips and low back? | good trunk flexion |
| What evaluation would you give to a client where bending forward causes some restriction in the low back so that bending occurs more in the lumbar spine? | fair trunk flexion |
| What evaluation would you give to a client where bending forward results in lumbar spine remaining straight and the bending occurs in the upper area of the spine? | poor trunk flexion |
| What evaluation would you give to a client whose hips remain in contact with the floor when arms are fully extended in a trunk extension test? | good trunk extension |
| What evaluation would you give to a client whose hips rise from the floor up to two inches when arms are fully extended in a trunk extension test? | fair trunk extension |
| What evaluation would you give to a client whose hips rise from the floor two or more inches when arms are fully extended in a trunk extension test? | poor trunk extension |
| What evaluation would you give to a client whose fingers can touch in a shoulder flexibility test? | good shoulder flexibility |
| What evaluation would you give to a client whose fingers cant touch but are less than two inches apart in a shoulder flexibility test? | fair shoulder flexibility |
| What evaluation would you give to a client whose fingertips are more than two inches apart in a shoulder flexibility test? | poor shoulder flexibility |
| What are some ways to test upper body strength and endurance? | bench press and push ups |
| What are some ways to test abdominal strength and endurance? | half sit up test |
| What are some ways to test leg strength? | leg press |
| What are five purposes for fitness testing and evaluation? | 1. establish a baseline to evaluate progress 2. establish goals and provide motivation 3. identify areas of health and injury risks 4. assist in developing an exercise program 5. to assess current fitness levels relative to age and sex |
| List the cardiovascular health benefits related to cardiorespiratory exercise. | 1. Reduced blood pressure, total cholesterol, body fat stores, glucose-stimulated insulin secretion, clinical symptoms of anxiety/depression, and mortality in post myocar infar patients 2. increase HDL cholesterol, aerobic work capacity, heart function |
| List the adaptive physiologic responses related to cardiorespiratory exercise. | 1 increase lactate threshold, heart vol, resting/max stroke vol, max cardiac output, max oxygen consumption, capillary density (blood flow to active muscles), total blood volume, max ventilation, lung diffusion capacity 2 decrease RHR, mortality, anxiety |
| Which is responsible for preventing muscle spasms or cramping, the warm up or cool down ? | cool down |
| Which is responsible for preventing musculoskeletal injury as a result of stretching, the warm up or cool down? | warm up |
| Permits gradual metabolic adaptation (eg oxygen consumption) which enhances cardiorepiratory performance (eg higher max cardiac output and oxygen uptake) | warm up |
| Prevents the premature onset of blood lactic acid accumulation and fatigue during higher level aerobic exercise | warm up |
| Causes a gradual increase in muscle temperature which decreases the work of contraction and reduces the likelihood of muscle injury | warm up |
| Facilitates neural transmission for motor unit recruitment | warm up |
| Improves coronary blood flow in early stages of the conditioning exercise, lessening the potential for myocardial ischemia | warm up |
| Allows a gradual redistribution of blood flow to active muscles | warm up |
| Increases the elasticity of connective tissue and other muscle components | warm up |
| Provides a screening mechanism for potential musculoskeletal or metabolic problems that may increase at higher intensities | warm up |
| Provides a psychological warm-up to higher levels of work ( ie, increases arousal and focus on exercise) | warm up |
| Prevents post-exercise venous blood pooling and too rapid a drop in blood pressure, thereby reducing the likelihood of post-exercise lightheadedness or fainting | cool down |
| Reduces the immediate post-exercise tendency for muscle spasm or cramping | cool down |
| Reduces the concentration of exercise hormones (ie, norepinephrine) that are at relatively high levels immediately after vigorous aerobic exercise. This reduction will lower the probability of post-exercise disturbances in cardiac rhythm. | cool down |
| What is the range for Borg's rating of perceived exertion (from not moving to maximum exertion)? | 6-20 |
| What is the formula for training heart rate? | maximal measured/predicted heart rate * 60 to 90 percent (desired % of max heart rate) |
| ACSM recommends an exercise intensity of __ to __ percentage of maximum heart rate, which approximates __ to __ percentage of heart rate reserve and maximum oxygen uptake. | 60-90, 50-85 |
| What is the advisable percentage of maximal oxygen uptake for beginners in the lower cardiorespiratory fitness levels? | 50-60 |
| Persons with very low fitness levels can benefit from training intensities as low as __ to __ percent of maximal oxygen uptake. | 40-50 |
| What is the appropriate maximal oxygen uptake range for those who are apparently healthy and in higher fitness classifications? | 75-85 |
| For any given percentage of maximum oxygen uptake, except for maximum exercise intensities, the % of maximum heart rate will be somewhat __. | higher |
| What is the karvonen formula? | target heart rate = (max HR - resting HR) * intensity + resting HR |
| Most clients should exercise at an intensity of __ to __ on the Borg scale | 12-16 |
| What training method would you use with a client who has an aerobic capacity of 1-3.9 METS (poor cardioresp fitness level)? | low level (2-3 METS) aerobic interval training |
| What training method would you use with a client who has an aerobic capacity of 4-6.9 METS (low cardioresp fitness level)? | aerobic interval training at 3-5 METS |
| What training method would you use with a client who has an aerobic capacity of 7-10.9 METS (average cardioresp fitness level)? | aerobic interval training at 6-8 METS; continuous training at 5-8 METS |
| What training method would you use with a client who has an aerobic capacity of 11-13.9 METS (good cardioresp fitness level)? | aerobic interval training at 9-12 METS; continuous training at 8-12 METS; aerobic composite training at 8-12 METS; moderate anaerobic interval training |
| What training method would you use with a client who has an aerobic capacity of 14+ METS (high cardioresp fitness level) | aerobic interval training at 10-13+ METS; continuous training at 9-13+ METS; aerobic composite training at 9-13+ METS; anaerobic or Fartlek training |
| What are the three stages of a cardiorespiratory progression plan? | 1. initial conditioning stage 2. improvement conditioning stage 3. maintenance conditioning stage |
| A form of training similar to interval training, except the work-rest intervals are not systematically measured but are instead determined by how the participant feels | fartlek training |
| When comparing target heart-rate ranges using intensity by percentage of maximum heart rate and intensity by the Karvonen formula, which number is higher and why? | Karvonen is higher because it factors in resting heart rate |
| Using the revised Borg scale, the average exerciser should be between the numbers of __ and __. | 4-6 |
| Using the old Borg scale, a rating of 12 would indicate a heart rate of __ bpm. | 120 |
| Talk test advises clients to exercise to the point where you can still comfortably __ and if you are out of breath, __. | hold a conversation, reduce the intensity |
| The lower the initial level of fitness, the __ the rate of increase in aerobic capacity. | greater |
| Do relatively experienced swimmers generate a heart-rate response that is lower or higher for any effort compared with that of cyclists and runners? | lower |
| The longer the duration of training, the __ the rate of improvement in aerobic capacity up to a point. If exercise continues beyond that point, cardiovascular benefits may be __. | higher, reduced |
| Moderate submaximal exercise in healthy individuals does not appear to be significantly affected by a __ to __ percent increase in blood carbon monoxide. | 10-15 |
| How does age affect increases in aerobic capacity? | Older age isn't a detriment in itself to increasing aerobic capacity, but training generally shows smaller improvements in aerobic capacity due to lower exercise intensities in older individuals. |
| Tennis, racquetball, and handball are largely aerobic or anaerobic exercises for the beginning exerciser? | anaerobic |
| Aerobic dance exercisers generate a heart-rate response that is lower or higher for any effort compared with that of cyclists or runners? | higher |
| To find the __ place the first two fingers on the adam's apple and slide gently toward opposite side into groove. | carotid artery |
| To find the __ place the first two fingers to the outside edge of the eyebrow and slide fingers up and back into soft spot. | temporal artery |
| To find the __ place the first two fingers on the wrist in line with the thumb and slide along the wrist to the groove. | radial artery |
| To find the __ place two fingers below the left clavicle, between the anterior deltoid and pectoralis major | apical artery |
| What is the formula for cardiac output max? | HR max * SV max |
| What is the formula for oxygen extraction max? | VO2max/cardiac output |
| What is the formula for VO2max? | cardiac output max * oxygen extraction max |
| What is the formula for determining protein requirements for the average person? | weight in kg * .8 |
| What is the formula for determining protein requirements for resistance/endurance athletes? | weight in kg * (1.2 to 1.7) |
| Desirable total cholesterol should be less than __ mg/DL | 200 |
| Desirable LDL cholesterol should be less than __ mg/DL | 130 |
| Borderline total cholesterol ranges from __ to __ mg/DL | 200-240 |
| Borderline LDL cholesterol ranges from __ to __ mg/DL | 130-159 |
| High total cholesterol is anything greater than __ mg/DL | 240 |
| High LDL cholesterol is anything greater than or equal to __ mg/DL | 160 |
| Low HDL cholesterol is considered anything under __ mg/DL | 35 |
| Normal systolic blood pressure is less than __ mm/Hg and normal diastolic blood pressure is less than __ mm/Hg. | 130, 85 |
| High-normal systolic blood pressure ranges from __ to __ mm/Hg and high-normal diastolic blood pressure ranges from __ to __ mm/Hg. | 130-139, 85-89 |
| Hypertensive systolic blood pressure is greater than __ mm/Hg and hypertensive diastolic blood pressure is greater than __ mm/Hg. | 139, 89 |
| What is the formula for calculating BMI? | weight in kg/height in m squared |
| What is considered a healthy BMI range? | 19-24 |
| What is considered an overweight BMI range? | 25-29 |
| What is considered an obese BMI range? | 30-34 |
| What is considered a seriously obese BMI range? | 35+ |
| What is the essential body fat range for men and women? | 2-5%, 10-13% |
| What is the athletic body fat range for men and women? | 6-13%, 14-20% |
| What is the fitness body fat range for men and women? | 14-17%, 21-24% |
| What is the healthy body fat range for men and women? | 18-24%, 25-31% |
| What is the obese body fat range for men and women? | 25+%, 32+% |
| The amount of blood that flows from each ventricle in one minute. | cardiac output |
| Cardiac output is exactly the same from the right and left ventricles (T/F). | true |
| The amount of blood pumped from each ventricle each time the heart beats. | stroke volume |
| The percentage of total volume of blood that is pumped out of the left ventricle during systolic contraction of the heart. | ejection fraction |
| At rest the ejection fraction is only about __% but during work it can increase to __%. | 50, 100 |
| The amount of oxygen taken from hemoglobin and used in exercising muscle cells (two names). | oxygen extraction or arterio-venous oxygen difference |
| The point during high intensity exercise when the body can no longer meet its demand for oxygen and anaerobic metabolism predominates | anaerobic threshold |
| The total capacity to consume oxygen at a cellular level. | maximal oxygen consumption (VO2max) |
| Represents an individuals maximum aerobic capacity and depends on 1) delivery of oxygen to working muscle by the blood and 2) the ability to extract oxygen from blood at capillaries and use it in mitochondria | maximal oxygen consumption (VO2max) |
| The need for minimal equipment, low cost, and space and time efficiency are advantages to which type of equipment? | isometric |
| Blood pressure escalation, increases in strength only at specifically exercised positions in the movement range, training monotony, and lack of performance feedback are disadvantages to which type of equipment? | isometric |
| Accommodating resistance forces, speed regulation, detailed performance feedback, and reduced muscle soreness are advantages to which type of equipment? | isokinetic |
| The cost of equipment, inconsistent force regulation, and lack of eccentric muscle contraction are disadvantages to which type of equipment? | isokinetic |
| The low cost of equipment, similarity to most work and exercise activities, variety of movements, evidence of improvement, and easy accessibility are advantages to which type of equipment? | dynamic constant resistance |
| The inability to train through a full range of joint motion in some exercises and inconsistent matching of resistive forces throughout the exercise movements are disadvantages to which type of equipment? | dynamic constant resistance |
| The ability to train through a full range of joint motion on most exercises, fairly consistent matching of resistive forces throughout the exercise movements, and (in most cases) tangible evidence of improvement are advantages to which type of equipment? | dynamic variable resistance |
| The expense of equipment, limited number of training movements, and lack of accessibility are disadvantages to which type of equipment? | dynamic variable resistance |
| How does strength training benefit physical capacity? | it increases capacity to perform work |
| How does strength training benefit physical appearance? | it prevents loss of lean tissue that normally accompanies the aging process and reduces body fat stores |
| How does strength training benefit metabolic function? | it increases resting metabolic rate preventing excess energy storage as fat |
| How does strength training benefit risk of injury? | it reduces risk of injury and many degenerative diseases |
| What are some uncontrollable factors that affect strength performance? | gender, age, limb length, muscle length, tendon insertion and muscle type |
| People with relatively long muscles have __ potential for developing size and strength than people with relatively short muscles. | greater |
| Does a tendon insertion closer to the joint action create an advantage or disadvantage to effective force output? | disadvantage |
| There is an __ relationship between exercise resistance and exercise repetitions. | inverse |
| Higher-calorie use for the longer exercise session is an advantage of ___ . | multiple-set strength training |
| The lower time requirement for the shorter exercise session is an advantage of __. | single-set strength training |
| Muscle fibers that fatigue slowly and are better suited for aerobic activities. | type I (slow twitch) |
| Muscle fibers that fatigue quickly and are better suited for anaerobic activities. | type II (fast twitch) |
| The process of strength training results in microscopic tears to the ___ and ___. | muscle, connective tissue |
| The body usually requires __ to __ hours to fully recover so that strengthening can occur. If workouts are too close together the body will not have the chance to fully __ and build strength. | 24, 48, recover |
| What type of training develops strength and stabilization so that force can be transferred efficiently between the upper and lower body? | core |
| What kind of training integrates balance and intrinsic muscular stability and uses closed chain exercises? | functional |
| What are some examples of low-intensity active rest? | calf raises, walking, light stretching, abdominal and low-back exercises |
| load * repetitions * sets = | volume |
| For the average client, the recommended movement speed is __ seconds per repetition. | 4-5 |
| A safe starting resistance for most clients is one that allows for completion of at least __ repetitions. | 12-20 |
| When training with light loading, the outcome is __. Training should be at __% 1RM with __ to __ reps, __to__ sets and __to__ seconds of rest. | muscular endurance, <70, 12-20, 1-3, 20-30 |
| When training with moderate loading, the outcome is __. Training should be at __ to __% 1RM with __ to __ reps, __to__ sets and __to__ seconds of rest. | hypertrophy/strength, 70-80, 8-12, 1-6, 30-120 |
| When training with heavy loading, the outcome is __. Training should be at __to__% 1RM with __ to __ reps, __to__ sets and __to__ minutes of rest. | max strength/power, 80-100, 1-8, 1-5+, 2-5 |
| Using progressive increase in resistance over time, causing targeted muscles to fatigue in 30 to 90 secs, and challenging all major movements to which muscles contribute are the three general guidelines for what? | modifying strength training programs to create overload |
| What are the benefits of a flexibility training program? | increase: physical efficiency/performance, blood supply and nutrients to joint structures, neuromuscular coordination decrease: risk of injury, risk of low back pain, stress |
| During a __ stretch the contractile components of the muscles are relaxed. | passive |
| During a __ stretch the muscles are contracting through the range of motion. | active |
| Which type of flexibility does not emphasize movement? | static |
| Which type of flexibility involves speed, strength, and control? | dynamic |
| During __ tissues elongate but recover when the tension is removed. | elastic stretching |
| During __the deformation to the tissue remains after the tension is removed. | plastic stretching |
| What kind of stretching is primarily active and aimed at reducing muscle stiffness? | pre-exercise stretching |
| What kind of stretching is for permanent increases in flexibility? | post-exercise stretching |
| Which promotes greater plastic change, low-force long duration stretching or high-force, short duration stretching? | low-force long duration |
| Slow, gradual and controlled elongation through a full range of motion. | static stretching |
| High-force, short duration method that employs rapid, uncontrolled bouncing motions. | ballistic stretching |
| A method of promoting the response of neuromuscular mechanisms through the stimulation of proprioceptors in an attempt to gain more stretch in a muscle | PNF stretching |
| Stretch never held for more than two seconds. Stretch is then released, body segment returned to starting position, and the stretch is repeated for several more repetitions with each subsequent movement exceeding the resistance point by a few degrees. | active isolated stretching |
| The greatest increases in flexibility occur between the ages of __ and __. | 7-12 |
| Who is more flexible, females or males? | females |
| After adolescence, flexibility tends to __ with an acceleration in flexibility loss that begins at age __. | decline, 25 |
| What are the seven factors that influence flexibility? | age, gender, joint structure, muscle tendon attachments, muscle cross-sectional area, body temperature, pregnancy |
| In pregnant women, changes in hormonal levels (namely relaxin) __ joint and tissue laxity, which may increase their susceptibility to injury. | increase |
| What are the four primary steps in designing a comprehensive exercise program | 1. medical/health screening 2. physical fitness testing 3. selection of exercise mode 4. design of an exercise program for total fitness |
| The CDC/ACSM exercise lite guidelines are to help encourage __ individuals to improve their overall health by adding __ to __ activities to their weekly schedule. | sedentary, light, moderate |
| Typically lasts 4-6 weeks. Intensity, frequency, and duration are at the lower end of the training range. Increases are gradual. | initial conditioning stage |
| Typically lasts 8-20 weeks. Intensity, frequency, and duration are at the middle of the training range. Retesting fitness components every 3 months. | improvement conditioning stage |
| Usually begins 5 to 6 months after beginning an exercise program. Variety and convenience are the keys to keeping clients motivates | maintenance conditioning stage |
| Each year the number of Americans who suffer from a heart attack during or after exercise is ___. | 75,000 |
| The primary reason people give for not beginning an exercise program is __. | lack of time |
| Maintaining physical fitness is possible even when the training volume is decreased by __. | half |
| According to the 1996 US surgeon general's report and ACSM's exercise lite guidelines, the general population is urged " to accumulate __ minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity over the course of most days." | 30 |
| Which term BEST describes a muscle action in which the tension created by the muscle is variable throughout the range of motion? | isotonic |
| In men, a waist circumference of greater than ____ inches is considered to be a strong indicator of abdominal obesity. | 40 |
| If a woman weighs 110 lb, has a VO2 max of 40 mL/kg/min, and is exercising at a steady intensity of 70% of VO2 max for 20 minutes, how many calories are expended during exercise? | 140 |
| Which primary neural mechanism related to the stretch reflex causes a muscle to contract to protect itself in response to overstretching? | muscle spindle response |
| The maintenance conditioning stage of an exercise program usually begins _______. | 6 months after the start of the exercise program. |
| When the goal of an exercise program is to increase cardiorespiratory endurance, what upper limit of VO2 Reserve should be used? | 85% |
| A stroke is also referred to as ________. | cerebrovascular accident |
| According to current estimates, approximately what percentage of the American population does not engage in any leisure-time activity? | 30 |
| Studies have shown that drop-out rate for those beginning an exercise program is approximately ___ percent within six months. | 50 |
| What percentage of Americans is engaged in the recommended level of physical activity? | 25 |
| What is the estimated number of calories that an individual will burn by taking an additional 15,000 steps per week? | 750 |
| Which of the following is a personal factor that influences exercise adherence: social support, exercise experience, program convenience? | exercise experience |
| Which connective tissue functions to absorb shock? | muscle |
| For every minute that goes by without defibrillation, the victim's chance of survival decreases by _____ percent. | 7-10 |
| Comprised of the brain and spinal cord, it is completely enclosed in bone and is the control center (receives and integrates information and formulates appropriate responses) | central nervous system |
| The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide b/w the atmosphere and the large capillaries of the lungs. | external respiration |
| The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide b/w the blood and the cells of the body. | internal respiration |
| The utilization of oxygen and the production of carbon dioxide by the metabolic activity of the cell | cellular respiration |
| How many bones make up the axial skeleton? | 80 |
| How many bones make up the appendicular skeleton? | 126 |
| __ are living, such as red blood cells. | Formed elements |
| __ is composed of nonliving water and dissolved solutes. | plasma |
| Which system protects against disease, forms blood clots, and helps to regulate body temperature? | cardiovascular |
| Four training recommendations for a cardiovascular program are a frequency of __, intensity of __, duration of __, with ___ exercises. | at least 3X/week, 50-85% max VO2, at least 10-20 min/session, rhythmic large muscle movement |
| Walking has been shown to have high ___ because it is easy and convenient. It requires minimal __ and __ and can be done by people of all ages alone or in groups. | compliance, skill, equipment |
| The combination of __ and __ has been shown to be the most effective way to contribute to a weight management program. The combinations burns __ and stimulates __ rate. | aerobic endurance, weight training, calories, muscle/metabolic |
| Unsupported forward flexion, twisting at the waist with turned feet (esp when carrying a load), lifting both legs simultaneously while in prone/supine position, and rapid movements such as twisting, forward flexion, and hyperextending are all what? | movements that clients with lower-back pain should avoid |
| List the appropriate exercise intensity, duration, and frequency for a low-risk client with cardiovascular artery disease. | 40-75% HRR, gradually increased to 20-30 minutes, 3-5 days/week |
| Inflammation of the bronchial tubes | bronchitis |
| Over-inflation of the alveoli | emphysema |
| Caused by the destruction of insulin producing cells, which occurs in childhood | type I diabetes |
| Usually occurs during adulthood in overweight individuals and is characterized by a decreased sensitivity to insulin (increasing numbers of children are being diagnosed) | type II diabetes |
| What is the difference between a cerebrovascular accident (cva) and myocardial infarction? | cva affects the arteries of the nervous system instead of the heart |
| Clients with __ can't jump, do high-impact/step aerobics, jog/run, do spinal flexion, crunches, rowing machines, trampolines, abduct or adduct the legs against resistance, move their legs sideways across their body, or pull on neck with hands behind head. | osteoporosis |
| When working with clients with __, extend the warm up and cool down periods and avoid head-forward positions in which the chin is lifted. | low-back pain |
| When working with clients with __, extend the warm up and cool down periods and use isometric strength training. | arthritis |
| When working with clients with __, extend the warm up and cool down periods. | osteoporosis |
| When working with clients with __, extend the warm up and cool down periods, avoid extreme environmental conditions (high/low temps), and initially avoid upper-body exercises. | asthma/bronchitis/emphysema |
| Appropriate dress, behavior, and demeanor, as well as respecting the client-trainer relationship and the client's privacy and confidentiality are examples of __. | professionalism |
| Placing effort and extra work into all aspects of the workout, staying current, and finding answers to client concerns and questions are examples of __. | dedication |
| Recognizing and understanding each client for his or her unique situation and giving and receiving feedback are examples of __. | sensitivity |
| Seeking advice of others, setting goals, time off and soliciting support from others are active steps to prevent __. | burnout |
| Being prepared for each session, starting and ending sessions on time, and arranging for substitutes when unable to attend are examples of __. | punctuality |
| In a standard exercise program, the percentage of participants likely to drop out by the first six months is __. | 50 % or more |
| __ is the most often cited reason for discontinuing a vigorous exercise program. | Musculoskeletal injury |
| The first three to six months of exercise, when many of the difficulties associated with maintaining a fitness regimen normally occur, is called the initial __. | critical period |
| What are possible side effects that may accompany increased physical activity? | stiffness, minor soreness, muscle pain or fatigue |
| When a personal trainer does not recognize that there are more than just personal factors influencing a client's motivation to exercise and blames the client for their failure. | blaming the victim |
| A personal trainer should view motivation as a __ responsibility and recognize that it is dynamic and changes with each client and through different stages of the program. | joint |
| Feelings of accomplishment, stress reduction, better sleep, and circumference changes in arms/legs are all examples of __. | short term benefits of exercise |
| Emphasize __ when the client becomes discouraged about meeting long-term goals or the immediate discomfort of exercise doesn't seem to be paying off for them. | short term benefits of exercise |
| What are the two components of a complete behavioral contract? | specification of the behavior to be achieved and specification of the reinforcements that will reward the behavior |
| Effective feedback should be __, dependent on __, and should provide __. | specific, performance, corrective information |
| What are the four stages of the trainer-client relationship? | 1. rapport 2. investigation 3. planning 4. action |
| What are the three fundamental stages of the basic teaching method? | 1. assessment 2. teaching 3. evaluation |
| __ is the stage of successful sustained lifestyle modification, while __ is the opposite and generally refers to baseline behavior. | maintenance, relapse |
| Essential for thorough understanding and involves the gathering of information | assessment |
| An ongoing process throughout the program that allows revision and refinement, as well as periodic follow-up after program termination. | evaluation |
| Stimuli that precede the behavior and are sometimes referred to as cues or trigers | antecedents |
| Stimuli that follow the behavior and may be either positive or negative | consequence |
| During __ the individual is not intending to change soon (i.e. within six months) | precontemplation |
| Individuals who have decided to initiate an effort to change within a months time are in the __ stage. | preparation |
| The reinforcement of successive approximations until a desired goal is reached. | shaping |
| __ consists of seeing others serve as examples and prompts to behavior change. | observational learning |
| Average estimates of noncompliance for medical therapies range from __ to __. | 30-35 |
| __ is irrational or overly negative thinking that causes emotional distress. | cognitive quicksand |
| During the __ stage of change the client weighs the costs and benefits of lifestyle modification. | contemplation |
| __ are a means to break the connection between events or other stimuli and behavior. | stimulus control methods (or cue extinction) |
| The first step in the teaching process of behavior management is __. | goal setting |
| __ can take many forms, from generating objectives to keeping a log of efforts. | independent practice |
| The __ suggests that individuals adopt (or don't adopt) health behaviors based largely on their appraisal of their susceptibility to an illness combined with their perception of the probable severity of the consequences of having the illness | health behavior/belief model |
| A difficulty with the term __ is that it suggests that all the fault lies with the client and that it is reflective of poor motivation or laziness. | noncompliance |
| Injuries to __ heal with scar tissue known as collagen tissue. | muscle |
| __ repairs itself with exactly the same type of tissue when injured. | bone |
| __ does not contract to protect the are when injured. | ligament |
| Stopping the exercise session, removing client from hot environmental conditions, activating EMS, and giving fluids if conscious are all appropriate immediate care for __. | heat-related illness |
| Removing client from cold environment, warming them as quickly and gently as possible, and giving fluids if conscious are all appropriate immediate care for __. | hypothermia |
| For a client with __ you should concentrate on strengthening the peroneal muscles. | ankle sprain |
| For a client with __ you should minimize extreme shoulder abduction and external rotation. | shoulder dislocation |
| For a client with __ concentrate on eccentric strengthening of the legs. | runner's knee/jumper's knee |
| For a client with __ avoid overhead presses and increase abdominal strength and flexibility. | spinal injuries |
| Avoid continuing the activity that caused the injury | rest |
| Apply __ for 20-30 minutes and insulate the area | ice |
| Apply elastic bandages to the injured area | compression |
| Raise the injury to the height of the heart or higher | elevation |
| Increased temperature, redness, swelling, pain, and loss of function are the five signs of __. | inflammation |
| What are five items that should always be stocked in a first aid kit. | cpr microshield or pocket mask, stethoscope, sphygmomanometer, flashlight, sterile gauze |
| Protecting the spine if a fall has occurred, checking the head/face, looking at the skin, observing the chest for injury, checking vital signs, and asking the victim if they have abdominal pain are all possible steps during a __. | secondary assessment process |
| The aura, the tonic phase, the clonic phase and the postictal phase are the four stages of a __. | grand mal seizure |
| When an unusual sensation warns a person that a seizure is imminent (first phase of grand mal seizure). | aura |
| When the victim loses consciousness, holds his breath, and is rigid during a seizure | tonic phase |
| When the muscles alternate between relaxed and contracted in a grand mal seizure | clonic phase |
| When the victim is confused or comatose and the tonic/clonic activity ceases in a grand mal seizure. | postictal phase |
| __ are trained to administer basic medical care, while __ are trained to administer advanced care for life-threatening emergency needs. | emergency medical technicians (EMTs), paramedics |
| __ identifies any threats to life or limb, while __ occurs once life threatening needs of the victim have been addressed. | primary assessment, secondary assessment |
| __ is chest pain that doesn't cause permanent damage, while __ results in permanent damage to the myocardium. | angina, myocardial infarction |
| A __ fracture does not puncture the skin. | simple/closed |
| A __fracture results in part of the bone piercing through the skin, or occurs when a sharp object penetrates the skin and fractures the underlying bone. | compound/open |
| __ are tears of the ligaments, while __ can be microscopic or gross and are located at the muscle or tendon. | sprains, muscles strains |
| ABC stands for what? | airway, breathing, circulation |
| Why is it most important to make sure that oxygen can get into the lungs before circulating the blood when giving an unconscious victim care? | because the brain needs oxygen so circulating blood that doesn't contain oxygen is ineffective |
| Offer and acceptance with mutual agreement of terms, consideration (an exchange of valuable items, eg money for services), legality (acceptable form under the law), and ability of parties to enter contract w/ respect to legal age and mental capability are | four elements necessary for a legally binding contract |
| Instruction, supervision, facilities, equipment, contracts, and business structure are the main areas to evaluate when creating a __. | risk management protocol |
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emjay
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