Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Anatomy & Physiology
Vocabulary for Anatomy and Physiology
| Term | Definition |
|---|---|
| Abdominopelvic Cavity | Body cavity consisting of the abdominal cavity and pelvic cavity. It contains the stomach, liver, pancreas, spleen, gallbladder, kidneys, intestines, and urinary bladder |
| Anabolism | Metabolic pathway that constructs molcules |
| Anatomical Position | Position of the body: standing erect and placing the limbs in a supine position |
| Anatomy | Branch of biology concerned with the structures and parts of organisms |
| Anterior | Towards the front |
| Catabolism | Metabolic pathway that breaks down molecules |
| Caudal (Inferior) | Away from the head |
| CT (Computed Tomography) | Medical imaging technique that uses computer-processed combinations of X-Rays taken from different angles to produce cross-sectional images of a scanned object |
| Cranial Cavity | Cavity within the skull that holds the brain |
| Cranial (Superior) | Towards the head |
| Deep | Far from the surface |
| Development | Process of growth to maturity in a human |
| Differentiation | Process where a stem cell changes into another, more specialized, type of cell |
| Distal | Farther from the point of attachment |
| Dorsal Cavity | Cranial and vertebral cavities, containing the brain and spinal cord |
| Dorsal | Back or upper side |
| Frontal Plane (Coronal Plane) | Vertical plane that divides the body into ventral and dorsal sides |
| Gross Anatomy | Anatomy at the visible level |
| Histology | Anatomy at the microscopic level |
| Homeostasis | State of steady internal conditions maintained by the body |
| Lateral | Away from the middle |
| MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) | Medical imaging technique using magnetic fields and radio waves to generate images of organs |
| Medial | Towards the middle |
| Metabolism | Life-sustaining chemical reactions in organisms that convert food to energy, form macromolecules, and eliminate wastes |
| Negative Feedback | Type of feedback intended to reduce fluctuations in the output, generally to promote stability |
| Normal Range | Range of values deemed safe and stable for a physiologic measurement in a healthy person |
| Nutrient | Substance used by an organism to survive, grow, and reproduce |
| Organ System | Group of organs that work together |
| Organism | Individual that exhibits properties of life |
| Organ | Group of tissues with similar functions |
| Pericardium | Double walled membrane encapsulating the heart |
| Physiology | Branch of biology concerned with the functions and mechanisms of organisms |
| Plane | Flat two dimensional surface that extends infinitely far |
| Positive Feedback | Type of feedback intended to exacerbate the results of an output |
| PET (Positron Emission Tomography) | Medical imaging technique that uses a radioactive tracer to observe metabolic processes |
| Posterior | Towards the back |
| Prone | Body position where the subject lies flat with their chest down |
| Proximal | Closer to the point of attachment |
| Regional Anatomy | Anatomy of a specific area of the body |
| Reproduction | Process by which new organisms are produced from their parents |
| Sagittal Plane | Vertical plane that divides the body into left and right sides |
| Serous Membrane | Membrane that covers organs with an inner layer of viscera and an outer parietal layer |
| Spinal Cavity | Cavity containing the spinal cord |
| Superficial | Towards the surface |
| Supine | Body position where the subject lies flat with their chest up |
| Thoracic Cavity | Cavity protected by the rib cage and containing the cardiovascular, respiratory, and digestive organs |
| Tissue | Group of similar cells that carries out a specific function |
| Transverse Plane | Horizontal plane that divides the body into superior and inferior parts |
| Ultrasonography (Ultrasound) | Medical imaging technique that used high frequency soundwaves |
| Ventral Cavity | Cavity made up of the thoracic cavity and abdominopelvic cavity |
| Ventral | Front or lower side |
| X-Ray | High-energy radiation that can be used to view internal bodily structures |
| Adipose Tissue | Loose connective tissue that makes up body fat |
| Apoptosis | Programmed cell death |
| Areolar Tissue | Loose connective tissue with fibers that are spaced out so interstitial fluid can stay in between them |
| Atrophy | Wasting away of a body part |
| Cardiac Muscle | Type of muscle that is involuntary and striated. It makes up the tissues of the heart |
| Collagen | Protein in the extracellular matrix of connective tissues |
| Connective Tissue | Tissues found in between other tissues everywhere in the body |
| Epithelial Tissue | Tissue that lines the outer surfaces of organs and blood vessels |
| Inflammation | Biological response that results in heat, pain, redness, swelling, and temporary loss of function |
| Mucus | Aqueous secretion produced in the mouth for digestion |
| Myelin | Substance that surrounds axons to insulate them and accelerate electrical impulses |
| Necrosis | Cell injury resulting in premature death of cells |
| Nervous Tissue | Tissue made up of different types of neurons. It is the main component of the nervous system |
| Neuroglia (Glial Cells) | Non-neuronal cells in the nervous system. They produce no electrical impulses, instead maintaining homeostasis, forming myelin, and supporting/protecting neurons |
| Neuron | Cell that communicates with other cells via synapses. They are the main components of nervous tissue |
| Schwann Cell | Main glial cells of the peripheral nervous system |
| Simple Columnar Epithelium | Columnar epithelium with only one layer |
| Simple Cuboidal Epithelium | Cuboidal epithelium with only one layer |
| Simple Squamous Epithelium | Randomly ordered epithelium with only one layer |
| Skeletal Muscle | Type of muscle that is voluntary and striated |
| Smooth Muscle | Type of muscle that is involuntary and non-striated. It makes up the walls of hollow organs and passageways |
| Stratified Columnar Epithelium | Columnar epithelium with multiple layers |
| Stratified Cuboidal Epithelium | Cuboidal epithelium with multiple layers |
| Stratified Squamous Epithelium | Randomly ordered epithelium with multiple layers |
| Acne | Skin disease caused by dead skin cells and oil clogging hair follices |
| Albinism | Absence of pigmentation from skin |
| Bedsore | Localized damage to skin or tissue that occurs over a bony prominence due to long-term pressure |
| Callus | Area of thickened skin formed by repeated friction |
| Dermis | Middle layer of skin |
| Eczema | Group of diseases that cause skin inflammation |
| Epidermis | Outermost layer of skin |
| First-Degree Burn | Burn on the epidermis that heals well and lasts about five to ten days |
| Fourth-Degree Burn | Burn that extends into underlying muscle, fat, and bone. These are painless because they burn through nerve tissue |
| Hair | Protein filament that grows from follicles in the dermis |
| Hypodermis (Subcutaneous Tissues) | Innermost layer of skin |
| Integumentary system | Organ system made of the skin and its appendages. Its purpose is to protect the body from various kinds of damage |
| Keratin | Fibrous proteins that make up hair, nails, and calluses in humans, and feathers, horns, claws, and hooves in animals |
| Melanin | Group of natural pigments found in the skin |
| Melanoma | Type of cancer that develops in the skin, often from moles |
| Scar | Fibrous tissue that replaces normal skin after an injury |
| Sebaceous Gland | Glands that produce the oily substance sebum, which lubricates the hair |
| Second-Degree Burn | Burn that extends partially into the dermis. It is very painful and takes two to three weeks to heal, producing redness and blisters |
| Stratum Basale | Deepest layer of the epidermis |
| Stratum Corneum | Outermost layer of the epidermis |
| Stratum Granulosum | Middle layer of the epidermis |
| Stratum Lucidum | Second outermost layer of the epidermis |
| Stratum Spinosum | Second deepest layer of the epidermis |
| Stretch Mark | Form of scarring that forms during rapid growth |
| Sudoriferous Gland | Sweat gland |
| Third-Degree Burn | Burn that extends through the entire dermis. Healing time is very long and scarring is common |
| Vitamin D | Group of vitamins that increases absorption of calcium, magnesium, and phosphate in the intestines. The major source of this vitamin is a chemical reaction in the epidermis that is dependent on sunlight |
| Vitiligo | Skin condition characterized by patches of skin losing their pigment |
| Articulation | Connection between bones |
| Bone | Rigid organ that is part of the skeleton |
| Cartilage | Elastic tissue that covers the ends of long bones and is a component of the rib cage, ears, nose, and other body parts |
| Closed Reduction | Manipulation of bone fragments without surgical exposure |
| Compact Bone | Hard outer layer of bone |
| Compound Fracture | Fracture where the bone pierces the epidermis |
| Diaphysis | Midsection of a long bone |
| Epiphysis | Rounded ends of a lone bone |
| Flat Bone | Type of bone that provides protection or a surface for muscle attachment, such as the scapulae or sternum |
| Fracture Hematoma | Bleeding inside of a bone due to a fracture |
| Fracture | Partial or complete break of a bone |
| Hematopoiesis | Formation of blood cellular components |
| Irregular Bone | Type of bone that is not flat, long, short, or sesamoid |
| Long Bone | Type of bone that is longer than it is wide |
| Open Reduction | Manipulation of bone fragments that are exposed by dissection |
| Orthopedics | Surgery concerned with the musculoskeletal system |
| Ossification | Formation of bone tissue |
| Osteoblast | Cells that synthesize bone |
| Osteoclast | Cell that breaks down bone |
| Osteogenesis | Disease in which bones lose mass and become fragile |
| Osteoporosis | Disease in which bones lose mass and become fragile |
| Red Marrow | Bone marrow made mostly of red blood cells |
| Remodeling | Removal of mature bone tissue (through resorption) and formation of new bone tissue (through ossification) |
| Resorption | Breaking down of old bone tissues |
| Sesamoid Bone | Type of bone that is embedded within a tendon or a muscle, such as the patella |
| Short Bone | Type of bone that is wider than it is long |
| Skeletal System | Organ system made of bones and joints. It provides structure, support, and protection to the body |
| Spongy Bone | Internal tissue of bones |
| Yellow Marrow | Bone marrow made mostly of fat cells |
| Atlas | Most superior of the cervical vertebra, located in the neck |
| Axial Skeleton | Division of the skeleton consisting of the bones of the head and trunk, such as the skull and vertebral column |
| Axis | Second cervical vertebra, just below the Atlas |
| Brain Case | Upper and back of the skull that protects the brain |
| Calvaria | Roof of the skull |
| Cervical Vertebrae | Seven vertebrae found in the neck, immediately below the skull |
| Carotid Canal | Passageway in the temporal bone through which the carotid artery enters the skull |
| Coccyx | Final segment of the vertebral column. It is the remnant of a vestigial tail |
| Cranium | Part of the skull containing the brain |
| Dens | Small bony projection on the Axis (C2) |
| Facet | Flat area on a bone for articulation or muscle attachment |
| Facial Bones | Fourteen bones that attach to the braincase and form the jaw |
| False Ribs | Ribs that do not directly articulate to the sternum. Eighth to twelfth ribs |
| Floating Ribs | Ribs that are not attached to the sternum. Eleventh and twelfth ribs |
| Glabella | Skin between the eyebrows and above the nose |
| Hyoid Bone | Bone in the anterior midline that does not articulate to any other bone |
| Intervertebral Disc | Disc that lies between vertebrae, allowing for slight movement and functioning as a shock absorber |
| Kyphosis | Roundness of the thoracic spine |
| Lordosis | Inward curvature of the lumbar spine |
| Lumbar Vertebrae | Five vertebrae between the rib cage and pelvis |
| Mandible | Movable bone of the human face. It forms the lower jaw and holds the teeth in place |
| Manubrium | Broad upper part of the sternum |
| Nasal Bone | Bone that forms the bridge of the upper nose |
| Nasal Cavity | Cavity behind the nose in the middle of the face |
| Occipital Bone | Cranial bone of the back and lower skull |
| Orbits | Sockets in the skull that contain the eyes |
| Parietal Bone | Cranial bone of the sides and roof of the skull |
| Rib Cage (Thoracic Cage) | Attachment of ribs to the sternum and vertebrae that encloses the heart and lungs |
| Sacrum | Bone at the base of the spine formed by fused sacral vertebrae. It forms between age eighteen and thirty |
| Scoliosis | Sideways curvature of the spine |
| Skeleton | Collection of bones and joins in the body |
| Skull | Bone that forms the head and jaw |
| Sternum | Flat bone in the chest that connects to the ribs |
| Thoracic Vertebrae | Twelve vertebrae found between the cervical and lumbar vertebrae |
| True Ribs | Ribs that directly articulate with the sternum |
| Vertebral Column | Segmented series of bone separated by intervertebral discs. Replaces the notochord found in chordates |
| Vertebra | Irregular bone found in the spinal column |
| Xiphoid Process | Small cartilage extension of the lower sternum |
| Acetabulum | Cup-shaped cavity where the femur meets with the pelvis |
| Ankle | Where the foot and the leg meet |
| Appendicular Skeleton | Division of the skeleton consisting of bones that support the appendages, such as the limbs, shoulder girdle, and pelvic girdle |
| Arm | Limb made of the shoulder, elbow, and wrist joints |
| Calcaneus | Bone that makes up the heel |
| Carpal Tunnel | Passage that connects the forearm to the hand. The associated syndrome is caused when a flexor tendon swells, narrowing the passage |
| Clavicle | Long bone that is between the scapulae and sternum |
| Elbow | Joint between the upper and lower arms |
| Femur | Strongest and longest bone in the body, found in the thigh |
| Fibula | Leg bone on the lateral side of the tibia |
| Foot | Structure that is connected to the leg by the ankle |
| Forearm | Region of the arm between the elbow and wrist |
| Hallux | Big toe |
| Hand | Structure that is connected to the arm by the wrist |
| Hip Joint | Synovial joint formed between the femur and pelvis at the acetabulum |
| Humerus | Long bone in the arm that connects the scapulae and the bones of the lower arm |
| Ilium | Largest and uppermost part of the hip bone |
| Knee | Joint that connects the thigh with the leg |
| Leg | Structure that rotates around the hip join |
| Metacarpals | Elongated bones in the hand that connect the carpal bones of the wrist to the phalanges of the fingers |
| Metatarsals | Elongated bones in the foot that connect the tarsus of the foot and the phalanges of the toes |
| Patella | Circular bone that covers the knee |
| Pelvis | Bone that makes up the lower part of the trunk between the abdomen and the thighs |
| Phalanges | Bones in the hands and feet that make up the fingers and toes |
| Pollex | Thumb |
| Radius | Longer and larger of the two bones in the forearm |
| Scaphoid | Bone of the wrist that forms the radial border of the carpal tunnel |
| Scapula (Shoulder Blade) | Bone that connects the humerus with the clavicle |
| Talus | Bone in the ankle that transmits the weight of the body from the lower legs to the foot |
| Tarsus | Cluster of bones in the foot that articulates with the metatarsals |
| Thigh | Area between the hip and the knee |
| Tibia | Larger and stronger of the two bones in the leg below the knee |
| Ulna | Shorter and smaller of the two bones in the forearm |
| Abduction | Movement away from the midline |
| Adduction | Movement towards the midline |
| Amphiarthrosis | Joint that permits a slight amount of movement |
| Ball and Socket Joint | Synovial joint in which the ball-shaped surface of one bone fits into a cup-like depression on another bone |
| Biaxial Joint | Joint with two degrees of freedom |
| Circumduction | Rotational movement that occurs in ball-and-socket joints |
| Depression | Movement in an inferior direction |
| Dorsiflexion | Ankle flexion that brings the toes closer to the shin |
| Elevation | Movement in a superior direction |
| Extension | Movement that increases the angle between body parts |
| Fascia | Band of connective tissue that encloses or separates muscles and organs |
| Flexion | Movement that decreases the angle between body parts |
| Hinge Joint | Synovial joint that allows for motion in a single plane |
| Hyperextension | Extension past a joints normal range of motion |
| Hyperflexion | Flexion past a joints normal range of motion |
| Inversion | Motion of the sole of the foot towards the medial plane |
| Joint | Connection between bones which allows for movement |
| Ligament | Connective tissue that connects bones to other bones |
| Meniscus | Cartilage structure that partly divides a joint cavity. Can be found in the knee and wrist joints |
| Pivot Joint | Synovial joint that allows only for rotational motion |
| Plane Joint | Synovial joint that allows only for gliding motion |
| Plantarflexion | Ankle flexion that moves the toes away from the shin |
| Pronation | Rotational movement of the forearm so the palm faces downwards |
| Range of Motion | Distance that a joint can move between full flexion and extension |
| Rotator Cuff | Group of muscles that stabilizes the shoulder and enables its range of motion |
| Saddle Joint | Synovial joint where one bone is concave and one is convex, forming a saddle-like structure with two degrees of freedom |
| Supination | Rotational movement of the forearm so the palm faces upwards |
| Synarthrosis | Joint that permits very little or no movement |
| Synovial Fluid | Viscous fluid found in the cavities of certain joints |
| Synovial Joint (Diarthrosis) | Joints that have a cavity filled with fluid and permit high degrees of motion |
| Tendon | Connective tissue that connects muscle to bone |
| Uniaxial Joint | Joint with one degree of freedom |
| Actin and Myosin | Proteins that participate in muscle contraction |
| Action Potential | Rapid rise and fall of a cells membrane potential, causing adjacent cells to depolarize. Plays a role in cell-to-cell communication |
| Aerobic Respiration | Respiration that requires oxygen to create ATP |
| Anaerobic Respiration | Respiration that does not use oxygen |
| Concentric Contraction | Muscle contraction where the muscle shortens |
| Contractility | Ability for self-contraction in muscle tissues |
| Eccentric Contraction | Muscle contraction where the muscle lengthsn |
| Fibrosis | Formation of connective tissue as a response to damage or injury |
| Hypertrophy | Increase in the volume of an organ due to enlargement of its cells |
| Lactic Acid | Acid produced in the body by fermentation |
| Muscle Tone | Continuous partial contraction of the muscles |
| Abductor | Muscle that draws a limb away from the midline of the body |
| Abdomen | Region of the body between the chest and pelvis |
| Adductor | Muscle that draws a limb towards the midline of the body |
| Adductor Brevis | "Short Adductor." It pulls the thigh medially and stabilizes left to right movements of the trunk |
| Adductor Longus | "Long Adductor." It adducts the thigh and forms the medial wall of the femoral triangle |
| Adductor Magnus | "Great Adductor." It is a large triangular muscle on the medial side of the thigh |
| Agonist | Muscles that cause a movement to occur through their own activation |
| Antagonist | Muscles that produce an opposite force from the agonist muscles that stabilizes or enhances a movement |
| Biceps Brachii | Muscle on the front of the upper arm between the shoulder and the elbow. It is involved in elbow flexion and forearm supination |
| Brachialis | Muscle in the upper arm that flexes the elbow joint and lies deeper than the biceps brachii |
| Brachioradialis | Muscle of the forearm that flexes the forearm at the elbow and is capable of producing both pronation and supination |
| Buccinator | Thin muscle near the mandible involved in chewing and blowing |
| Deltoid | Muscle that forms the rounded contour of the human shoulder. It has an anterior, lateral, and posterior head |
| Diaphragm | Muscle that extends across the bottom of the thoracic cavity and is important in respiration |
| Erector Spinae | Muscles that straighten and rotate the back |
| External Oblique | Largest and outermost of the three flat abdominal muscles |
| Gastrocnemius | Muscle in the calf that is active when the knee is extended |
| Gluteus Maximus | Muscle that is the main extensor of the hip and the largest of the gluteal muscles. It is also the largest muscle in the body |
| Gluteus Medius | Muscle that is situated on the outer surface of the pelvis. It is a broad gluteal muscle |
| Gluteus Minimus | Muscle that is the smallest of the three gluteal muscles |
| Hamstrings | Three posterior thigh muscles in between the hip and knee consisting of the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus muscles |
| Iliacus | Muscle that forms the lateral portion of the iliopsoas |
| Iliopsoas | Joined psoas and iliacus which function as hip flexors |
| Insertion | Point where a muscle attaches and tends to be moved by contraction |
| Internal Oblique | Muscle of the abdomen that lies below the external oblique |
| Latissimus Dorsi | Muscle of the back that stretches to the sides and is partly covered by the trapezius. It is the largest muscle of the upper body |
| Obique | Muscles of the abdomen that are found on the lateral sides of the trunk |
| Origin | Point where a muscle attaches and tends to be more stable during contractions |
| Pectoralis Major | Muscles situated at the chest |
| Pectoralis Minor | Muscle found below the pectoralis major |
| Prime Mover | Muscle that produces the majority of motion during contraction |
| Psoas Major | Muscle that joins the iliacus to form the iliopsoas |
| Quadriceps | Muscle group that includes the four muscles on the anterior thigh consisting of the rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius, and vastus medialis muscles |
| Rectus Abdominis | Muscle that runs vertically on each side of the anterior wall of the abdomen |
| Rhomboids | Muscles with a rhombus shape associated with the scapulae and located under the trapezius muscles |
| Serratus Anterior | Muscle that originates on the surface of the true ribs and inserts along the anterior length of the medial border of the scapula |
| Soleus | Muscle in the calf that is the prime mover when the knee is flexed |
| Synergist | Muscle that helps perform the same motion as the agonist |
| Transversus Abdominis | Muscle layer of the anterior and lateral abdomen which is deep to the internal oblique muscle |
| Trapezius | Muscle that extends from the occipital bone to the lower thoracic vertebrae of the spine and scapula |
| Triceps Brachii | Muscle on the back of the upper arm responsible for elbow extension |
| Autonomic Nervous System | Division of the nervous system that acts unconsciously and regulates bodily functions |
| Axon | Part of the neuron that transmits action potentials to other cells |
| Brain | Organ that serves as the center of the nervous system |
| Central Nervous System | Division of the nervous system consisting of the brain and spinal cord |
| Cerebrospinal Fluid | Clear and colorless fluid found in the brain and spinal cord |
| Chemical Synapse | Junctions through which neurons send signals to non-neuronal cells |
| Dendrite | Part of the neuron that receives action potentials from other neurons |
| Enteric Nervous System | Division of the autonomic nervous system that governs the functionality of the gastrointestinal tract |
| Graded Potential | Change in membrane potential that varies depending on the size of the stimulus |
| Gray Matter | Region of the brain made mostly of cell bodies and few myelinated axons |
| Integration | Nervous system function that combines sensory perceptions and cognitive functions (memory, learning, etc.) to produce a response |
| Myelin Sheath | Layer of insulation surrounding an axon |
| Nerve | Bundle of axons that transmits inputs and outputs to and from the central nervous system |
| Neurotransmitter | Chemical signal release from a synapse to cause a change in a target cell |
| Parasympathetic Nervous System | Division of the autonomic nervous system that is responsible for sexual arousal, salivation, urination, digestion, and defecation |
| Peripheral Nervous System | Division of the nervous system found outside of the cranial and vertebral cavities |
| Response | Nervous system function where a muscle or gland produces an event due to a stimuli |
| Sensation | Nervous system function that receives information from external stimuli and translates it into electrical signals of nervous tissue |
| Soma (Cell Body) | Part of the neuron that contains the nucleus |
| Somatic Nervous System | Division of the nervous system that governs conscious perception, voluntary movement, and skeletal muscle reflexes |
| Spinal Cord | Organ that is connected to the peripheral nervous system through nerves |
| Stimulus | Event outside the body that registers as activity in a neuron |
| Sympathetic Nervous System | Division of the autonomic nervous system that stimulates the fight-flight-or-freeze response |
| Synapse | Structure that enables electrical signals to pass between neurons |
| White Matter | Region of the brain made mostly of myelinated axons and few cell bodies |
| Abducens Nerve | Sixth cranial nerve. Contracts one of the eye muscles |
| Accessory Nerve | Eleventh cranial nerve. Supplies the trapezius and one of the neck muscles |
| Amygdala | Part of the brain in the temporal lobe that is related to memory, emotional behavior, and primal drives like fear and aggression |
| Broca's Area | Part of the brain in the frontal lobe associated with forming speech |
| Brain Stem | Part of the brain that includes the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata |
| Cerebellum | Part of the brain connected to the pons that coordinates muscle movement and balance |
| Cerebral Cortex | Part of the brain consisting of a grey matter cover on the forebrain involved in cognition |
| Cerebral Hemisphere | One half of the bilaterally symmetrical cerebrum |
| Cerebrum | Part of the brain responsible for all voluntary actions. It is the majority of the brain's mass and is divided into hemispheres |
| Cranial Nerves | Twelve nerves connected to the brain that are responsible for sensory or motor functions of the head and neck |
| Facial Nerve | Seventh cranial nerve. Contracts the face muscles and causes saliva productoin |
| Forebrain | Front of the brain |
| Frontal Lobe | Lobe found directly beneath the frontal bone that controls abstract thought and logic |
| Glossopharyngeal Nerve | Ninth cranial nerve. Provides sensation to the tongue |
| Hindbrain | Back of the brain |
| Hippocampus | Part of the brain made of grey matter and found deep in the temporal lobe. It is important for long-term memory function |
| Hypoglossal Nerve | Twelfth cranial nerve. Contracts the muscles of the tongue |
| Hypothalamus | Part of the brain responsible for regulating temperature, appetite, sleep, and other autonomic functions |
| Jugular Veins | Blood vessels that return deoxygenated blood from the head and neck to the lungs |
| Kinesthesia | Sensory perception of movement of the body |
| Limbic System | Structures at the edge of the forebrain and hindbrain associated with emotional behavior and memory formation |
| Medulla Oblongata | Part of the brainstem responsible for autonomic functions like vomiting, sneezing, breathing, and heart rate |
| Midbrain | Middle of the brain |
| Occipital Lobe | Lobe at the back of the brain below the occipital bone that processes visual information |
| Oculomotor Nerve | Third cranial nerve. Contraction of four of the eye muscles |
| Olfactory Nerve | First cranial nerve. Responsible for the sense of smell |
| Optic Nerve | Second cranial nerve. Responsible for visual sensation |
| Parietal Lobe | Lobe at the top of the brain behind the frontal lobe that receives sensory information |
| Plexus | Network of nerves or nervous tissue |
| Pons | Part of the brainstem that conducts signals from the brain into the cerebellum and medulla and contracts facial muscles |
| Proprioceptoin | General perceptions about location and body movement |
| Temporal Lobe | Lobe below the parietal and frontal lobes that processes auditory information |
| Thalamus | Part of the brain that relays information between the cerebrum, spinal cord, and peripheral nervous system |
| Trigeminal Nerve | Fifth cranial nerve. Sensation of the face and contraction of muscles for chewing |
| Trochlear Nerve | Fourth cranial nerve. Contraction of one of the extraocular muscles |
| Vagus Nerve | Tenth cranial nerve. Autonomic control of organs in the thoracic and upper abdominal cavities |
| Vestibulocochlear Nerve | Eighth cranial nerve. Sensations of hearing and balance |
| Amacrine Cell | Cell in the retina that acts as an interneuron, connecting two brain regions |
| Anosmia | Loss of sense of smell |
| Aqueous Humor | Fluid that fills the anterior chamber of the eye |
| Ascending Pathway | Structure that sends sensory information from the periphery to the brain |
| Association Area | Region of the cortex that processes sensory information and generates more complex thoughts |
| Audition | Sense of hearing |
| Capsaicin | Molecule that is the basis for "hot" sensations in spicy food |
| Chemoreceptor | Sensory receptor that responds to chemical stimuli |
| Choroid | Tissue in the wall of the eye that supplies the outer retina with blood |
| Ciliary Body | Structure on the interior of the iris that controls the shape of the lens |
| Circadian Rhythm | Perception of the daily cycle based on retinal activity from sunlight |
| Cochlea | Part of the inner ear involved in hearing |
| Cones | Photoreceptors that provide color vision in bright light |
| Conjunctiva | Membrane on the inner eyelids that covers the surface of the iris |
| Cornea | Fibrous and transparent cover on the eye |
| External Ear | Organ on the side of the head responsible for hearing |
| Exteroceptor | Sensory receptor that responds to external stimuli |
| Extraocular Muscle | One of the six muscles that moves the eye |
| Fovea Centralis | Center of the retina at which visual stimuli is highly focused |
| General Sense | Sensory system distributed throughout multiple organs |
| Gustation | Sense of taste |
| Incus (Anvil) | Ossicle that connects the malleus to the stapes |
| Inner Ear | Structure within the temporal bone that contains organs for hearing and balance |
| Interoceptor | Sensory receptor that responds to internal stimuli |
| Iris | Colored portion of the eye surrounding the pupil |
| Lacrimal Duct | Duct that trains tears into the nasal cavity |
| Lacrimal Gland | Gland that produces tears |
| Lens | Component of the eye that focuses light on the retina |
| Malleus (Hammer) | Ossicle that is attached to the tympanic membrane |
| Middle Ear | Space in the temporal bone where ossicles amplify sound waves |
| Nociception | Sense of pain |
| Olfaction | Sense of smell |
| Olfactory Bulb | Organ that directs the sense of smell |
| Organ of Corti | Structure of the cochlea in which hair cells convert sound waves into electrochemical signals |
| Osmoreceptor | Sensory receptor that responds to changes in bodily fluid concentration |
| Ossicles | Three small bones in the ear that transmit sound to the cochlea |
| Papilla | Bump on the tongue that contains taste buds |
| Photoreceptor | Sensory receptor that responds to light |
| Pupil | Hole at the center of the iris through which light passes into the eye |
| Receptor Cell | Cell that converts stimuli into neural signals |
| Retina | Tissue of the eye that forms visual imagery to be transmitted to the brain |
| Rods | Photoreceptors that function in low-light environments |
| Saccule | Structure of the inner ear that processes changes in vertical acceleration |
| Sclera | White part of the eye |
| Somatosensation | Sense of touch |
| Stapes (Stirrup) | Ossicle that is attached to the inner ear |
| Taste Buds | Structures in a papilla that contain gustation receptors |
| Thermoreceptor | Sensory receptor that responds to temperature |
| Transduction | Changing an environmental stimuli into an electrochemical signal |
| Tympanic Membrane (Eardrum) | Structure that transmits sound from the air to the ossicles of the middle ear |
| Umami | Fifth flavor. Sensitivity to the concentration of amino acids |
| Utricle | Structure of the inner ear that processes changes in horizontal acceleration |
| Vestibule | Structure of the inner ear responsible for a sense of balance and equilibrium |
| Visceral Sense | Sense of your internal organs |
| Vision | Sense of sight |
| Vitreous Humor | Fluid that fills the posterior chamber of the eye |
| Anticholinergic Drug | Drug that interrupts the parasympathetic nervous system |
| Endogenous Chemical | Substance produced within the body |
| Exogenous Chemical | Substance produced outside the body |
| Fight-or-Flight Response | Set of responses in the sympathetic nervous system due to perceived danger |
| Long Reflex | Reflex arc that includes the central nervous system |
| Mydriasis | Dilation of the pupil |
| Reflex Arc | Reflex circuit involving a sensory input, integrating center, and motor output |
| Rest and Digest | Set of functions of the parasympathetic system |
| Short Reflex | Reflex arc that excludes the central nervous system |
| Anterograde Amnesia | Loss of the ability to create new memories |
| Aphasia | Loss of the ability to understand or express speech |
| Ataxia | Loss of voluntary coordination of certain movements |
| Conductive Hearing Loss | Loss of hearing that occurs due to problems along the pathway through the outer ear, tympanic membrane, or ossicles |
| Conjugate Gaze | Motion of both eyes in the same direction concurrently |
| Convergence | Motion of both eyes towards each other |
| Diplopia | Perception of two images of a single object simultaneously |
| Edema | Buildup of fluid in the body's tissue |
| Embolus | Unattached mass that travels through the bloodstream and can clog arteries |
| Episodic Memory | Memory of everyday events |
| Fasciculation (Muscle Twitch) | Small, involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation |
| Fibrillation | Rapid, unsynchronized, and irregular contractions of muscle fibers, such as in the heart |
| Flaccid Paralysis | Loss of muscle tone without obvious causes |
| Gait | Pattern of limb movement |
| Graphesthesia | Ability to recognize writing on the skin by somatosensation |
| Hyperreflexia | Overactive or overresponsive reflexes |
| Hypotonicity | Low muscle tone |
| Hypovolemia | State of decreased intravascular volume caused by a loss of salt and water or a decrease in blood volume |
| Paresis | Weakness or partial loss of voluntary movement |
| Plegia | Complete loss of voluntary movement. Mono- is loss of control over one limb. Hemi- is loss of control over one half of the body. Quadri- is loss of control over all limbs |
| Retrograde Amnesia | Loss of memory access to past events |
| Short-Term Memory | Capacity of memory over a brief period of time |
| Stroke | Poor blood flow to the brain resulting in cell death |
| Wernicke's Area | Part of the brain in which speech comprehension is localized |
| Acromegaly | Disorder where abnormally high levels of growth hormones trigger growth of bones in the face, hands, and feet |
| Adrenal Cortex | Part of the adrenal glands that produces mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids |
| Adrenal Glands | Small glands near the top of the kidneys. They have two parts: a cortex and a medulla |
| Adrenal Medulla | Part of the adrenal glands that produces epinephrine and norepinephrine |
| Adrenaline (Epinephrine) | Hormone made by the adrenal glands. It is involved in the fight or flight response |
| Alpha Cell | Cells in the pancreas that produce glucagon |
| Beta Cell | Cells in the pancreas that produce insulin |
| Delta Cell | Cells in the stomach, pancreas, and intestines that produce somatostatin |
| Diabetes Mellitus | Disorder caused by the dysfunction of beta cells in the pancreas or high insulin resistance that results in high levels of blood glucose |
| Downregulation | Decrease in the number of hormone receptors in response to excessive levels of a hormone |
| Endocrine Gland | Gland with no ducts that secretes hormones into the blood |
| Endocrine System | Organ system that secretes hormones into the bloodstream |
| Estrogen | Female sex hormone important for the development of the female reproductive tract and secondary sex characteristics |
| Exocrine Gland | Gland with ducts that secretes hormones onto the skin |
| Gigantism | Disorder where abnormally high levels of growth hormone causes excessive growth |
| Glucagon | Hormone that stimulates the catabolism of glycogen to glucose, thereby raising blood glucose levels |
| Goiter | Enlargement of the thyroid due to iodine deficiency or hyperthyroidism |
| Growth Hormone | Hormone that promotes tissue building |
| Hormone Receptor | Protein that binds to a hormone in a cell |
| Hormone | Secretion of an endocrine gland that travels in the bloodstream to induce a response in target cells |
| Hyperglycemia | Abnormally high blood glucose levels |
| Hypoglycemia | Abnormally low blood glucose levels |
| Hyperthyroidism | Elevated levels of the thyroid hormone. Causes an increased metabolic rate, excess body heat, sweating, diarrhea, weight loss, and increased heart rate |
| Hypothyroidism | Low levels of the thyroid hormone. Causes a low metabolic rate, weight gain, cold extremities, constipation, and reduced mental activity |
| Insulin | Hormone of the pancreas that promotes cellular uptake of glucose |
| Leptin | Hormone secreted by adipose tissue in response to food consumption that promotes satiety |
| Melatonin | Hormone that is secreted in response to low light, causing drowsiness |
| Norepinephrine | Hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla in response to short term stress |
| Oxytocin | Hormone secreted by the hypothalamus that stimulates milk ejection during breastfeeding and feelings of attachment |
| Pancreas | Organ with endocrine and exocrine functions that is important for the regulation of blood glucose |
| Pancreatic Islets | Clusters of cells on the pancreas with endocrine functions |
| Pineal Gland | Gland in the brain that produces melatonin |
| Pituitary Gland | Gland suspended from the hypothalamus that secretes many different hormones |
| Progesterone | Female sex hormone important in regulating the reproductive cycle and maintaining pregnancy |
| Prolactin | Hormone that promotes development of the mammary glands and production of breast milk |
| Somatostatin (GHIH) | Hormone that inhibits growth hormones |
| Testosterone | Male sex hormone that develops the male reproductive system and secondary sex characteristics |
| Thyroid | Endocrine gland that produces hormones involved in metabolism |
| Upregulation | Increase in the number of hormone receptors in response to reduced levels of a hormone |
| ABO Blood Group | Blood-type classification based on the presence or absence of A and B glycoproteins |
| Agglutination | Clustering of cells linked by antibodies |
| Albumin | Abundant plasma protein that accounts for most of the osmotic pressure of plasma |
| Anemia | Deficiency of red blood cells or hemoglobin |
| Anticoagulant | Substance that opposes coagulation |
| B Lymphocytes | Lymphocytes that produce antibodies and provide specific immunity |
| Biliverdin | Green bile pigment produced when the non-iron portion of heme is degraded into a waste product |
| Blood | Liquid connective tissue composed of formed elements and plasma |
| Bone Marrow Biopsy | Diagnostic test of a sample of red bone marrow |
| Bone Marrow Transplant | Treatment in which a donor's healthy bone marrow replaces diseased or damaged bone marrow of a patient |
| Clotting Factors | Group of twelve substances active in coagulation |
| Coagulation (Clotting) | Formation of a blood clot |
| Cross Matching | Blood test that identifies blood type using antibodies and small samples of blood |
| Diapedesis | Process by which white blood cells squeeze through adjacent cells in a blood vessel wall to enter tissues |
| Embolism | Lodging of an embolus inside a blood vessel |
| Embolus | Mass that has broken from the blood vessel wall and entered circulation |
| Erythrocyte (Red Blood Cell) | Mature blood cell composed mostly of hemoglobin that transports oxygen and carbon dioxide |
| Ferritin | Protein-containing form of iron found in the bone marrow, liver, and spleen |
| Fibrin | Insoluble protein that forms the structure of a blood clot |
| Formed Elements | Cellular components of blood, such as the red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets |
| Globin | Heme-containing protein that is a constituent of hemoglobin |
| Heme | Red, iron-containing pigment to which oxygen binds in hemoglobin |
| Hemolysis | Destruction of red blood cells and the release of their hemoglobin into circulation |
| Hemophilia | Genetic disorder characterized by the inadequate synthesis of clotting factors |
| Hemopoiesis | Production of the formed elements of blood |
| Hemorrhage | Excessive bleeding |
| Hemostasis | Physiological process by which bleeding is stopped |
| Hypoxemia | Below-normal level of oxygen saturation of blood |
| Leukemia | Cancer involving the white blood cells |
| Leukocyte (White Blood Cell) | Colorless, nucleated blood cell that protects the body from disease |
| Lymphoma | Form of cancer in which masses of malignant T or B lymphocytes collect in the lymph nodes or other tissues |
| Lymphocyte | Subtype of a white blood cell that includes natural killer cells, T cells, and B cells |
| Natural Killer Cells | Lymphocytes that provide generalized, nonspecific immunity |
| Oxyhemoglobin | Molecule of hemoglobin to which oxygen is bound |
| Plasma | Extracellular matrix in blood composed of water that circulates the formed elements throughout the cardiovascular system |
| Rh Blood Group | Blood-type classification based on the presence or absence of the antigen Rh on the surface of erythrocytes |
| Serum | Blood plasma that does not contain clotting factors |
| Sickle Cell Anemia | Inherited blood disorder in which hemoglobin molecules are malformed, leading to the breakdown of red blood cells into a sickle shape |
| T Lymphocytes | Lymphocytes that provide cellular-level immunity by physically attacking diseased cells |
| Thrombocytes (Platelets) | One of the formed elements of blood. Involved in coagulation |
| Thrombosis | Excessive clot formation |
| Universal Donor | Individual with type O- blood |
| Universal Recipient | Individual with type AB+ blood |
| Vascular Spasm | Initial step in hemostasis, in which the smooth muscle in the walls of the ruptured or damaged blood vessel contracts |
| Afterload | Pressure that the heart must work against to eject blood during systole |
| Anastomosis | Connection or opening between two blood vessels |
| Artificial Pacemaker | Device that transmits electrical signals to the heart to ensure proper contraction and pumping of blood |
| Atrioventricular Valve | One-way valve located between the atria and ventricles. The right is called the tricuspid valve, while the left is the bicuspid valve |
| Atrium | Upper or receiving chamber of the heart that pumps blood into the lower chambers prior to contraction. The right receives blood from the systemic circuit. The left receives blood from the pulmonary circuit. |
| Aorta | Main and largest artery that pumps oxygenated blood throughout the entire body |
| Bicuspid Valve | Valve located between the left atrium and ventricle. It consists of two flaps of tissue |
| Cardiac Plexus | Complex network of nerve fibers near the base of the heart that receives sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulations to regulate the heart |
| Cardiac Reflexes | Series of autonomic reflexes that enable the cardiovascular centers to regulate heart function based upon sensory stimuli |
| Coronary Arteries | Branches of the aorta that supply blood to the heart, feeding the atriums and ventricles |
| Diastole | Period of time when the heart muscle is relaxed and the chambers fill with blood |
| Electrocardiogram | Recording of the electrical activity of the heart that can be used for diagnosis of irregular heart function |
| Endocardium | Innermost layer of the heart wall. It lines the heart chambers and valves, and is composed of endothelium |
| Endothelium | Layer of smooth, simple, squamous epithelium that lines the endocardium and blood vessels |
| Epicardium | Outermost layer of the heart |
| Heart Block | Interruption in the normal conduction pathway of the heart |
| Heart Bulge | Prominent feature on the anterior surface of the heart, reflecting early cardiac development |
| Heart Rate | Number of times the heart contracts per minute |
| Heart Sounds | Sounds heard with a stethoscope of the closing of the atrioventricular valves ("lub") and semilunar valves ("dub") |
| Murmur | Unusual heart sound |
| Myocardium | Thickest layer of the heart. It is made of cardiac muscle cells and collagenous fibers |
| Pacemaker | Cluster of myocardial cells that regulates heart rate |
| Pericardial Cavity | Cavity surrounding the heart filled with a lubricating fluid that reduces friction as the heart contracts |
| Pericardium | Membrane that separates the heart from other structures. It consists of two fused sublayers |
| Preload | Stretch experienced by the cardiac muscles during diastole |
| Pulmonary Arteries | Artery that carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs |
| Pulmonary Circuit | Blood flow to and from the lungs |
| Pulmonary Trunk | Large arterial vessel that carries blood ejected from the right ventricle and divides into the left and right pulmonary arteries |
| Pulmonary Veins | Veins that carry highly oxygenated blood into the left atrium |
| Septum | Partition that divides the chambers of the heart |
| Systemic Circuit | Blood flow to and from nearly all of the tissues of the body |
| Systole | Period of time when the heart muscle is contracting |
| Target Heart Rate | Range in which the heart and lungs receive maximum benefit from aerobic exercise |
| Tricuspid Valve | Valve located between the right atrium and ventricle. It consists of three flaps of tissue |
| Valve | Specialized structure within the heart or vessels that ensures one-way flow of blood |
| Ventricle | Lower or pumping chamber of the heart. The left ejects blood into the systemic circuit via the aorta. The right ejects blood into the pulmonary circuit via the pulmonary trunk. |
| Adrenal Artery | Artery that supplies the adrenal glands |
| Adrenal Vein | Vein that drains the adrenal glands |
| Anaphylactic Shock | Type of shock that follows a severe allergic reaction |
| Arteriole | Very small artery that leads to a capillary |
| Artery | Blood vessel that conducts blood away from the heart |
| Blood Flow | Movement of blood through a vessel, tissue, or organ. Expressed in volume per unit of time |
| Blood Islands | Masses of developing blood vessels and formed elements |
| Blood Pressure | Force exerted by the blood against the wall of a vessel of heart chamber |
| Bronchial Artery | Artery that provides oxygenated blood to the lungs |
| Capacitance | Ability of a vein to store blood |
| Capillary | Smallest type of blood vessel, where physical exchange occurs between the blood and tissue cells |
| Cardiogenic Shock | Type of shock that results from the inability of the heart to maintain cardiac output |
| Carotid Artery | One of two arteries that supplies the head and neck with oxygenated blood |
| Compliance | Degree to which a blood vessel can stretch |
| Diastolic Pressure | Lower number recorded when measuring arterial blood pressure |
| Digital Arteries | Arteries that supply blood to the fingers and toes |
| Digital Veins | Veins that drain the fingers and toes of deoxygenated blood |
| Esophageal Artery | Artery that supplies blood to the esophagus |
| Esophageal Vein | Vein that drains the inferior portions of the esophagus |
| Femoral Artery | Artery that supplies the thigh and leg |
| Femoral Vein | Vein that drains the thigh and leg |
| Filtration | Movement of material from a capillary into the interstitial fluid |
| Genicular Artery | Branch of the femoral artery that supplies the knee |
| Gonadal Artery | Branch of the abdominal artery that supplies the reproductive organs |
| Gonadal Vein | Vein that drains the reproductive organs |
| Hypertension | Chronic blood pressure measurements of 140/90 mmHg or above |
| Hypervolemia | Abnormally high levels of blood |
| Hypovolemia | Abnormally low levels of blood |
| Hypoxia | Lack of oxygen supply to the tissues |
| Ischemia | Insufficient blood flow to the tissues |
| Jugular Vein | Vein that drains the head |
| Korotkoff Sounds | Noises created by blood flow through the vessels |
| Lumbar Arteries | Arteries that supply the spinal cord and lumbar region |
| Lumbar Veins | Veins that drain the spinal cord and lumbar region |
| Microcirculation | Blood flow through the capillaries |
| Ophthalmic Artery | Artery that supplies the eyes |
| Perfusion | Distribution of blood into the capillaries |
| Pericardial Artery | Artery that supplies the pericardium |
| Phrenic Vein | Vein that drains the diaphragm |
| Plantar Vein | Vein that drains the foot |
| Pulse | Alternating expansion and contraction of an artery as blood moves through the vessel |
| Resistance | Any condition that slows or counteracts blood flow |
| Sepsis | Condition where the body's immune response causes damage to its own organs and tissues |
| Septic Shock | Type of shock that results from sepsis-induced hypotension |
| Shock | Life-threatening medical condition in which the circulatory system cannot supply enough blood to provide adequate oxygen and other nutrients |
| Splenic Artery | Artery that supplies the spleen |
| Trunk | Large vessel that gives rise to smaller vessels |
| Vasoconstriction | Constriction of smooth muscle of a blood vessel |
| Vasodilation | Relaxation of smooth muscle of a blood vessel |
| Vein | Blood vessel that conducts blood towards the heart |
| Active Immunity | Immunity developed from a person's own immune system |
| Acute Inflammation | Inflammation occurring for a limited period of time |
| Antibody | Antigen-specific protein secreted by plasma cells that neutralizes pathogens |
| Antigen | Molecule whose presence in the body triggers the immune response |
| Barrier Defenses | Antipathogen defenses deriving from a physical barrier that prevents pathogens from entering the body |
| Bone Marrow | Tissue found inside the bones. It is the site of all blood cell differentiation and maturation of B lymphocytes |
| Chronic Inflammation | Inflammation occurring for a long period of time |
| Chyle | Lipid-rich lymph inside the lymphatic capillaries of the small intestine |
| Early Induced Immune Response | Proteins stimulated during the first several days of an infection |
| Graft-versus-Host Disease | Disease that can occur after a bone marrow transplant where transplanted cells mount an immune response against the recipient |
| Histamine | Substance that is involved in the inflammatory response |
| Immune System | Series of barriers, cells, and soluble mediators that combine to respond to the presence of pathogens in the body |
| Inflammation | Basic immune response characterized by heat, redness, pain, and swelling |
| Innate Immune Response | Rapid but nonspecific immune response |
| Interferons | Proteins made in virally infected cells that cause nearby cells to make antiviral proteins |
| Lymph Node | Organ associated with the lymphatic vessels |
| Lymphatic System | Network of lymphatic vessels, lymph nodes, and ducts that carries lymph from the tissues and back to the bloodstream |
| Lymph | Fluid found in the lymphatic system |
| Neutralization | Inactivation of a virus by the binding of a specific antibody |
| Passive Immunity | Transfer of immunity to a person that lacks immunity. Usually done by the injection of antibodies |
| Phagocytosis | Movement of material from the outside to the inside of the cells |
| Sensitization | First exposure to an antigen |
| Spleen | Secondary lymphoid organ that filters pathogens from the blood and removes damaged red blood cells |
| Thymus | Primary lymphoid organ that produces T lymphocytes |
| Tonsils | Lymphoid nodule that is often removed in adolescence |
| Acclimatization | Adjusting of the respiratory system to high altitudes |
| Acute Mountain Sickness | Condition caused by acute exposure to high altitude due to a low partial pressure of oxygen |
| Alveolar Duct | Small tube that leads from the terminal bronchiole to the respiratory bronchiole and is the point of attachment for alveoli |
| Alveolar Macrophage | Immune system cell of the alveolus that removes debris and pathogens |
| Alveolar Pore | Opening that allows airflow between neighboring alveoli |
| Alveolar Sac | Cluster of alveoli |
| Alveolus | Small, grape-like sac that performs gas exchange in the lungs |
| Anatomical Dead Space | Air space present in the airway that never reaches the alveoli and therefore never participates in gas exchange |
| Apex | Tip of the external nose |
| Atmospheric Pressure | Amount of force that is exerted by gases in the air surrounding any givensurface |
| Bohr Effect | Inverse relationship between blood acidity and oxygen dissociated from hemoglobin |
| Bridge | Portion of the external nose near the nasal bones |
| Bronchial Tree | Collective name for the branches of the bronchi and bronchioles of the respiratory system |
| Bronchiole | Branches of bronchi that are one millimeter or less in diameter |
| Bronchoconstriction | Decrease in the size of the bronchiole |
| Bronchodilation | Increase in the size of the bronchiole |
| Bronchus | Tube connected to the trachea that branches into many subsidiaries and provides a passageway for air to enter and leave the lungs |
| Cardiac Notch | Indentation on the surface of the left lung that allows space for the heart |
| Central Chemoreceptor | One of the specialized receptors that sense changes in chemical concentrations in the brain |
| Diaphragm | Sheet of skeletal muscle along the bottom of the thoracic cavity that can create pressure in the lungs |
| Dorsum Nasi | Intermediate portion of the external nose that connects the bridge to the apex and is supported by the nasal bone |
| Epiglottis | Leaf-shaped piece of cartilage on the larynx that closes the trachea after swallowing |
| Exhalation (Expiration) | When air leaves the lungs |
| External Nose | Region of the nose that is visible to an observer |
| External Respiration | Gas exchange that occurs in the alveoli |
| Glottis | Opening between the vocal folds through which air passes when producing speech |
| Haldane Effect | Relationship between the partial pressure of oxygen and the affinity of hemoglobin to bind to carbon dioxide |
| Hilum | Concave structure on the lungs where blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, nerves, and a bronchus enter the lung |
| Hyperpnea (Deep Breathing) | Increased volume of air during breathing |
| Hyperventilation | Increased ventilation rate that leads to abnormally low blood carbon dioxide levels and high alkaline blood pH |
| Inhalation (Inspiration) | When air enters the lungs |
| Internal Respiration | Gas exchange that occurs at the level of body tissues |
| Laryngeal Prominence | Scientific name for the "Adam's apple" |
| Larynx (Voicebox) | Cartilaginous structure that produces the voice, prevents food from entering the trachea, and regulates the volume of air that enters and leaves the lungs |
| Lung | Organ of the respiratory system that performs gas exchange |
| Naris (Nostril) | Opening of the nose |
| Nasal Bone | Bone of the skull that lies under the root and bridge of the nose |
| Nasal Septum | Wall of bone and cartilage that separates the right and left nasal cavities |
| Pharynx | Part of the throat behind the mouth and above the esophagus and larynx. It is involved in respiration, digestion, and speech |
| Pulmonary Plexus | Network of nervous system fibers found near the hilum |
| Quiet Breathing | Breathing that occurs at rest and does not require cognitive thought |
| Respiratory Cycle | One sequence of inhalation and exhalation |
| Respiratory Rate | Total number of breaths per minute |
| Respiratory Volume | Amount of air within the lungs at a given time |
| Respiratory Zone | Structures of the respiratory system that are directly involved in gas exchange |
| Root | Part of the external nose between the eyebrows |
| Tidal Volume | Amount of air that enters the lungs during quiet breathing |
| Total Lung Capacity | Total amount of air that can be held in the lungs |
| Trachea (Windpipe) | Tube of cartilaginous rings that connects the bronchi and the larynx. It provides a route for air to enter and exit the lung |
| True Vocal Cord | One of the pair of folded membranes that oscillate as air passes through to produce sound |
| Ventilation | Movement of air into and out of the lungs. Consists of inhalation (inspiration) and exhalation (expiration) |
| Absorption | Passage of digested products from the intestines into the bloodstream |
| Accessory Digestive Organ | Teeth, tongue, salivary glands, gallbladder, liver, and pancreas |
| Accessory Duct | Duct that runs from the pancreas into the duodenum |
| Acinus | Cluster of epithelial cells in the pancreas that secretes pancreatic juice into the organ; in general, refers to any cluster of cells that resembles a "berry" |
| Alimentary Canal | Muscular digestive tube that extends from the mouth to the anus; also referred to as the digestive tract or gastrointestinal tract |
| Anal Canal | Final segment of the large intestine |
| Anal Column | Long fold of mucosa in the anal canal |
| Appendix | Coiled tube attached to the cecum; once considered to be a vestigial organ |
| Ascending Colon | First region of the colon |
| Bacterial Flora | Bacteria in the large intestine |
| Bile | Alkaline solution produced by the liver; it is important for the emulsification of lipids |
| Bilirubin | Main bile pigment; responsible for the brown color of feces |
| Body | Mid-portion of the stomach |
| Bolus | Mass of chewed food |
| Canine | Pointed tooth used for tearing and shredding food; also called a cuspid; there are two upper and two lower ones |
| Cecum | Pouch forming the beginning of the large intestine; it receives chyme from the ileum, and connects to the ascending colon of the large intestine |
| Cementum | Bone-like tissue covering the root of a tooth |
| Central Vein | Vein that receives blood from hepatic capillaries |
| Cephalic Phase | Initial phase of gastric secretion that occurs before food enters the stomach |
| Chemical Digestion | Enzymatic breakdown of food |
| Chyme | Soupy liquid created when food is mixed with digestive juices |
| Colon | Part of the large intestine between the cecum and the rectum |
| Crown | Portion of a tooth visible superior to the gum line |
| Cystic Duct | Duct through which bile drains and enters the gallbladder |
| Deciduous Tooth | One of twenty "baby teeth" |
| Defecation | Elimination of undigested substances from the body in the form of feces |
| Deglutition | Three-stage process of swallowing |
| Dens | Scientific word for tooth |
| Dentin | Bone-like tissue immediately deep to the enamel of the crown or cementum of the root |
| Dentition | Whole set of teeth |
| Descending Colon | Part of the colon between the transverse colon and the sigmoid colon |
| Duodenal Gland | Mucous-secreting gland in the duodenal submucosa |
| Duodenum | First part of the small intestine, which starts at the pyloric splinter and ends at the jejunum |
| Enamel | Covering of the dentin on the crown of a tooth |
| Esophagus | Muscular tube that runs from the pharynx to the stomach |
| Feces | Semisolid waste product of digestion |
| Flatus | Gas in the intestine |
| Gallbladder | Accessory digestive organ that stores and concentrates bile |
| Gastric Emptying | Process by which mixing waves gradually cause the release of chyme into the duodenum |
| Gastric Gland | Gland in the stomach that produces gastric juice |
| Gastric Phase | Phase of gastric secretion that begins when food enters the stomach |
| Gastric Pit | Narrow channel formed by the epithelial lining of the stomach mucosa |
| Gastrin | Peptide hormone that stimulates secretion of hydrochloric acid and gut motility |
| Gingiva | Scientific term for gums |
| Hepatic Artery | Artery that supplies oxygenated blood to the liver |
| Hepatic Portal Vein | Vein that supplies deoxygenated nutrient-rich blood to the liver |
| Hepatic Sinusoid | Blood capillaries between rows of hepatocytes that receive blood from the hepatic portal vein and the branches of the hepatic artery |
| Hepatic Vein | Vein that drains into the inferior vena cava |
| Hepatocytes | Major functional cells of the liver |
| Hydrochloric Acid | Digestive acid secreted by parietal cells in the stomach |
| Ileum | End of the small intestine between the jejunum and the large intestine |
| Incisor | Midline, chisel-shaped tooth used for cutting into food; they are the front teeth, two on each side, top and bottom. |
| Ingestion | Taking food into the gastrointestinal tract through the mouth |
| Intestinal Juice | Mixture of water and mucus that helps absorb nutrients from chyme |
| Intestinal Phase | Phase of gastric secretion that begins when chyme enters the intestine |
| Jejunum | Middle part of the small intestine between the duodenum and the ileum |
| Labium | Scientific term for the lip |
| Lactase | Enzyme that breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose |
| Large Intestine | Terminal portion of the gastrointestinal tract |
| Liver | Largest gland in the body; its main digestive functions are the production of bile, synthesis of some proteins, and detoxification of metabolites |
| Maltase | Enzyme that breaks down maltose into glucose |
| Mass Movement | Long, slow, peristaltic wave in the large intestine |
| Mastication | Scientific term for chewing |
| Mechanical Digestion | Chewing, mixing, and segmentation that prepares food for chemical digestion |
| Molar | Tooth used for crushing and grinding food; they are large and flat, found at the back of the mouth |
| Motility | Movement of food through the gastrointestinal tract |
| Mucosa | Innermost lining of the gastrointestinal tract |
| Oral Cavity | Scientific term for the mouth |
| Orval Vestibule | Part of the mouth bounded externally by the cheeks and lips, and internally by the gums and teeth |
| Pancreas | Accessory digestive organ that secretes pancreatic juice |
| Parietal Cell | Gastric gland cell that secretes hydrochloric acid |
| Parotid Gland | One of a pair of major salivary glands located inferior and anterior to the ears |
| Peristalsis | Muscular contractions and relaxations that propel food through the gastrointestinal tract |
| Permanent Tooth | One of the thirty two adult teeth |
| Portal Triad | Bile duct, hepatic artery branch, and hepatic portal vein branch |
| Premolar | Transitional tooth used for chewing, crushing, and grinding food; also called a bicuspid; they are found between the canines and the molars |
| Pulp | Deepest portion of a tooth, containing nerve endings and blood vessels |
| Rectum | Final part of the large intestine, between the sigmoid colon and the anal canal; it temporarily stores fecal matter |
| Root | Portion of a tooth embedded beneath the gum line |
| Salivary Amylase | Digestive enzyme in saliva that acts on starch |
| Salivary Gland | Exocrine gland that secretes saliva |
| Saliva | Aqueous solution of proteins and ions secreted into the mouth |
| Salivation | Secretion of saliva |
| Segmentation | Alternating contractions and relaxations of non-adjacent segments of the intestine that move food forward and backward, breaking it apart and mixing it with digestive juices |
| Sigmoid Colon | End portion of the colon, which terminates at the rectum |
| Small Intestine | Section of the gastrointestinal tract where most digestion and absorption occurs |
| Stomach | Digestive organ that contributes to chemical and mechanical digestion of food from the esophagus before releasing it as chyme to the small intestine |
| Sucrase | Enzyme that breaks down sucrose into glucose and fructose |
| Tongue | Accessory digestive organ of the mouth composed of skeletal muscle |
| Transverse Colon | Part of the colon between the ascending and descending colon |
| Valsalva's Maneuver (Valsalva Technique) | Voluntary contraction of the diaphragm and abdominal wall muscles and closing of the glottis, which increases intra-abdominal pressure and facilitates defecation |
| Voluntary Phase | Initial phase of deglutition, in which the bolus moves from the mouth to the oropharynx |
| ATP Synthase | Protein complex that creates ATP |
| Absorptive State | Metabolic state in which the body is digesting food and absorbing nutrients; occurs during the first few hours after ingesting food |
| Anabolic Hormones | Hormones that stimulate the synthesis of new, larger molecules |
| Anabolic Reactions | Reactions that build smaller molecules into larger molecules |
| Basal Metabolic Rate | Amount of energy expended by the body at rest |
| Bile Salts | Salts that are released from the liver in response to lipid ingestion and surround the insoluble triglycerides to aid in their conversion to monoglycerides and free fatty acids |
| Body Mass Index | Relative amount of body weight compared to overall height; 18 to 24.9 is normal weight; 25 to 29.9 is overweight; greater than 30 is obese |
| Calorie | Unit that measures the energy content of food |
| Catabolic Hormones | Hormones that stimulate the breakdown of large molecules |
| Catabolic Reactions | Reactions that break down larger molecules into their constituent parts |
| Cellular Respiration | Production of ATP from glucose oxidation via glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation |
| Gluconeogenesis | Process of glucose synthesis from pyruvate and other molecules |
| Glycogen | Form that glucose assumes when it is stored |
| Glycolysis | Series of metabolic reactions that break down glucose into pyruvate and produce ATP |
| Insulin | Hormone secreted by the pancreas that stimulates the uptake of glucose into the cells |
| Krebs Cycle (Citric Acid Cycle) | Converts pyruvate into CO2 and high-energy FADH2, NADH, and ATP molecules |
| Ketone Bodies | Alternative source of energy when glucose is limited, created when too much acetyl CoA is made during fatty acid oxidation |
| Lipogenesis | Synthesis of lipids that occurs in the liver or adipose tissues |
| Lipolysis | Breakdown of triglycerides into glycerol and fatty acids |
| Metabolic Rate | Amount of energy consumed minus the amount of energy expended by the body |
| Metabolism | Sum of all catabolic and anabolic reactions that take place in the body |
| Minerals | Inorganic compounds required by the body to ensure proper function |
| Monosaccharide | Smallest, monomeric sugar molecule |
| Polysaccharide | Complex carbohydrates made up of many monosaccharides |
| Postabsorptive State | Metabolic state occurring after digestion when food is no longer the body's source of energy and it must rely on stored glycogen |
| Secretin | Hormone released in the small intestine to aid in digestion |
| Thermoneutral | External temperature at which the body does not expend any energy for thermoregulation (84 F) |
| Thermoregulation | Process of regulating the temperature of the body |
| Urea Cycle | Process that converts potentially toxic nitrogen waste into urea that can be eliminated through the kidneys |
| Vitamins | Organic compounds required by the body to perform biochemical reactions like metabolism and bone, cell, and tissue growth |
| Anatomical Sphincter | Muscle surrounding the lumen of a vessel or hollow organ that can restrict flow when contracted |
| Anuria | Absence of urine produced; production of fifty milliliters or less per day |
| Detrusor Muscle | Muscle in the bladder wall; fibers run in all directions to reduce the size of the organ when emptying it of urine |
| Diuretic | Compound that increases urine output, leading to decreased water conservation |
| External Urinary Sphincter | Muscle that must be relaxed to release urine from the body |
| Incontinence | Loss of ability to control urination |
| Kidneys | Two bean-shaped organs that participate in the control of the volume of various body fluid compartments and removal of toxins |
| Micturition | Scientific term for urination or voiding |
| Nephrons | Functional units of the kidney. They carry out all filtration and modification to produce urine. |
| Oliguria | Below normal urine production of four hundred to five hundred milliliters a day |
| Physiological Sphincter | Sphincter consisting of circular smooth muscle indistinguishable from adjacent muscle but functioning as a sphincter |
| Urea | Main nitrogen-containing substance in the urine of mammals |
| Urethra | Tube that transports urine from the bladder to the outside environment |
| Urinalysis | Analysis of urine to diagnose disease |
| Antidiuretic Hormone | Hormone that increases the volume of water reabsorbed by the kidneys |
| Dehydration | State of containing insufficient water in blood and other tissues |
| Diuresis | Excess production of urine |
| Extracellular Fluid | Fluid exterior to cells, such as interstitial fluid, blood plasma, and others |
| Fluid Compartment | System of fluids that is segregated from other systems |
| Hydrostatic Pressure | Pressure exerted by a fluid against a wall, caused by its own weight or pumping force |
| Hypercalcemia | Abnormally high levels of blood calcium |
| Hypercapnia | Abnormally high levels of blood carbon dioxide |
| Hyperchloremia | Abnormally high levels of blood chlorine |
| Hyperkalemia | Abnormally high levels of blood potassium |
| Hypernatremia | Abnormally high levels of blood sodium |
| Hyperphosphatemia | Abnormally high levels of blood phosphate |
| Hypocalcemia | Abnormally low levels of blood calcium |
| Hypocapnia | Abnormally low levels of blood carbon dioxide |
| Hypochloremia | Abnormally low levels of blood chlorine |
| Hypokalemia | Abnormally low levels of blood potassium |
| Hyponatremia | Abnormally low levels of blood sodium |
| Hypophosphatemia | Abnormally low levels of blood phosphate |
| Interstitial Fluid | Fluid in the small spaces between cells not contained within blood vessels |
| Intracellular Fluid | Fluid in the cytosol of cells |
| Metabolic Acidosis | Condition wherein a deficiency of bicarbonate causes the blood to be overly acidic |
| Metabolic Alkalosis | Condition wherein an excess of bicarbonate causes the blood to be overly alkaline |
| Plasma Osmolality | Ratio of solute to a volume of solvent in the plasma; reflects a person's hydration |
| Respiratory Acidosis | Condition wherein an excess of carbon dioxide causes the blood to be overly acidic |
| Respiratory Alkalosis | Condition wherein a deficiency of carbon dioxide causes the blood to be overly alkaline |
| Alveoli | Milk-secreting cells in the mammary gland |
| Areola | Highly pigmented, circular area surrounding the raised nipple and containing the areolar glands that secrete fluid important for lubrication during suckling |
| Body of Uterus | Middle section of the uterus |
| Cervix | Elongated inferior end of the uterus that contains the vagina |
| Clitoris | Nerve-rich area of the vulva that contributes to sexual sensation during intercourse |
| Ejaculatory Duct | Duct that connects the ampulla of the vas deferens with the duct of the seminal vesicle at the prostatic urethra |
| Epididymis | Coiled tubular structure in which sperm mature and are stored until ejaculation |
| Fallopian Tubes | Ducts that facilitate transport of an ovulated oocyte to the uterus |
| Gamete | Haploid reproductive cell that contributes genetic material to form an offspring |
| Glans Penis | Bulbous end of the penis that contains a large number of nerve endings |
| Gonads | Reproductive organs that produce gametes and reproductive hormones |
| Hymen | Membrane that covers part of the opening of the vagina |
| Lactiferous Ducts | Ducts that connect the mammary glands to the nipple and allow for transport of milk |
| Mammary Glands | Glands inside the breasts that secrete milk |
| Menarche | First menstruation in a pubertal female |
| Menses Phase | Phase of the menstrual cycle in which the endometrial lining is shed |
| Menstruation | Shedding of the inner portion of the endometrium out through the vagina |
| Menstrual cycle | Twenty-eight day cycle of changes in the uterus |
| Mons Pubis | Mound of fatty tissue located at the front of the vulva |
| Oogenesis | Process by which oocytes are produced, which later become ovum |
| Ovarian Cycle | Changes in the ovaries consisting of a follicular phase (ending with ovulation) and a luteal phase |
| Ovaries | Female gonads that produce oocytes and sex steroid hormones |
| Ovulation | Release of a secondary oocyte and associated cells from an ovary |
| Ovum (Egg) | Haploid female gamete resulting from completion of meiosis II at fertilization |
| Penis | Male organ of copulation |
| Prepuce (Foreskin) | Flap of skin that forms a collar around the glans penis |
| Prostate Gland | Doughnut-shaped gland at the base of the bladder surrounding the urethra and contributing fluid to semen during ejaculation |
| Puberty | Life stage during which a male or female adolescent becomes capable of reproduction |
| Scrotum | External pouch of skin and muscle that houses the testes |
| Semen | Ejaculatory fluid composed of sperm and secretions from the seminal vesicles and prostate |
| Seminal Vesicle | Gland that produces seminal fluid, which contributes to semen |
| Spermatogenesis | Formation of new sperm |
| Sperm | Male gamete |
| Testes | Male gonads |
| Uterus | Muscular hollow organ in which a fertilized egg develops into a fetus |
| Vagina | Tunnel-like organ that provides access to the uterus for the insertion of semen and from the uterus for the birth of a baby |
| Vas Deferens | Duct that transports sperm from the epididymis through the spermatic cord and into the ejaculatory duct |
| Vulva | External female genitalia |
| Acrosome | Cap-like vesicle located at the anterior region of a sperm that is rich with lysosomal enzymes capable of digesting the protective layers surrounding the oocyte |
| Afterbirth | Third stage of childbirth in which the placenta and associated fetal membranes are expelled |
| Alleles | Alternative forms of a gene |
| Amnion | Transparent membranous sac that encloses the developing fetus and fills with amniotic fluid |
| Autosomal Chromosome | Any chromosome that is not a sex chromosome (allosome) |
| Autosomal Dominant | Dominant inheritance for a gene on one of the autosomes |
| Autosomal Recessive | Recessive inheritance for a gene on one of the autosomes |
| Breech Birth | When a baby is born bottom first instead of head first |
| Cesarean Section | Use of surgery - often an incision - to deliver a baby |
| Capacitation | Process that occurs in the female reproductive tract in which sperm are prepared for fertilization |
| Carrier | Heterozygous individual who does not display symptoms of a recessive genetic disorder but can transmit the disorder to his or her offspring |
| Cleavage | Cell division in which the cell divides but the total volume remains unchanged, producing smaller and smaller cells |
| Codominance | Inheritance pattern that corresponds to the simultaneous expression of two different alleles |
| Dilation | First stage of childbirth, involving an increase in cervical diameter |
| Dominant Lethal | Inheritance pattern in which individuals with one or two copies of a lethal allele do not survive in utero or have a shortened lifespan |
| Dominant | Describes a trait that is expressed in both homozygous and heterozygous forms |
| Ectopic Pregnancy | Implantation of an embryo outside of the uterus |
| Embryo | Developing human during weeks three to eight |
| Episiotomy | Incision made in the posterior vaginal wall and perineum that facilitates vaginal birth |
| Explusion | Second stage of childbirth, during which the mother bears down with contractions; this stage ends in birth |
| Fertilization | Unification of genetic material from male and female haploid gametes |
| Fetus | Developing human during the time from the end of the embryonic period to birth |
| Foremilk | Watery, translucent breast milk that is secreted first during a feeding and is rich in lactose and protein; quenches the infant's thirst |
| Gastrulation | Process of cell migration and differentiation into three primary germ layers following cleavage and implantation |
| Genome | Complete genetic makeup of an individual |
| Genotype | Organism's set of heritable genes |
| Gestation (Pregnancy) | Period required for embryonic and fetal development |
| Heterozygous | Having two different alleles for a given gene |
| Hindmilk | Opaque, creamy breast milk delivered toward the end of a feeding, satisfying the infant's appetite |
| Homozygous | Having two identical alleles for a given gene |
| Implantation | Process by which a blastocyst embeds itself in the uterine endometrium |
| Involution | Postpartum shrinkage of the uterus back to its pre-pregnancy volume |
| In Vitro Fertilization | Fertilization where an egg is combined with sperm outside the body and them implanted into the same or another woman's uterus |
| Lactation | Process by which milk is synthesized and secreted from the mammary glands of the postpartum female breast in response to sucking at the nipple |
| Mutation | Change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA |
| Neurulation | Embryonic process that establishes the central nervous system |
| Notochord | Rod-shaped, mesoderm-derived structure that provides support for a growing fetus |
| Organogenesis | Development of the rudimentary structure of all an embryo's organs from the germ layers |
| Punnett Square | Grid used to display all possible combinations of alleles transmitted by parents to offspring and predict the mathematical probability of offspring inheriting a given phenotype |
| Parturtion | Scientific term for childbirth |
| Phenotype | Physical or biochemical manifestation of the genotype; expression of the alleles |
| Placenta | Organ that forms during pregnancy to nourish the developing fetus; also regulates waste and gas exchange between mother and fetus |
| Placentation | Formation of the placenta |
| Polyspermy | Penetration of an oocyte by more than one sperm |
| Quickening | Fetal movements that are strong enough to be felt by the mother |
| Recessive Lethal | Inheritance pattern in which individuals with two copies of a lethal allele do not survive in utero or have a shortened life span |
| Recessive | Describes a trait that is only expressed in homozygous form and is masked in heterozygous form |
| Sex Chromosomes (Allosomes) | Pair of chromosomes involved in sex determination; in males, the XY chromosomes; in females, the XX chromosomes |
| Trait | Variation of an expressed characteristic |
| Trimester | Division of the duration of a pregnancy into three three-month terms |
| True Labor | Regular contractions that immediately precede childbirth; they do not abate with hydration or rest, and they become more frequent and more powerful with time |
| Umbilical Cord | Connection between the developing conceptus and the placenta; carries deoxygenated blood and wastes from the fetus and returns nutrients and oxygen from the mother |
| Zygote | Fertilized egg; a diploid cell resulting from the fertilization of haploid gametes from the male and female lines |
| Lightening | Descent of the fetus lower into the pelvis in late pregnancy |
Created by:
MarioValento
Popular Quiz Bowl sets