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182 Chps 43,44,48,46
worktest questions for Unit 4
| Question | Answer | |
|---|---|---|
| Which statement about the complement system is true? A) these proteins are one group of antimicrobial proteins acting together in cascade fashion B) these proteins are secreted by cytotoxic T cells and other CD8 cells | C) these proteins are involved in innate immunity and not acquired immunity D) this group of proteins includes interferons and interleukins E) these proteins act individually to attack and lyse microbes (43-1) | A |
| Which cells and which signaling molecules are responsible for initiating an inflammatory response? | A) phagocytes: chemokines B) mast cells: histamines C) phagocytes: lysozymes D) lymphocytes: interferons E) dendritic cells: interferons (43-2) | B |
| Inflammatory responses may include which of the following? A) reduced permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma B) release of substances to decrease the blood supply to an inflamed area | C) increased activity of phagocytes in an inflamed area D) clotting proteins migrating away from the site of infection E) inhibiting the release of white blood cells from bone marrow (43-3) | C |
| An invertebrate has innate immunity that can be nonspecific about which pathogens are prevented from harming its metabolism. Which of the following is most likely to function this way in the insect's intestine? | A) lysozyme B) dendritic cells C) neutrophils D) mucus E) complement (43-5) | A |
| If a newborn were accidentally given a drug that destroyed the thymus, what would most likely happen? A) his T cells would not mature and differentiate appropriately | B) his cells would lack class I MHC molecules C) his humoral immunity would be missing D) genetic rearrangement of antigen receptors would not occur E) his B cells would be reduced in number and antibodies would not form (43-6) | A |
| Which of the following are symptoms of inflammation that might appear in such art? | A) pain and whitening of the surrounding tissue B) swelling and pain C) heat, pain, and redness D) antibody producing cells E) swelling, heat, redness, and pain (43-7) | E |
| Clonal selection implies that: A) the body selects which antigens it will respond to | B) antigens increase mitosis in specific lymphocytes C) only certain cells can produce interferon D) a B cell has multiple types of antigen receptors E) brothers and sisters have similar immune responses (43-8) | B |
| A person exposed to a new cold virus would not feel better for one to two weeks because: A) V-J gene rearrangement must occur prior to a response | B) no memory cells can be called upon; response is slow C) antigen receptors aren't the same as for a flu virus she previously had D) takes 2 weeks to stimulate immunologic memory cells E) specific B & T cells must be selected prior to response (43-9) | B |
| Which of the following differentiates T cells and B cells? A) T cells can directly attack and destroy invading pathogens | B) only B cells take part in cell-mediated immunity C) only B cells are produced from stem cells of the bone marrow D) T cells are stimulated to increase the rate of their cell cycles E) T cells have surface markers (43-10) | A |
| The MHC is important in a T cell's ability to: | A) identify specific viruses B) recognize differences among types of cancer C) distinguish self from nonself D) recognize specific parasitic pathogens E) identify specific bacterial pathogens (43-11) | C |
| A patient can produce antibodies against some bacterial pathogens, but he does not produce antibodies against viral infections. This is probably due to a disorder in which cells of the immune system? | A) B cells B) T cells C) natural killer cells D) macrophages E) plasma cells (43-12) | B |
| In which of the following situations will helper T cells be activated? A) when a cytotoxic T cell releases cytokines | B) when natural killer cells come in contact with a tumor cell C) when B cells respond to T-independent antigens D) in the bone marrow during the self-tolerance test E) when an antigen is displayed by a dendritic cell (43-13) | E |
| For one person to produce over a million antibody molecules couldn't possibly require over a million different genes. Instead, this variability is accounted for by which process? A) DNA rearrangements followed by alternative splicing of the transcripts | B) DNA rearrangements in the thymus cells C) increased rate of mutation in the RNA molecules D) alternative splicing of exons after transcription E) crossing-over between the light and heavy chains of each antibody molecule during meiosis I (43-14) | A |
| These cells are involved in innate immunity, and a person lacking these cells may have a higher than normal chance of developing malignant tumors: | A) natural killer cells B) B cells C) cytotoxic T cells D) helper T cells E) macrophages (43-15) | A |
| Which of the following is the last line of defense against an extracellular pathogen? | A) phagocytosis by neutrophils B) antibody production by plasma cells C) lysis by natural killer cells D) histamine release by basophils E) lysozyme production (43-16) | B |
| Both lysozyme and cytotoxic T cells: | A) kill cells through chemical interactions B) are part of innate immunity C) kill cells by generating a membrane attack complex D) kill cells by inducing apoptosis E) are involved in cell-mediated immune responses (43-17) | E |
| What are CD4 and CD8? A) receptors present on the surface of natural killer cells B) molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting cells where they enhance B cell activity | C) molecules present on the surface of T cells where they enhance cellular interaction D) T-independent antigens E) proteins secreted by antigen-presenting cells (43-18) | C |
| B cells interacting with helper T cells are stimulated to differentiate when: A) B cells produce IgE antibodies | B) helper T cells present the class II MHC molecule-antigen complex on their surface C) helper T cells release cytokines D) B cells release cytokines E) helper T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells (43-19) | C |
| How do antibodies of the different classes IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE differ from each other? | A) the antigenic determinants that they recognize B) the way they are produced C) the number of carbohydrate subunits they have D) their heavy chain structure E) the type of cell that produces them (43-20) | D |
| When antibodies attack antigens, clumping of the affected cells generally occurs. This is best explained by: A) bonds between class I and class II MHC molecules | B) denaturation of the antibodies C) disulfide bridges between the antigens D) the shape of the antibody with at least two binding regions E) complement that makes the affected cells sticky (43-21) | D |
| Phagocytosis of microbes by macrophages is enhanced by which of the following? | A) binding of antobodies to the surface of microbes B) antibody-mediated agglutination of microbes C) release of cytokines by activated B cells D) A and B E) A,B,and C (43-22) | D |
| What is the primary function of humoral immunity? A) defend against bacteria and viruses that have already infected cells | B) defend against fungi and protozoa C) produce antibodies that circulate in body fluids D) it's responsible for transplant tissue rejection E) protects the body against cells that become cancerous (43-23) | C |
| Jenner successfully used cowpox virus as a vaccine against the virus that causes smallpox. Why was he successful even though he used viruses of different kinds? | A) immune system responds nonspecifically to antigens B) cowpox virus made antibodies in response to presence of smallpox C) some antigenic determinants are common to both viruses D) both have antibodies with similar immunizing properties (43-24) | C |
| A transfusion of type A blood given to a person who has type O blood would result in which of the following? A) no reaction; O-type doesn't have antibodies | B) recipient's anti-A & O antibodies react if donor was heterozygote C) no reaction; O universal donor D) recipient's anti-A antibodies clump the donated red blood cells E) recipient's B antigens react with donated anti-B antibodies (43-25) | D |
| see table in worktest 43 In which of the cases would the precaution likely be taken to give the mother anti-Rh antibodies before delivering her baby? | A) Cases 1,2,3 B) Case 1 C) Case 3 D) Cases 1 and 2 E) can't be determined (43-26) | B |
| In the human disease known as lupus, there is an immune reaction against a patient's own DNA from broken or dying cells. This kind of response typifies which kind of irregularity? | A) immunodeficiency B) antigenic variation C) allergy D) cancer E) autoimmune disease (43-27) | E |
| An immune response to a tissue graft will differ from an immune response to a bacterium because: A) donor MHC molecules may stimulate rejection | B) graft will stimulate recipient autoimmune response C) response to graft will involve T cells; response to bacterium won't D) bacterium can't escape immune system by replicating E) graft is isolated from circulation; won't enter immune response (43- | A |
| Most newly emerging diseases, no matter how severe their effects on a population, human or otherwise, have which of the following in common? A) major pandemics, spread infection far and wide | B) tendency to die out quickly, cease to reproduce, or cause less severe effect C) destruction of host immune and cancer D) greater severity as there's more occurences E) no relationship (43-29) | B |
| HIV targets include all of the following except: | A) brain cells B) helper T cells C) cytotoxic T cells D) cells bearing CD4 E) macrophages (43-30) | C |
| The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be ______ with its ______ environment | A) hyperosmotic; freshwater B) hyperosmotic; saltwater C) isoosmotic; saltwater D) hypoosmotic; saltwater E) isotonic; freshwater (44-1) | C |
| Which feature of osmoregulation is found in both marine and freshwater bony fish? | A) loss of water in the urine B) gain of salt through the gills C) no drinking of water D) loss of water through the gills E) gain of water through food (44-2) | E |
| Unlike most bony fishes, sharks maintain body fluids that are isoosmotic to sea water. They are osmoconformers because of the way they maintain homeostasis. They osmoregulate by: A) synthesizing trimethylamine oxide; speeds salt removal from cells | B) monitoring dehydration at cell level with aquaporins C) adaptation allows cells to operate at high salt conc. D) tolerate high urea conc. that balance internal salt conc. to sea water osmolarity E) use gills and kidneys to get rid of sea salts (44- | D |
| A freshwater fish was accidentally placed in salt water. After several minutes, it died. What is the most logical explanation for its death? A) loss of water by osmosis in organs; cell death and organ failure | B) kidneys not able to remove water in hyperosmotic; loss of homeostasis C) salt caused cells to swell and lyse D) brain cells lysed in increased osmotic pressure in hyperosmotic E) gills encrusted with salt (44-4) | A |
| Where and from what compound(s) is urea produced? | A) kidneys from glucose B) liver from glycogen C) bladder from uric acid and H2O D) kidneys from glycerol and fatty acids E) liver from NH3 and CO2 (44-5) | E |
| Which of the following is true of urea? It is: | A) the primary nitrogenous waste product of most birds B) insoluble in water C) the primary nitrogenous waste product of humans D) the primary nitrogenous waste product of aquatic invertebrates E) more toxic to human cells than ammonia (44-6) | C |
| Which of the following is true of ammonia? | A) metabolically more expensive to synthesize than urea B) low toxicity relative to urea C) can be stored as a precipitate D) soluble in water E) major nitrogenous waste excreted by insects (44-7) | D |
| The advantage of excreting wastes as urea rather than as ammonia is that: | A) urea requires more water for excretion B) urea is less toxic C) less nitrogen is removed from the body D) urea doesn't affect the osmolar gradient E) urea can be exchanged for Na+ (44-8) | B |
| Birds secrete uric acid as their nitrogenous waste because uric acid: A) allows birds to live in desert environments | B) is metabolically less expensive to synthesize than other excretory products C) requires little water for disposal, which is conducive to the function of flight in terms of weight E) soluble in water (44-9) | C |
| Which of the following nitrogenous wastes requires hardly any water for its excretion? | A) urea B) nitrogen gas C) ammonia D) amino acid E) uric acid (44-10) | E |
| In animals, nitrogenous wastes are produced mostly from the catabolism of: | A) fatty acids and glycerol B) starch and cellulose C) triglycerides and steroids D) phospholipids and glycolipids E) proteins and nucleic acids (44-11) | E |
| The most concentrated urine is excreted by: | A) desert tortoises B) kangaroo rats C) birds D) frogs E) humans (44-12) | B |
| Materials are returned to the blood from the filtrate by which of the following processes? | A) ultrafiltration B) active transport C) selective reabsorption D) secretion E) filtration (44-13) | C |
| Which group possess excretory structures known as protonephridia? | A) earthworms B) insects C) flatworms D) cnidarians E) vertebrates (44-14) | C |
| Which group possess excretory organs known as Malpighian tubules? | A) flatworms B) sea stars C) insects D) earthworms E) jellyfish (44-15) | C |
| Which of the following excretory systems is partly based on the filtration of fluid under high hydrostatic pressure? | A) flame-bulb system of flatworms B) protonephridia of rotifers C) kidneys of vertebrates D) Malpighian tubules of insects E) metanephridia of earthworms (44-16) | C |
| Which of the following would contain blood in a normally functioning nephron? | A) loop of Henle B) proximal tubule C) Bowman's capsule D) collecting duct E) vasa recta (44-17) | E |
| Which structure descends deep into the renal medulla only in juxtamedullary nephrons? | A) glomerulus B) collecting duct C) loop of Henle D) Bowman's capsule E) proximal convoluted tubule (44-18) | C |
| Proper functioning of the human kidney requires active transport of sodium. If the active transport mechanisms were to stop, how would urine production be affected? | A) less-than-normal volume of hypoosmotic urine B) no urine would be produced C) greater-than-normal volume of isoosmotic urine D) less-than-normal volume of isoosmotic urine E) greater-than-normal volume of hyperosmotic urine (44-19) | C |
| Which one of the following is extremely important for water conservation in mammals? | A) Bowman's capsule B) juxtamedullary nephrons C) urethra D) ureter E) podocytes (44-20) | B |
| What is unique about transport epithelial cells in the ascending loop of Henle in humans? | A) membranes are impermeable to water B) largest epithelial cells in the body C) not affected by high levels of nitrogenous wastes D) not in contact with interstitial fluid E) 50% of cell mass is smooth endoplasmic reticulum (44-21) | A |
| What is the typical osmolarity of human blood? | A) 100 mosm/L B) 200 mosm/L C) 500 mosm/L D) 30 mosm/L E) 300 mosm/L (44-22) | E |
| Which structure increases the reabsorption of Na+ when stimulated by aldosterone? | A) collecting duct B) Bowman's capsule C) distal tubules D) proximal tubule E) loop of Henle (44-23) | C |
| What would account for increased urine production as a result of drinking alcoholic beverages? | A) osmoregulator brain cells increase their activity B) increased aldosterone production C) inhibition of antidiuretic hormone secretion (ADH) D) increased reabsorption of water in proximal tubule E) increased blood pressure (44-24) | C |
| Which one of the following, if present in a urine sample, would likely be caused by trauma? | A) glucose B) salts C) erythrocytes D) amino acids E) vitamins (44-25) | C |
| How does ADH function at the cellular level? A) causes membranes to include more phospholipids that have unsaturated fatty acids | B) decreases the speed of filtrate flow through the nephron C) increase in the # of aquaporin molecules D) triggers synthesis of enzyme that makes membrane more permeable to water E) reabsorption of glucose through channel proteins (44-26) | C |
| Which of the following activities would initiate an osmoregulatory adjustment brought about primarily through the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system? | A) drinking several glasses of water B) eating a bag of potato chips C) eating a pizza D) spending several hours mowing the lawn on a hot day E) sleeping (44-27) | D |
| Which process in the nephron is least selective? | A) salt pumping by the loop of Henle B) filtration C) reabsorption D) active transport E) secretion (44-28) | B |
| How do ADH and RAAS work together in maintaining osmoregulatory homeostasis? A) ADH monitors blood osmolarity; RAAS regulates blood volume B) stimulate the adrenal gland to secrete aldosterone | C) ADH monitors osmolarity by reabsorption of water; RAAS maintains osmolarity by stimulating Na reabsorption D) only when together will nutrients be reabsorbed E) work antagonistically; RAAS stimulates water removal (44-29) | C |
| African lungfish, which are often found in small stagnant pools of fresh water, produce urea. What is the advantage of this adaptation? | A) urea forms insoluble precipitate B) highly toxic urea makes the pool uninhabitable C) not enough water to dilute ammonia D) urea makes lungfish tissue hypoosmotic to the pool E) urea takes less energy to synthesize (44-30) | C |
| A simple nervous system: A) includes a minimum of 12 ganglia | B) has info flow both toward and away from an integrating center C) must include chemical senses, mechanoreception, and vision D) has info flow in one direction: toward integrating center E) info flow in one direction: away from integrating center (48 | B |
| In certain large animals, this type of neuron can extend beyond one meter in length: | A) glial cell in the brain B) a sensory neuron C) an interneuron D) a neuron that controls eye movements E) a glial cell at a ganglion (48-2) | B |
| In the communication link between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle: A) action potentials are possible only on the motor neuron | B) only the motor neuron fires action potentials C) motor neuron is presynaptic cell; skeletal muscle is postsynaptic cell D) action potentials only possible on skeletal muscle E) motor neuron is postsynaptic cell; skeletal muscle is presynaptic (48-3 | C |
| The "selectivity" of a particular ion channel refers to its: A) ability to change size depending on ion needing transport | B) permitting passage only by positive ions C) permitting passage only to a specific ion D) permitting passage only by negative ions E) binding with only one type of neurotransmitter (48-4) | C |
| The "threshold" potential of a membrane: A) point of separation of a living from a dead neuron B) peak amount of depolarization in an action potential | C) minimum hyperpolarization needed to prevent occurrence of action potentials D) lowest frequency of action potentials produced E) minimum depolarization needed to operate voltage-gated Na and K channels (48-5) | E |
| After the depolarization phase of an action potential, the resting potential is restored by: A) opening of voltage-gated K channels and closing of Na activation gates | B) decrease in membrane's permeability to K and Cl ions C) opening of Na activation gates D) opening of more voltage-gated Na channels E) brief inhibition of the Na-K pump (48-6) | A |
| See graph in worktest 48 The membrane potential is closest to the equilibrium potential for potassium at label: | (48-7) | D |
| See graph in worktest 48 The membrane's permeability to sodium ions is at its maximum at label: | (48-8) | B |
| The cell is not hyperpolarized, but repolarization is in progress, as the sodium channels are closing or closed, and many potassium channels have opened, at label: | (48-9) | C |
| In the sequence of permeability changes for a complete action potential, the first of these events that occurs is: | A) opening of voltage-gated K channels B) inhibition of the Na-K "pump" C) opening of voltage-gated Na channels D) activation of the Na-K "pump" E) closing of voltage-gated K channels (48-10) | C |
| For a neuron with an initial membrane potential at -70 mV, an increase in the movement of K ions out of that neuron's cytoplasm would result in: | A) hyperpolarization of neuron B) switching on Na-K pump to restore initial conditions C) replacement of K ions with Ca ions D) replacement of K ions with Na ions E) depolarization of the neuron (48-11) | A |
| Though the membrane of a "resting" neuron is highly permeable to K ions, its membrane potential doesn't exactly match the equilibrium potential for K because the neuronal membrane is: | A) slightly permeable to Na ions B) fully permeable to Ca ions C) fully permeable to Na ions D) impermeable to Na ions E) highly permeable to Cl ions (48-12) | A |
| Neural transmission across a mammalian synaptic gap is accomplished by: A) impulses ricocheting back and forth across the gap | B) movement of Na and K ions from presynaptic to postsynaptic C) impulses causing release of chemical signal and its diffusion across gap D) impulses traveling as electrical currents E) movement of Ca ions from presynaptic to postsynaptic (48-13) | C |
| One disadvantage to a nerve net is that it can conduct impulses in two directions from the point of the stimulus. Most of the synapses in vertebrates conduct information in only one direction: A) because Na-K pump moves ions in one direction | B) as a result of the nodes of Ranvier C) because nerve cells have dendrites D) as result of voltage-gated Na channels found in system E) because only postsynaptic cells can bind and respond to neurotransmitters (48-14) | E |
| The observation that the acetylcholine released into the junction between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle binds to a Na channel and opens it is an example of: | A) voltage-gated K channel B) ligand-gated Na channel C) second-messenger-gated Na channel D) chemical that inhibits action potentials E) voltage-gated Na channel (48-15) | B |
| The activity of acetylcholine in a synapse is terminated by: | A) active transport across presynaptic membrane B) degradation by a hydrolytic enzyme on postsynaptic membrane C) diffusion across presynaptic membrane D) diffusion across postsynaptic membrane E) active transport across postsynaptic membrane (48-16) | B |
| When several EPSPs arrive at the axon hillock from different dendritic locations, depolarizing the postsynaptic cell to threshold for an action potential, this is an example of: | A) tetanus B) the refractory state C) an action potential with an abnormally high peak of depolarization D) spatial summation E) temporal summation (48-17) | D |
| When several IPSPs arrive at the axon hillock rapidly in sequence from a single dendritic location, hyperpolarizing the postsynaptic cell more and more and thus preventing an action potential, this is an example of: | A) spatial summation B) an action potential with an abnormally high peak of depolarization C) the refractory state D) temporal summation E) tetanus (48-18) | D |
| Functionally, this cellular location is the neuron's "decision-making site" as to whether or not an action potential will be initiated: | A) mitochondrial membranes B) dendritic membranes C) axon hillocks D) axonal membranes E) presynaptic membranes (48-19) | C |
| An amino acid that operates at inhibitory synapses in the brain: | A) nitric oxide B) acetylcholine C) epinephrine D) endorphin E) GABA (48-20) | E |
| The botulinum toxin reduces the synaptic release of: | A) endorphin B) acetylcholine C) epinephrine D) GABA E) nitric oxide (48-21) | B |
| What happens when a neuron's membrane depolarizes? | A) equilibrium potential for K becomes more + B) net diffusion of Na out of cell C) neuron less likely to generate an action potential D) membrane voltage becomes more positive E) inside of cell becomes more - relative to the outside (48-22) | D |
| A common feature of action potentials is that they: A) undergo temporal and spatial summation | B) move at same speed along all axons C) cause membrane to hyperpolarize then depolarize D) result from Na and K diffusion through ligand-gated channels E) triggered by depolarization that reaches the threshold (48-23) | E |
| Which of the following is a direct result of depolarizing the presynaptic membrane of an axon terminal? | A) postsynaptic produces an action potential B) ligand-gated channels open; allow neurotransmitters to enter synaptic cleft C) synaptic vesicles fuse with membrane D) voltage-gated Ca channels open E) EPSP or IPSP is generated in postsynaptic (48-24) | D |
| Where are neurotransmitter receptors located? | A) membranes of synaptic vesicles B) on nuclear membrane C) in myelin sheath D) at nodes of Ranvier E) on postsynaptic membrane (48-25) | E |
| Why are action potentials usually conducted in only one direction along an axon? A) ions can flow along axon in one direction | B) nodes of Ranvier conduct potentials in one direction C) brief refractory period prevents reopening of voltage-gated Na channels D) axon hillock has higher membrane potential than terminals E) Na & K voltage-gated channels open one direction (48-26) | C |
| An advantage of asexual reproduction is that: A) enhances genetic variability | B) allows a species to rid itself of harmful mutations C) enables the species to rapidly colonize favorable habitats D) produces offspring that respond effectively to new pathogens E) allows the species to endure periods of unstable environment (46-1) | C |
| Sexual reproduction patterns include the example of: | A) parthenogenesis B) fragmentation C) hermaphroditism D) fission E) budding (46-2) | C |
| If you observe vertebrate organisms with parthenogenetic reproduction, internal development of embryos, and the lack of parental care for its young, you should categorize these organisms as: | A) birds B) lizards C) earthworms D) mammals E) frogs (46-3) | B |
| Evidence that parthenogenic whiptail lizards are derived from sexually producing ancestors includes: A) development then regression of testes | B) all offspring are haploid C) vestigial penis among some of the females D) dependence on favorable weather for ovulation E) requirement for male-like behaviors in some females before their partners will ovulate (46-4) | E |
| Like many other fishes, bluehead wrasses utilize harem mating as they reproduce sexually, but unlike most fish: | A) offspring can be haploid or diploid B) they function w/o any signaling by steroid hormones C) undergo prolonged diapause during low tide D) are simultaneous hermaphrodites E) large females morph into reproductively competent males (46-5) | E |
| Animals with reproduction dependent on internal fertilization need not have: | A) haploid gametes B) receptacle that receives sperm C) internal development of embryos D) behavioral interaction between males and females E) copulatory organs (46-6) | C |
| In close comparisons, external fertilization often yields more offspring than does internal fertilization, but internal fertilization offers the advantage that: A) only way to ensure survival of species | B) offspring receive greater amount of parental investment C) permits most rapid population increase D) requires less time and energy to be devoted to reproduction E) requires expression of fewer genes; maximizes genetic stability (46-7) | B |
| Organisms with a reproductive pattern that produce shelled amniotic eggs generally: A) lower embryo mortality rate to less than one in a thousand | B) invest more energy in parenting C) have higher embryo mortality rate D) invest most of reproductive energy in embryonic & postnatal development E) produce more gametes (46-8) | D |
| A cloaca is an anatomical structure found in many nonmammalian vertebrates, which functions as: A) sperm-transfer device produced by males | B) region bordered by labia minora and clitoris in females C) gland secretes mucus to lubricate vaginal opening D) common exit for digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems E) source of nutrients for sperm (46-9) | D |
| Females of many insect species, including honeybee queens, can store gametes shed by their mating partners in: | A) their nests B) the uterus C) the cloaca D) the abdominal tract E) the spermatheca (46-10) | E |
| An oocyte released from a human ovary enters the oviduct as a result of: A) force of follicular ejection | B) peristaltic contraction of ovarian muscles C) beating action of flagellum on oocyte D) beating of cilia lining the oviduct E) movement through the pulsing uterus (46-11) | D |
| The junction of the upper vagina and the uterus is called the: | A) fallopian tube B) clitoris C) oviduct D) cervix E) labia majora (46-12) | D |
| In humans, the follicular cells that remain behind in the ovary following ovulation become: A) thickened portion of uterine wall | B) the placenta; secretes cervical mucus C) ovarian endometrium; shed at time of menses D) swept into fallopian tube E) steroid-hormone synthesizing structure called the corpus luteum (46-13) | E |
| The male and female structures that consist mostly of erectile tissue include: | A) testes and ovaries B) penis and clitoris C) prostate and ovaries D) vas deferens and oviduct E) seminiferous tubules and hymen (46-14) | B |
| The surgical removal of the seminal vesicles would likely: A) cause sterility; sperm not produced | B) testes migrate back into the abdominal cavity C) greatly reduce volume of semen D) cause sterility; sperm not able to exit body E) enhance fertilization potency of sperm (46-15) | C |
| Most of the noncellular fluid in ejaculated human semen is composed of: | A) secretions of bulbourethral glands B) secretions of seminal vesicles C) secretions of seminiferous tubules D) anticoagulant enzymes E) secretions of prostate gland (46-16) | B |
| Among human males, both semen and urine normally travel along the: | A) ureter B) urinary bladder C) seminal vesicle D) vas deferens E) urethra (46-17) | E |
| During human heterosexual excitement, vasocongestion: | A) only occurs in upper vagina B) only occurs in penis C) only occurs in clitoris D) only occurs in testes E) occurs in clitoris, vagina, and penis (46-18) | E |
| At the time of fertilization, the complete maturation of each oogonium has resulted in: | A) four zygotes B) one secondary oocyte C) four secondary oocytes D) two primary oocytes E) four primary oocytes (46-19) | B |
| A male's "primary" sex characteristics include: | A) embryonic differentiation of seminal vesicles B) growth of skeletal muscle C) elongation of skeleton D) growth of facial hair E) deepening of the voice (46-20) | A |
| The primary difference between estrous and menstrual cycles is that: A) endometrium shed by uterus during estrous cycle is reabsorbed; excreted in menstrual cycle | B) estrous cycle longer duration C) behavioral changes less apparent in estrous cycle D) copulation occurs across estrous cycle E) season and climate less effects on estrous cycle (46-21) | A |
| In correct chronological order, the three phases of the ovarian cycle are: | A) menstrual-> proliferative-> secretory B) follicular-> ovulation-> luteal C) proliferative-> luteal-> ovulation D) follicular-> luteal-> secretory E) menstrual-> ovulation-> luteal (46-22) | B |
| In correct chronological order, the three phases of the uterine cycle: | A) follicular-> luteal-> secretory B) proliferative-> luteal-> ovulation C) follicular-> ovulation-> luteal D) menstrual-> ovulation-> luteal E) menstrual-> proliferative-> secretory (46-23) | E |
| This hormone is secreted directly from a structure in the brain: | A) follicle stimulating hormone B) progesterone C) estradiol D) testosterone E) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (46-24) | E |
| The primary function of the corpus luteum is to: A) stimulate development of mammary glands | B) nourish and protect the egg cell C) produce prolactin D) maintain progesterone and estrogen synthesis after ovulation E) support pregnancy in 2nd and 3rd trimesters (46-25) | D |
| For normal human fertilization to occur: | A) only one sperm needs to penetrate one egg B) many ova must be released C) uterus must be enlarged D) secondary oocyte must implant in the uterus E) secretion of FSH and LH must decrease (46-26) | A |
| A reliable "marker" that a pregnancy has initiated, and that is detectable in excreted urine is: | A) estrogen B) progesterone C) chorionic gonadotropin D) follicle-stimulating hormone E) hypothalamus releasing factors (46-27) | C |
| Labor contractions would be increased by the use of a synthetic drug that mimics the action of: | A) luteinizing hormone B) prolactin C) inhibin D) vasopressin E) oxytocin (46-28) | E |
| The "immunotolerance" of a pregnant woman toward her unborn child is the result of: A) complete physical separation of her cells and the child's | B) child has enough of woman's identity to not be foreign C) relative quiescence of her immune system compared to when she wasn't pregnant D) tenacity of child's immune system E) modern medical intervention (46-29) | C |
| Which pair includes two contraceptive methods that are generally irreversible means to block gametes from moving to a site where fertilization can occur: | A) coitus interruptus & rhythm method B) male condom & female condom C) diaphragm & subcutaneous progesterone implant D) male condom & oral contraceptives E) vasectomy & tubal ligation (46-30) | E |
| A bacterium entering the body through a small cut in the skin will do which of the following? | A) stimulate natural killer cell activity B) inactivate the erythrocytes C) activate a group of proteins called complement D) stimulate apoptosis of nearby body cells E) stimulate release of interferons (43-4) | C |
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