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Physiology

Final Practice

QuestionAnswer
The body’s thermostat is located in the: hypothalamus.
Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein envelope are called: viruses.
Negative-feedback mechanisms: minimize changes in blood glucose levels. maintain homeostasis. are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature.
Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of: the body trying to maintain homeostasis. a negative-feedback mechanism.
Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations. occurrence distribution transmission
Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease? Environment Stress Lifestyle
Homeostasis can best be described as: a state of relative constancy.
Positive-feedback control systems: accelerate a change.
The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback. positive
Intrinsic control: is sometimes called autoregulation.
The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure? Secondary
Which of the following is not one of the major groups of organic substances in the human body? Salts
What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids? Degree of saturation
A structural lipid found in the cell membrane is a: phospholipid. steroid.
Which energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule does not contain a nucleotide? Creatine phosphate
Prostaglandins and steroids share which of the following characteristics? Both have a ring structure in their molecule.
The basic building blocks of fats are: fatty acids and glycerol.
The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called: dehydration synthesis.
Humans can synthesize 13 of 21 basic amino acids; the remaining 8, which must be included in the diet, are called: essential amino acids.
All of the following substances are organic except: electrolytes.
When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide? Maltose
The element that is present in all proteins but not in carbohydrates is: nitrogen.
The type of lipoprotein associated with “bad” cholesterol and the production of atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels is: LDL
Which of the following is not true of carbohydrates? ALL ARE TRUE: they include substances commonly called sugars. They are the body’s primary source of energy. They are a part of both DNA and RNA.
Sometimes referred to as animal starch, _____ is the main polysaccharide in the body. glycogen
The correct order of the phases of mitosis is: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.
A membrane carrier structure attracts a solute to a binding site, changes shape, and releases the solute on the other side of the cell membrane. This describes the process of: carrier-mediated transport.
Which is not true about the sodium and potassium pump? Sodium moves into the cell and potassium moves out of the cell.
Which of the following is not true of diffusion? Uses cellular energy
All of the following occur as a result of meiosis except: chromosome number remains at 46.
Diffusion of particles through a membrane by means of a carrier molecule is called: facilitated diffusion.
The small water channels in the cell membrane are called: aquaporins
When the chromosomes align themselves across the equator of the spindle fibers, it is characteristic of which phase of mitosis? Metaphase
The pairing of bases of a strand of DNA is obligatory. If a strand of DNA were composed of the base sequence of ATCG, what would be the obligatory sequence of its opposing base pairs? TAGC
Transcription can be best described as the: synthesis of mRNA.
If a sequence of nitrogen bases in nucleic acid were A-U-C-G-A, which of the following would be true about the nucleic acid? It contains ribose sugar.
Two solutions of different concentrations of glucose are separated by a membrane that allows both glucose and water to pass through. When dynamic equilibrium is reached, there will be: an even exchange of material across the membrane.
A sequence of three bases forms a(n): codon.
A DNA molecule is characterized by all of the following except: ribose sugar.
The physical process by which water and solute move through a membrane when a hydrostatic pressure gradient exists across the membrane is the process of: dialysis. filtration.
Which type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate? Epithelial
Which of the following is not a characteristic of smooth muscles? Having intercalated disks
The hypodermis: connects the dermis to underlying tissues.
Which is not a function of epithelial tissue? Assimilation
Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? Connective
Which of the following is not a characteristic of connective tissue? Typically holds its cells together tightly by means of desmosomes
The area referred to as true skin is the: dermis
The type of tissue that contains cells called neurons is called: nervous
Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways. TRUE
Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the stratum: Basale
A condition that is caused by an abnormally increased roundness in the thoracic curvature is kyphosis
Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of _____ years. 35-40
In the epiphyseal plate, the zone of hypertrophy is in the _____ layer. third
In bone formation, the cells that produce the organic matrix are the: osteoblasts
During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the: pelvic outlet.
Bones grow in diameter by the combined action of which two of the three bone cell types? osteoblasts and osteoclasts
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the diaphysis? Provides a bulbous shape for attachment of muscle
The following are functions of bone except for ALL ARE FUNCTIONS: support protection mineral storage hematopoiesis
Young children’s bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone. FALSE
Which of the following is not one of the primary functions performed by bones? hormonal production
The cells responsible for active erosion of bone minerals are called: osteolasts
Because of how the clavicle articulates with the scapula, all shoulder movements involve the sternoclavicular joint. TRUE
When the knee is flexed, the patella can be easily distinguished. FALSE
Hematopoiesis is carried out in the: Red bone marrow
Before childbirth, the symphysis pubis softens. TRUE
Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding heat production? ALL ARE CORRECT: The body temperature set point is established by the hypothalamus. Shivering will increase body temperature. Body temperature functions on a negative-feedback mechanism.
After it is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, the calcium combines with which protein? Troponin
Which of the following terms describes an isometric contraction? Static tension
Glucose can be stored in the muscle as: glycogen
Which joint allows for the widest range of movement? Ball and socket
Skeletal muscles are innervated by: somatic motor neurons.
Kicking a football is accomplished by: extension.
Which joint allows for the most movement? Ball and socket
Which of the following is not a part of the neuromuscular junction? T-tubules
Stretching the foot down and back and pointing the toe is called: plantar flexion.
Tilting the foot upward, decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg, is called: dorsiflexion.
A gliding joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. multiaxial
Which of the following is not an end-product of the breakdown of ATP? An inorganic phosphate Energy that can be used in muscle contraction ADP
The type of movement that occurs when the head is dropped to the shoulder, then to the chest, to the other shoulder, and toward the back is: circumduction
A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes is called a(n) _____ contraction. isotonic
The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct impulses up to approximately _____ meters per second. 130
Which of the following antidepressants acts by blocking the action of monoamine oxidase (MAO)? Phenelzine
Which of the following statements about amino acid neurotransmitters is incorrect? They are all inhibitory neurotransmitters.
Severe depression can be caused by a deficit in certain brain synapses of: Amines
Compared with the outside of the neuron, the inside has a(n) ____ charge. negative
Which is true of an action potential? The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is positively charged.
The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct an impulse that is how much faster than the slowest fibers in the body? 300 times faster
Which of the following is true of spatial summation? Neurotransmitters released simultaneously from several presynaptic knobs converge on one postsynaptic neuron.
For a neurotransmitter to produce an inhibitory postsynaptic potential, which of the following channels must open? Potassium and/or chloride channels
A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane is called a _____ potential. local
Stimulus-gated channels open in response to: sensory stimuli
A synaptic knob would be located on a(n): axon
During a relative refractory period: the action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus.
The only ion(s) that can diffuse across a neuron’s membrane when the neuron is at rest is (are): potassium
Excitatory neurotransmitters are most likely to: initiate an action potential.
The part of the brain that assists in the maintenance of balance is the: cerebellum
The vomiting reflex is mediated by the: medulla
Somatic motor and autonomic pathways share all of the following characteristics except: number of neurons between central nervous system (CNS) and effector.
The part of the brain that can directly influence or inhibit the release of hormones from the pituitary is the: hypothalamus
All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except: increased heart rate.
Which of the following is not an example of sympathetic stimulation? Constriction of the bronchioles
All of the following cranial nerves are involved in proprioception except the: vagus
Which of the following is a description of the principle of autonomic antagonism as it relates to the autonomic nervous system? If sympathetic impulses tend to stimulate an effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to inhibit it.
Sympathetic responses generally have widespread effects on the body because: preganglionic fibers synapse with several postsynaptic fibers.
Tic douloureux is a painful neuralgia of the _____ nerve. trigeminal
Which is not true of the dorsal nerve root? ALL ARE TRUE: It is also called the posterior root. It includes the spinal ganglion. It includes sensory fibers.
A mixed nerve is one that: carries both sensory and motor fibers.
Norepinephrine is liberated at: most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings.
If the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose _____ related to that pathway. sensory perception
Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by filtration of blood in the: choroid plexuses.
Accommodation for near vision necessitates ALL: an increase in the curvature of the lens. constriction of the pupils. convergence of the two eyes.
When a small amount of one hormone allows a second hormone to have its full effect, the phenomenon is called: permissiveness
When you are looking at a large green field, which cones would be sending the green wavelength to the brain? M
The receptors responsible for sensing crude and persistent touch are the: Ruffini corpuscles.
Visceroceptors are located in which of the following? Internal organs
The clear and potassium-rich fluid that fills the labyrinth is endolymph
The production of thyroid hormone is stimulated by another hormone from the: anterior pituitary.
One of the few hormones that functions on a positive-feedback loop is: oxytocin
The sequence of auditory ossicles in the middle ear starting at the tympanic membrane and ending at the oval window is: malleus, incus, and stapes.
All of the following are true statements except: aspirin produces some of its effects by increasing PGE synthesis.
Dynamic equilibrium depends on the functioning of the crista ampullaris.
Movement of hair cells in the organ of Corti against the _____ membrane can stimulate nerve impulse condition. tectorial
Which is not true of the hormone somatostatin? It stimulates the secretion of insulin.
Clearness or sharpness of visual perception is known as: visual acuity
Which of the following statements is not true of the pineal gland? Melatonin is stimulated by the presence of sunlight.
All of the following are true statements except: both atria receive their blood supply from branches of the right and left coronary arteries.
A glycoprotein hormone that is secreted to increase oxygen concentration in the tissues is erythropoietin.
Which are the two baroreceptors that are located near the heart? aortic baroreceptors and carotid baroreceptors
_____ is used to determine the volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood. Hematocrit
The localized pressure gradient needed to maintain blood flow in a tissue is called perfusion pressure.
The term blood type refers to the type of blood cell antigen
The term used to describe the collection of mechanisms that influence the circulation of blood is: hemodynamics
Factors that affect the strength of myocardial contraction are called inotropic factors.
_____, a natural constituent of blood, acts as an antithrombin and prevents clots from forming in vessels. Heparin
In the extrinsic pathway of stage 1 of the clotting mechanism, chemicals released from damaged tissues trigger the cascade of events that ultimately result in the formation of prothrombin activator.
What is the function of the spleen? tissue repair hematopoeisis red blood cell and platelet desctruction blood reservoir
The lymphatic system serves various functions in the body. The two most important functions of this system are fluid balance and immunity.
Which protein interferes with the ability of viruses to cause disease? interferon
Which antibody is synthesized by immature B cells and then inserted into their plasma membranes? immunoglobulin M
Adaptive immunity, part of the body’s third line of defense, is orchestrated by two different classes of a type of white blood cell called the lymphocyte.
Pyrogen molecules trigger the fever response by promoting the production of prostaglandins.
Masses of lymphoid tissue located in a protective ring under the mucous membranes in the mouth and the back of the throat are called tonsils
During their residence in the thymus, pre-T cells develop into _____, cells that proliferate as rapidly as any in the body. thymocytes
Bean-shaped structures located at certain intervals along the lymphatic system are lacteals
Because T cells attack pathogens more directly, T-cell immune mechanisms are classified as _____ immunity. cell-mediated
The _____ postulates that when an antigen enters the body, it selects the clone whose cells are committed to synthesizing its specific antibody and stimulates these cells to proliferate and to thereby produce more antibodies. clonal selection theory
The movement of phagocytes from blood vessels to an inflammation site is called diapedesis.
Which organ has several functions, including defense, hematopoiesis, red blood cell and platelet destruction, and blood reservoir? spleen
Chemotaxis is the process by which a cell navigates toward the source of the chemotactic factor by way of detecting and then moving toward higher concentrations of the factor.
The body’s defense mechanisms can be organized into one of two major categories of immune mechanisms; these are innate and adaptive immunity.
Which of the following helps determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood each minute? ALL: The total functional surface area of the respiratory membrane Alveolar ventilation The oxygen pressure gradient between alveolar air and incoming pulmonary blood
Excessive fluid in the pleural cavity would be most likely to cause: decreased vital capacity.
Boyle’s law states that the volume of a gas varies _____ with pressure at a _____ temperature. inversely; constant
Which of the following constitutes total lung volume? Residual volume and vital capacity
A type of breathing characterized by gradually increasing tidal volume for several breaths followed by several breaths with gradually decreasing tidal volume is: Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
Which of the following is not a means of transporting oxygen in the blood? Combined with the bicarbonate ion (HCO3–)
Which muscles are used for forced expiration? Abdominal muscles and internal intercostals
The approximate partial pressure of oxygen at standard atmospheric pressure is about _____ mm Hg. 160
The symbol HbNCOOH– is used for: carbaminohemoglobin.
If the tidal volume of a given individual is 500 ml, then the anatomical dead space is approximately _____ ml. 150
Which of the following is not true of enzymes? They change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction.
The hormone that stimulates the release of bicarbonate substance from the pancreas is: secretin
The enzyme pepsin begins the digestion of: protein.
The intestinal hormone cholecystokinin: ALL: causes the pancreas to increase exocrine secretions high in enzyme content. opposes the influence of gastrin on gastric parietal cells. stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder.
The hormone that inhibits gastric muscle, slowing passage of food into the duodenum, is called: gastric inhibitory peptide.
The hormone thought to be a messenger causing release of digestive enzymes from the intestinal mucosa is: vasoactive intestinal peptide.
Which blood vessel carries absorbed food from the GI tract to the liver? Portal vein
Which of the following is not one of the openings that must be blocked when food moves from the pharynx into the esophagus? Oropharynx
The substances absorbed into the lymph capillaries are: glycerol and fatty acids.
The process of swallowing is known as: deglutition.
The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is: cholecystokinin.
The process of fat emulsification consists of: breaking fats into small droplets.
Which of the following is a disaccharide? Sucrose
Which step of deglutition is under voluntary control? Oral stage
The sodium cotransport or coupled transport acts to transport sodium ions and glucose molecules _____ the GI lumen. passively out of
In accordance with the physical laws governing filtration and osmosis, which of the following statements is true? Blood colloid osmotic pressure tends to draw fluid back into the capillaries.
What is the most abundant cation in extracellular fluid? Sodium
Which of the following ratios of base bicarbonate to carbonic acid will maintain a normal pH? 20:1
Which of the following is not considered a “transcellular fluid”? Lymph
What is the most abundant cation in intracellular fluid? Potassium
Which of the following would be important in treating metabolic alkalosis? Chloride ions
Which body location is not one that is usually impacted by edema? Kidneys
The regulation of acid-base balance in the body fluids refers to the control of _____ ion concentration. hydrogen
If the blood pH decreases below normal, the kidney tubules secrete _____ urine. more hydrogen ions from blood to
Which of the following is(are) classified as an acid-forming food? Meat, eggs, poultry
Which of the following is not one of the seven basic solutions used for parenteral therapy? Liquid protein
Which of the following would have the greatest concentration of hydrogen ions? pH 2
A decrease in blood pH below normal tends to: stimulate increased respirations.
Edema is defined as abnormally large amounts of fluid in the: intercellular spaces.
When the effective filtration pressure equals zero: no net transfer of water occurs between blood and interstitial fluid.
Testosterone is responsible for producing secondary sex characteristics. TRUE
The opening of the urethra at the tip of the glans is called the: external urinary meatus.
The foreskin in the male is also known as the: prepuce
Which statement is the best explanation of “immune infertility”? Antigen-antibody reaction in males causes destruction of sperm, resulting in infertility.
A high blood concentration of estrogens: stimulates epithelial cells of the endometrium to proliferate.
Which of the following is true of the essential organ in the reproductive system? It produces gametes. It is called the testis in the male. It is called the gonad in both sexes.
The hormone that causes the follicle to rupture and the egg to be expelled is: luteinizing hormone (LH).
The hormone that causes the alveoli of the mammary glands to secrete milk is: prolactin.
What reproductive duct is divided into the head, body, and tail? Epididymis
Which of the following is not a function of the ovary? It produces follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
Created by: csantos008
 

 



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