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Which of the following shoulder projections best demonstrates the glenoid fossa in profile?
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Which of the following projections can be performed using a breathing technique?
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Final 313 Review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Which of the following shoulder projections best demonstrates the glenoid fossa in profile? | Grashey Cavity Method |
| Which of the following projections can be performed using a breathing technique? | Transthoracic Humerus |
| How much CR angulation should be used for a scapular Y projection? | No angle |
| Which projection of the shoulder requires that the patient be rotated 45-60 degrees LAO from the lateral projection? | Lateral Scapula projection |
| Where is the CR centered for an AC joint projection on a single 14x17 inch IR? | 1 in above the jugular notch |
| % of shoulder dislocation are anterior? | 95% |
| For a(n) _________ the radiographer will abduct the patients arm slightly and supinate the hand so that the epicondyles of the elbow are equal distance of the IR. | AP projection: Humerus |
| For a(n) ________ the radiographer will have the patient face the upright bucky (IR) and oblique the patient 20 to 30 degrees from PA to allow close contact of humerus to the IR. | Rotational Lateral- Mediolateral Projection: Humerus |
| For a(n) _______ the radiographer will abduct the patients arm slightly and supinate the hand so that the epicondyles of the humerus are parallel to the IR. | AP projection- External Rotation: Shoulder (nontrauma) |
| For a(n) _______ the radiographer positions the part by rotating the patient's body 35 to 45 degrees toward the affected side | Posterior Oblique Position- Glenoid Cavity: Shoulder |
| For a _______ the radiographer directs the CR perpendicular to the scapulohumeral joint 2-2 1/2 inches below the top of the shoulder | Scapula Y Lateral- Anterior Oblique Shoulder |
| For a Scapular Y Lateral- Anterior Oblique Shoulder (Trauma), the radiographer directs the CR perpendicular to the scapulohumeral joint _______. | 2 to 2 1/2 inches below top of shoulder |
| For a _______, the radiographer directs the CR 45 degrees caudal centering to the scapulohumeral joint. | AP Apical Oblique Axial Projection- Garth Method (Trauma) |
| For an AP Axial Projection: Clavicle, the radiographer needs to use 10-15 degrees more angle for an asthenic patient. T/F | True |
| For a _______, the radiographer directs the CR to 15 to 30 degree cephalad to mid clavicle. | AP Axial: Clavicle |
| For a _______, the radiographer rotates the average patient's body 45 degrees towards the affected side. | AP Apical Oblique Axial Projection: Garth Method |
| For a _______, the radiographer adjusts the top of the IR about 2 inches above the shoulder and the side of the IR is about 2 inches lateral from the lateral border of the humerus. | Glenoid Cavity |
| The recommended SID for AC joints is 72 inches. T/F | True |
| The radiographer uses a 45 degree cephalad angle for the "Garth" Method. T/F | False |
| For AC joint weight-bearing studies, patients should not be asked to hold on to the weights with their hands; rather the weights should hang from their wrists. T/F | True |
| The use of a grid should be used for shoulders that measure less than 10 cm. T/F | False |
| A SID of 72 inches is recommended for most shoulder girdle studies. T/F | False |
| The coracoids process may be difficult to palpate directly on most patients, but it can be approximated by directing the CR about 2 inches inferior to the lateral portion of the clavicle. T/F | False |
| For the AP Projection: AC Joints "Alexander Method" the radiographer should angle the tube 15 degrees caudad so the CR is centered at the level of the AC Joints. T/F | False |
| For the AP Projection: Scapula the radiographer should gently abduct the arm 90 degrees and pronate the hand. T/F | True |
| A radiograph of an AP Clavicle reveals that the sternal extremity is partially collimated off. What should the technologist do? | Repeat the AP Projection and correct the collimation |
| A patient enters the ER with multiple injuries. The physician is concerned about a dislocation of the left proximal humerus. The patient is unable to stand. Which routine is advisable to best demonstrate this condition? | AP shoulder and Recumbent Scapular Y Lateral -RPO or LPO Oblique Scapular Y Projection |
| Transthoracic Lateral Humerus Exposure Factors | 60 mAs 75kVp |
| AP Humerus Exposure Factors | 6 mAs 70kVp |
| AP External Rotation: Shoulder Exposure Factors | 6 mAs 70kVp |
| AP Scapula Exposure Factors | 7 mAs 75 kVp |
| Posterior (Non trauma) Oblique Position- Garth Method Exposure Factors | 12mAs 75kVp |
| RAO and LAO Scapula Exposure Factors | 13 mAs 75kVp |
| Posterior (Non trauma) Oblique Position- Grashey method Exposure Factors | 7 mAs 75kVp |
| AP AC Joints (Bilateral w and w/out weights) Exposure Factors | 20 mAs 65 kVp |
| AP Projection Neutral Rotation: Shoulder (Trauma) | 6mAs 70kVp |
| ______ is when the distal clavicle is displaced superiorly | Acromioclavicular Dislocation |
| _______ results from reduction in quantity of bone or atrophy of skeletal tissue? | Osteoporosis |
| Because of radiation exposure to the head and neck region, the C-arm should not be placed in the PA projection tube alignment with the patient supine on the table. T/F | False |
| In order to provide the largest field of view and the least dose from scatter radiation to the operator, the image intensifier of the C-arm should be placed. | As close as possible to the patient |
| Which of the following is NOT an essential attribute of a surgical radiographer? | Mastery of essential nursing skills |
| Which of the following methods will best reduce patient dose during a fluoroscopy procedure? | Intermittent (pulse) fluoro |
| What should a technologist do if the sterile environment is violated during a sterile procedure? | Notify a member of the surgical team immediately |
| Which abdominal muscles run on each side and are medial and posterior to the kidneys, causing them to lie 30 degrees posteriorly? | Right and Left Psoas muscles |
| The left kidney is lower/more inferior than the right kidney. T/F | False |
| Total functioning portions of the kidney is the | Renal Parenchyma |
| Which functions are not performed by the urinary system? | Producing and releasing adrenaline |
| Urine will travel from the major calyces to the ______ | Renal Pelvis |
| One of the three constricted points along each ureter is the pelvic brim. the location of this constricted point is: | Where the iliac blood vessels cross over the ureter |
| Which of the following is considered as a contraindication for an IVU procedure? | Anuria |
| Total Capacity of adult bladder | 350 to 500mL |
| Ionic Contrast agents are more expensive than nonionic. T/F | False |
| Nonionic contrast agents create hypertonic condition in the blood plasma as compared with ionic contrast agents. T/F | False |
| What is true with non-ionic types of contrast media? | Low osmolality, inability to dissociate into 2 or more ions and less chance of reaction |
| Which of the following drugs are often given before an IVU to reduce the risk of a contrast media reaction? | Benadryl and Prednisone |
| A vasovagal contrast media reaction can be life threatening. T/F | True |
| Patients (or legal guardians) must sign an informed consent before a venipuncture procedure. T/F | True |
| A medical emergency must be declared if the patient experiences a moderate contrast media reaction. T/F | False |
| Temporary renal failure is classifies as a _______ contrast media reaction | Severe |
| What is the most common size needle used for the bolus injection of contrast agents for an adult patient? | 18 to 22 gauge |
| What is the correct course of action that the technologist should take if the patient experiences a side effect of mild hot flashes and some metallic taste after and injection of contrast. | Reassure and comfort patient. Continue the injection and imaging sequence, while carefully observing the patient. |
| what is the leakage of contrast media from the vein into the surrounding tissue? | Extravasation |
| What is the recommended treatment protocol for extravasation? | Elevate the limb and apply cold compress |
| Where should a tourniquet be applied during a venipuncture? | 3 to 4 inches above |
| What common emergency drug is to be available during an IVU? | Epinephrine |
| What vein is not selected for venipuncture? | Axillary Vein |
| The bevel of the needle must be facing upward during a venipuncture. T/F | True |
| How much angulation is used for an AP Axial Cystogram? | 10 to 15 degrees caudal |
| Ureteric compression is contraindicated for patients with _______. | Abdominal Masses |
| How do you normally introduce contrast media during a retrograde Cystogram? | Gravity flow through catheter |
| What is the recommended position for male retrograde urethrogram? | 30 degrees RPO |
| Generally female patients cannot have gonad shielded during IVU exams (except for nephrotograms or nephrograms)? T/F | True |
| What is the CR location for nephrotograms/nephrograms of kidneys? | Midway between xiphoid tip and iliac crest |
| An LPO position taken during IVU reveals Right Kidney foreshortened and superimposed over spine. What should you do to fix the exam? | Decrease Rotation |
| A radiograph of an AP axial projection taken during a retrograde Cystogram reveals that the floor of the bladder is superimposed over the symphysis pubis, what error led to this finding? | Insufficient CR angulation |
| A patient comes to radiology for an IVU. Nephropetosis is suspected. Which position best demonstrates this? | Erect |
| A patient comes to radiology after surgery of the abdomen for an IVU with ureteric compression. What should the technologist do? | Place the patient into trendelenberg instead |
| A patient comes to radiology for an IVU, lab reports show a creatine level of 0.7 mg/dl, what should the tech do? | Proceed with the study |
| The majority of contrast media reactions are mild. T/F | True |
| A patient arrives for an IVU. The patient has an indwelling catheter in place. How do you proceed? | Clamp the catheter at the start of the procedure and continue |
| What is the appropriate technique range for an AP axial bladder? | 70 to 75 kVp |
| What is the appropriate rotation for an RPO of the bladder during a Cystogram? | 45 degrees |
| IN an RPO the _____ kidney is parallel to the IR while the _______ ureter is projected free of superimposition with the vertebral column. | Left, Right |
| To place the kidney parallel to the IR on most exams, how much rotation should be applied? | 30 degrees |
| Absence of formation of a functioning kidney | Renal agencies |
| Excretion of diminished amount of urine | Oliguria or Hypouresis |
| Act of voiding | Micturition |
| Eruption of hives | Uticaria |
| Passage of a large volume of urine | Polyuria |
| Blood in urine | Hematuria |
| The liver is located primarily in the _______ of the abdomen | RUQ |
| The liver performs more than 100 different functions. T/F | True |
| The main function of bile is to ______. | Emulsify Fats |
| Which aspect of the gallbladder is located most posterior within the abdomen? | Neck |
| Where is bile formed? | Liver |
| What is the primary function of CCK? | stimulates the gallbladder to contract |
| In 40% of all individuals, the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct unite before entering the duodenum. T/F | False |
| What is an older term for the hepatopancreatic sphincter? | Sphincter of Oddi |
| Chole is a prefix for terms pertaining to the ______. | Bile |
| Radiographic exam of the biliary ducts ONLY is termed? | Cholangiography |
| The act of swallowing is called | Deglutition |
| Act of vomiting | Emesis |
| The dilated portion of the distal esophagus is termed _______ | Cardiac antrum |
| Which term describes the outer, lateral border of the stomach? | Greater Curvature |
| Which is termed the longitudinal mucosal folds found within the stomach? | Rugae |
| Toward which aspect of the stomach will barium gravitate with the patient in a prone position? | Body and part of the pylorus |
| Which specific part of the pancreas is adjacent to the C-loop of the duodenum? | Head |
| Once food enters the stomach and is mixed with gastric secretions, it is termed _____ | Chyme |
| Which one of the substances is not digested chemically? | Minerals, nutrients, water |
| Enzymes that aid in chemical digestion are classified as _______ | Biologic catalysts |
| What type of patient would a high and transverse stomach be found in? | Hypersthenic |
| What is the classification of Barium Sulfate as a contrast media? | Radiopaque |
| Which is true of barium sulfate? | It rarely produces an allergic reaction |
| Which of the following clinical indications would require oral, water-soluble contrast agent? | Possible Perforated Bowel |
| What is the most effective cardinal principle of radiation protection during a fluoro exam? | Distance |
| Which of the following devices most reduces gonadal exposure to operator during fluoro? | Bucky Slot cover |
| Which of the following describes a bezoar? | Mass of undigested material |
| What is the most common diagnostic procedure performed to diagnose a hiatal hernia? | Upper GI series |
| HPS is most common form of gastric obstruction in infants. T/F | True |
| Patient prep for an esophagram includes what? | None; patient prep not needed as long as upper GI is not scheduled to follow |
| Most esophagrams begin with patient ______ | Erect |
| Why would a patient undergo the Valsalva Maneuver during an esophagram? | To demonstrate possible esophageal reflux |
| Patient Prep for adult upper GI series | NPO 8 hours prior to procedure |
| Which of the following kVp ranges should be used for an upper GI series using barium sulfate? (single contrast study) | 100-125 kVp |
| Centering of the CR for an esophagram should be to the vertebral level of ______ | T5-T6 |
| How much obliquity is required for an RAO for an esophagram? | 35-40 degrees |
| The RAO position of the esophagram is preferred over the LAO because: | Increases visibility of the esophagus between the vertebrae and the heart |
| Which of these esophagus projections of positions will project the majority of the esophagus over the spine? | AP Esophagus |
| Radiographs taken during an Esophagram using the mixture barium demonstrates that there is very little contrast in the esophagus. What would help? | Have patient drink during the exposure |
| A PA radiograph taken on a Hypersthenic patient during a VGI reveals that the pylorus and duodenal bulb are superimposed. Which modification will fix that? | Angle the tube 35-45 degrees cephalad |
| One radiograph of an upper GI series needs repeating. The fundus is filled with barium and the pylorus and duodenal bulb are profiled and air filled. The patient is recumbent for all projections. Which position needs repeated? | LPO |
| Presence indicates possible sliding hiatal hernia | Schatzki's ring |
| Lucent halo appearance during an Upper GI series | Ulcers |
| Narrowing and wormlike appearance of distal esophagus | Esophageal Varices |
| Irregular filling defect within the stomach | Gastric sarcoma |
| Gastric bubble | Hiatal Hernia |
| Narrowing in distal esophagus | Achalasia |
| Enlarged recess in proximal esophagus | Zenker Diverticulum |
| Speckled appearance and absence of Rugae | Gastritis |
| Which part of the small intestine has a feathery appearance when filled with barium | Jejunum |
| Which part of the small intestine has the widest diameter | Duodenum |
| Which part of the small intestine is the shortest? | Duodenum |
| Which part of the small intestine makes up three-fifths of its entirety? | Ileum |
| Which aspect of the large intestine is located highest, or most superior, in the abdomen? | Left Colic Flexure |
| What structures are considered part of the colon? | Transverse colon, right and left colic flexure |
| Which part of the large intestine is located between the rectum and the descending colon | Sigmoid colon |
| Which part of the large intestine has the widest diameter? | Cecum |
| When are small bowl series deemed complete? | Once the contrast media passes the ileocecal valve |
| The patient must be NPO a minimum of _____ hours before the small bowel series | 8 |
| During initial enema tip insertion, the tip is aimed? | Toward umbilicus |
| The height of the enema bag should not exceed 36 inches above tube at the beginning of the study. T/F | False |
| The CR and IR centering for a 1 hour small bowel radiograph should be _____. | At the level of the iliac crest |
| For an AP Axial Oblique: BE "Butterfly" RAO, the radiographer angles the CR 30-40 degrees caudal. The CR is angled _____. | At the level of the ASIS and 2 inches left of lumbar spinous process |
| How much CR angulation is required for an AP Axial Projection? | 30-40 degrees |
| For an AP Axial Oblique Projection: BE "Butterfly" position LPO, the radiographer directs the CR _______. | 2 inches inferior and 2 inches medial to the right ASIS |
| For the PA Projection- 1 hour: Small Bowel series, the radiographer should have the CR centered to the IR and entering | at the level of the iliac crest |
| For the AP Axial Projection: BE, the radiographer should have the CR centered to the IR ad entering | 2 inches inferior to the level of the ASIS and to MSP |
| For the PA projection: 15 minute: small bowel series, the radiographer should have the CR centered to the IR and entering | 2 inches above the iliac crest |
| For the Lateral Rectum Position BE, the radiographer should have the CR centered to the IR and entering | at the level of the ASIS and MCP (perpendicular to the IR) |
| For the Ventral Decubitus: BE, the radiographer should use a horizontal beam centered to the IR and entering ______ | at the level of ASIS and midway between the ASIS and sacrum |
| For the AP Right Lateral Decubitus Position BE- double contrast, the radiographer has the patient roll into the lateral recumbent position with the right side on the radiolucent pad and direct the horizontal beam _______. | at the level of the iliac crest and MSP |
| For a PA Axial Projection: BE "Butterfly" position, the radiographer angles the CR 30-40 degrees caudad. The radiographer directs the CR to exit _______. | At the level of the ASIS and MSP |
| The radiographer should select the _______kVp range when performing a double contrast colon procedure. | 90-100 |
| The radiographer should select the _______kVp range when performing a single contrast BE procedure. | 100-125 |
| The radiographer should select the ______kVp range when performing a colon procedure using iodinated water-soluble contrast. | 80-90 |
| The radiographer should use ______with the AP Axial Oblique (LPO) Projection: BE. | 6mAs 125kVp |
| The radiographer should use _______with the Left Lateral Decubitus AP. | 6 mAs 90 kVp |
| The radiographer should use _______with the PA Projection- Post Evac | 4 mAs 100 kVp |
| The radiographer should use ______with the Lateral Rectum Position. | 64 mAs 125 kVp |
| Appears as small, barium-filled circular defects that project outward from the colon. | Diverticulum |
| Chronic condition that often develops coin-like ulcers within the mucosal wall. | Ulcerative Colitis |
| Often found 50 to 100 cm proximal to the ileocecal valve. | Meckel's Diverticulum |
| Abnormal gas pattern; "circular staircase" or "herringbone" pattern | Ileus |
| Saclike projections that project inward into the lumen. | Polyps |
| ________ are demonstrated during small bowel series as stacked coins. | Lymphoma |
| Jagged or sawtooth appearance | Diverticula |
| Cobblestone and string sign are common | Chron's Disease |
| A patient comes to radiology for double-contrast BE, cannot lie on side....which replaces a lateral rectum? | Ventral Decubitus |
| While attempting to insert an enema tip into the rectum, the tech experiences resistance. Next step is what? | Have a radiologist insert under fluoro |
| Outpouching of mucosal wall | Diverticula |
| Telescoping of one part of the intestine into another | Intussesception |
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