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BNF Trx Summ & MCQ

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QuestionAnswer
Initial management of unstable angina and NSTEMI should include Oxygen, Nitrates, Dual antiplatelet, Anticoagulant, BB or CCB and higher risk patients require Gylcoprotein llb/llla inhibitors (eptifibatide and tirofiban)
In the management of pain and anxiety during a STEMI what drug should be administered Diamorphine or Morphine
What antiemetic should be administered with opiates during a STEMI Metoclopramide or cyclizine (if Left VF is not impaired)
This medication should have been given in the community for ACS, a note should be sent in with the patient to confirm this Aspirin
Centor score of 4 might indicate this medication Phenoxymethypenicillin (500mg TDS, 5-10 days)
Centor Score: Patient has no fever (0), No tonsilar exudate (0), A cough (0), has swollen galnds(1) and is over 44 (-1) No antibiotics, given symptomatic relief Paracetamol and reassurance
Centor Score: Patient has Fever [over 38C](1), Tonsillar exudate (1), No Cough(1), Swollen glands(1) and is 3-14 years (1). Patient is also allergic to Penicillin Clarithromycin 500mg BD 5 days
Centor score of 4 for a pregnant woman with a Penicillin allergy Erythromycin
First line treatment for short term constipation Ispaghula Husk
First line treatment for short term constipation with opiate causation Lactulose + Senna
Name the NSAIDs licensed for dental pain in the BNF Ibuprofen, Aspirin and Diclofenac
What NSAID would be appropriate for dental pain but is contraindicated in Ischaemic heart disease Diclofenac
Name a Non-opioid analgesic administered by intrathecal infusion, licensed for treatment of chronic severe pain Ziconotide
Co-proxamol is no longer licensed because of safety concerns, particularly in overdose. It is a combination of paracetamol and what drug? dextropropoxyphene
This drug is a weak stimulant, that is often included in analgesic preparations, claimed to enhance analgesic effect Caffeine
This drug is the opiate of choice in oral treatment of severe pain in palliative care. Morphine
These 3 opiates are used by injection for intra operative analgesia Alfentanil, fentanyl and remifentanil
These two NSAIDs can be given once daily Piroxicam and Tenoxicam
An option for dual antithrombotic therapy in those with low risk of bleeding who are contraindicated with Clopidogrel Warfarin
Beta blockers which appropriate for long term management of STEMI with LV dysfunction Bisoprolol, Carvedilol and long acting Metoprolol
Long term management for STEMI to be prescribed alongside an ACE in someone with asthma Diltiazem or Verapamil
To be considered for patients with stable angina with diabetes for prevention of cardiovascular event alongside a statin ACE
This drug is licensed at low dose, in combination with aspirin or asp+clop in patients following ACS with elevated cardiac biomarkers for prevention of atherothrombotic event Rivaroxaban
This should be given to ALL patients post STEMI, alongside BB, ACE and GTN(if angina) Aspirin
These drugs decrease platelet aggregation and inhibit thrombus formation in the arterial circulation. Antiplatelets
This drug is an adjunct antiplatelet given for prophylaxis of thromboembolic event associated with prosthetic heart valves Dipyridamole
Name two long acting benzodiazepines recommended for alcohol withdrawal symptoms Chlordiazepoxide and Diazepam
This drug can be used as an alternative in treatment in acute alcohol withdrawal as well as in epilepsy Carbamazepine
First line therapy for Delirium tremens (agitation, confusion, paranoia and visual and auditory hallucination) Oral Lorazepam
Two options for alcohol dependence therapy after CBT has failed Acamprosate and Naltrexone
Alternative therapy for if Acamprosate and Naltrexone are not suitable Disulfiram
This drug is used for reduction of alcohol consumption in patients with alcohol dependence who have a high risk risk level, w/o physical withdrawal Nalmefene
This drug should be supplemented for 4 months in order top restore natural stores, in associated megaloblastic anaemia caused by nutrition, pregnancy or epileptic drugs Folic acid
This local anaesthetic has the longest duration of action, but a slow onset of action. Used in lumbar epidural. Bupivacaine
Local anaesthetics dilate blood vessels so this drug can be given locally also to constrict these vessels Adrenaline
This drug is widely used as a local anaesthetic in dental procedures Lidocaine
This drug is an anti-androgen used in the treatment of severe hypersexuality Cyproterone acetate
In patients with unstable angina or recent MI this SSRI has been shown to be safe Sertraline
This class of antidepressant has less sedating effects and fewer antimuscarinic and cardiotoxic side effects SSRIs
These antidepressants have dangerous side effects with food and other drugs so are reserved for specialist use MAOIs (Phenelzine, Isocarboxazid, Tranycypromine and moclobemide (reversible)
This SNRI should only be considered for more severe forms of depression Venlafaxine
After initial therapy with an SSRI along with switching to a different SSRI this drug is another option Mirtazapine
Acute anxiety can be managed with a benzodiazepine or with this drug Buspirone
This drug can be used to combat anxiety while waiting for an antidepressant to take effect Benzodiazepine
Along with SSRIs these two drugs can be used for treatment of generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) Duloxetine and Venlafaxine (SNRIs)
Which two SSRIs are licensed for GAD Escitalopram and Duloxetine
Which SSRI is not licensed for GAD but is still used unlicensed Sertraline
If SSRI and SNRI therapy has failed to treat a patient's GAD what epilepsy treatment is licensed for use Pregabalin
Panic disorder, OCD, PTSD and SAD are all treated with what drug class SSRI
These Tricyclic antidepressants are unlicensed treatments for panic disorder but are second line therapy after SSRIs Clomipramine and Imipramine
This drug is second line for OCD after SSRIs Clomipramine
This the only drug licensed for Social Anxiety Disorder that is not an SSRI Moclobemide
Tricyclic and related antidepressants can be divided into those sedating and less sedating. These are the less sedating ones Imipramine, Lofepramine and Nortriptyline
Tricyclic and related antidepressants can be divided into those sedating and less sedating. These are the more sedating ones Amitriptyline, Clomipramine, Dosulepin, Doxepin, Mianserin, Trazodone and Trimipramine
This tricyclic antidepressant has the most antimuscarinic side effects (Hot, Dry, Red, dilated pupils and delirium) Imipramine
These antihistamines can be used as adjunct injections for emergency treatment of anaphylaxis Chlorphenamine and Promethazine
These three antihistamines are used as nausea and vomiting treatments Cinnarizine, Cyclizine and Promethazine
This antihistamine is used in preparations for migraine Buclizine
This oral preparation of grass pollen extract is licensed to combat grass pollen induced allergic rhinitis Grazax
This monoclonal antibody is used as additional therapy in IgE-mediated allergic asthma Omalizumab
An alternative SABA to Salbutamol Terbutaline
Patients using more than one of these inhalers a month should have their asthma urgently assessed Salbutamol
Patients using their SABA/symptomatic more than 3 times per week, ICS
This ICS is taken once daily Ciclesonide
(BNF advise) This asthma treatment should be added to ICS monotherapy and effectiveness assessed after 4-8 weeks Montelukast
BTS SIGN recommend adding this treatment to ICS monotherapy in asthma LABA (Salmeterol or Formoterol)
BTS SIGN recommend that a MART regimen should be considered in patients with a history of asthma attacks on a medium dose ICS, what actives are licensed for MART Beclometasone with Formoterol or Budesonide with Formoterol
After High dose ICS, with LRTA, LABA and MART therapy have failed what treatments can be initiated for asthma Tiotropium or Theophylline
The aminoglycoside of choice in the UK, used in severe infection, broad spectrum but inactive against anaerobes and poor activity vs streptococci Gentamicin
These antacids tend to have a laxative effect Magnesium
These antacids tend to be constipating aluminium
This drug along with being used for colic can be used as a hiccup treatment in palliative care. It also works as an antifoaming agent in the treatment of flatulence Simeticone
Fibrin dissolution is impaired by this drug, used to prevent bleeding or treat bleeding. Commonly used in menorrhagia Tranexamic acid
This drug can be used in Von Willebrand's disease and in the management of mild-moderate haemophilia Desmopressin
Vasodilator (potent) antihypertensive given as an adjunct in the treatment of resistant hypertension (though rarely used) Hydralazine
This unlicensed treatment is a vasodilator antihypertensive used in hypertensive emergency by parenteral route Sodium nitroprusside
This vasodilator antihypertensive causes fluid retention so must be given with a diuretic, unsuitable for females due to excessive hair growth Minoxidil
Along with Ambrisentan, Bosentan, Iloprost and Macitenan these two drugs are licensed for use in pulmonary hypertension Sildenafil and Tadalafil
These three drugs are centrally acting antihypertensives Methyldopa (which can be used for HyT in pregnancy), Clonidine (sudden withdrawal causes rebound HyT) and Moxonidine (Which may be used when Thiaz, CCBs, BBs, ACE have failed)
These drugs have vasodilator properties, used in resistant hypertension (reduces BP rapidly is cautioned) and can also be used in benign prostatic hyperplasia Alpha blockers (Prazocin, Doxazocin, Indoramin and Terazocin)
This drug is has antiprotozoal properties and is the drug of choice in amoebic dysentry, trichomonas vaginallis and giardia lamblia infection Metronidazole
Other antiprotozoal treatments apart from Metronidazole, Clindamycin, Azithromycin and Clarithromycin Amphotericin B and Pyrimethenamine amongst others
A treatment for ectopic beats, safer than other suppressant drugs Beta blockers
This drug can be used IV for pharmacological cardioversion, though is AF > 48 hours electrical is preferred Amiodarone, alternatively Flecainide
If urgent rate control is required these drugs can be given by IV Beta blocker or Verapamil
This drug can be used in rate control but only in sedentary patients Digoxin
When monotherapy has failed to control AF a combination of two of the following drugs should be used Beta blockers, Diltiazem and Digoxin
These antiarrhythmic drugs should not be given when there is known ischaemic heart disease Flecainide and Propafenone
These drugs can be used as a pill in the pocket regimen for infrequent episodes of symptomatic paroxysmal AF Flecainide and Propafenone
CHA2DVAS2C factors (2+ is moderate - high risk) CHF(1), Hypertension(1), Age below 65(0), 65-74(1), 75+(2), Diabetes (1) Vascular disease(1), Stroke/TIA/VTE(2) and Female(1)
HASBLED factors Hypertension>160 systolic(1), Age65+(1), Stroke(1), Bleed(1), Liver(1), Labile INR(1), Renal(1), Medication(1) and Alcohol(1)
First line for bradycardia with/without hypotension in arrhythmias after an MI Atropine
These two drugs are first line for ADHD and should be trialled for at least 6 weeks before an alternative is considered Lisdexamfetamine and Methylphenidate
If Lisdexamfetamine and Methylphenidate have both been trialled for 6 weeks and failed, this drug should be considered Atomoxetine
This is the most widely used IV anaesthetic Propofol
Water soluble beta blockers, less likely to enter the brain and cause sleep disturbance and nightmare. Also excreted by the kidney so dose adjustment in renal impairement Atenolol, Celiprolol, Nadolol and Sotalol
This drug is indicated for drug induced extrapyramidal symptoms for Parkinson's meds. E.g. tremors Trihexyphenidyl
These 3 drugs classes are considered as adjuvant treatment for bone pain NSAIDs, Steroids and Bisphosphonates
This opioid can give convulsions in overdose Pethidine
Symptoms of overdose of this drug include nystagmus, diplopia, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and hyperglycaemia. Phenytoin
This drug is indicated for motion sickness along with hypersalivation associated with clozapine therapy Hyoscine hydrobromide
Initial empirical treatment of COPD SABA(Salbutamol) OR a SAMA (Ipratropium)
This class of drug should be stopped if a LAMA is started (e.g. Glycopyrronium, Tiotropium or umeclidinium) SAMA (Ipratropium)
This drug is unlicensed, but is used for prophylaxis of infection in COPD in patients who are non smokers, have had all treatment options optimised and who have 4 or more exacerbations a year Azithromycin
This drug is a recommended add on to bronchodilator treatment in patients with severe COPD Roflumilast
This drug should be used as a modified release therapy, after short acting and long acting bronchodilators have been trialled for COPD Theophylline
Treatment for COPD and Asthma, smoking can increase drug clearance. Overdose can cause vomiting, agitation, dilated pupils, tachy and hyperglycaemia Theophylline
Levels of this drug should remain between 10-20mg/L, measured at 5 days after starting and 3 days after dose change. Sample should be taken 4-6 hours after dose of MR Theophylline
First line antibacterial for acute exacerbation treatment of COPD Amoxicillin, Clarithromycin or Doxycycline for 5 days
Drug to be used if initial therapy has had no effect after 2-3 days or if high risk of complication, antibacterial for acute exacerbation treatment of COPD Co-amoxiclav, Levofloxacin or Co-Trimoxazole if sensitivities indicate
Other non antibacterial treatment for exacerbation of COPD symptoms Give short acting bronchodilators (stop LAMA if SAMA given), give prednisolone, oxygen if required and Aminophylline if required.
Drugs used in acute phase of crohns in order to induce remission in patient with first exacerbation in 12 month period+ Prednisolone, methylprednisolone or IV hydrocortisone
Three drugs that are licensed for diarrhoea asociated with crohns Loperamide, Codeine phosphate and Colestyramine
TNF alpha inhibitors are options for severe, active crohns following inadequate response to conventional therapies Adalimumab and Infliximab
Alternative treatment for the acute phase of crohns if pred, methylpred and/ IV hydrocort are C/I or ineffective Budesonide, or aminosalicylates (sulfasalzine and mesalazine)
Add on treatment for if there are 2+ exacerbations of crohns in 12m period (Unlicensed), to induce remission Azathioprine or Mercaptopurine
This drug can only be used to maintain remission of crohn's if it was used to induce remission of the disease Methotrexate
These drugs can be used alone or together to treat fistulating crohn's disease Metronidazole and Ciprofloxacin
These CCBs should be avoided in patients with HF with reduced ejection fraction as these drugs reduce cardiac contractility Verapamil, Diltiazem, Nifedipine and Nicardipine
These are the diuretic of choice in relief of breathlessness and oedema in chronic heart failure Loop diuretics (Furosemide, Bumetanide and Torasemide)
These two drugs from these two drug classes should be given first line for HF ACE and BB
Second line therapy for if ACE and BB are not controlling symptoms Aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone and eplerenone)
Target HbA1C for type 1 diabetic 48mmol/mol
Blood glucose should be monitored at least 4 times a day, what is the FBG range upon waking 5-7mmol/L
Blood glucose should be monitored at least 4 times a day, the range for just before lunch or dinner meals 4-7mmol/L
Blood glucose should be monitored at least 4 times a day, what is the after meal range (90 mins after) 5-9mmol/L
What is the blood glucose concentration required for driving at least 5 mmol/L
Short acting insulins have a short duration of action and rapid onset. The available forms are? Insulin aspart, insulin glulisine (Apidra) and insulin lispro
Name two of the brands of short acting, insulin aspart Novorapid and Fiasp
Name the available brands of short acting, insulin lispro Humalog, Insulin lispro sanofi and Lyumjev
Intermediate acting insulins have a 1-2 hour onset of action and an 11-24 hour duration Isophane insulin
Name the 4 brands of Intermediate acting isophane insulins Humulin I, Hypurin porcine isophane, Insulatard and Insuman Basal
Isophane insulin can be mixed with short acting insulins to make this Biphasic insulin
Name the brands of Biphasic, mixed short acting and intermediate acting insulins Humulin M3, Hypurin porcine 30/70, Insuman Comb, Novomix 30, Humalog Mix25/50
This drug is indicated for stable angina, works by stimulating the increase of cGMP thereby relaxing smooth muscle. C/I in hypovolaemia Nicorandil
This is a long acting insulin, duration of action last up 36 hours, but they achieve a steady state after 2-4 days. What are the different long acting insulin variants Insulin detemir, insulin degludec, insulin glargine and protamine zinc / insulin zinc preparations
Can you name the brand name of insulin detemir, a long acting insulin Levemir
Can you name the brand name of insulin glargine, a long acting insulin Abasaglar, Lantus, Semglee and Tuojeo
Can you name the brand name of insulin degludec, a long acting insulin Tresiba
What is the first line therapy for type 1 diabetes Basal-bolus therapy. [Basal] Insulin detemir (Levemir) BD and [Bolus] rapid acting insulin injected before meals (e.g. Novorapid)
If BD insulin detemir is not tolerated, what alternative basal insulin can be given? Insulin glargine (Abasaglar, Lantus, Semglee or Tuojeo)
What therapy should patient who have a HbA1C over 69mmol/mol while using multiple daily injection therapy Continuous s/c insulin infusion pump
Co-amilofruse has what two medications in? Amiloride and furosemide
This drug is an effective agent for both rate and rhythm control in AF, it is much too toxic for first-line use Amiodarone
This drug can be used for rate control in AF but, on its own, it is less effective than a β-blocker or calcium channel blocker and potentially more toxic. Digoxin
A weak diuretic that competitively blocks the aldosterone receptor, causing increased sodium and water excretion and potassium retention in the distal renal tubules. Aldosterone antagonists e.g. spironolactone or eplerenone
This medication acts by inhibiting a membrane transport protein, inhibits the Na+/K+/2Cl− co-transporter in the loop of Henle. Furosemide (loop diuretic)
This drug works at Beta 1 adrenoceptor. It can terminate some supraventricular tachycardias and reduce the ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation. Metoprolol
This is Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers are relatively cardioselective: they reduce the rate and force of cardiac contraction, and interfere with conduction at the AV node Diltiazem or Verapamil
This drug class can cause heart block, cardiogenic shock and even asystole when combined with a non dhp CCB BB
Ankle swelling is a common adverse effect of this drug Amlodipine
What drugs can help CCB induced pitting oedema? (Diuretics do not help with this) ACE or ARB due to their venodilation properties
amlodipine, atorvastatin, clopidogrel, indapamide and ramipril. Which of these medicine should she be advised to stop taking 1 week before a surgical procedure? Clopidogrel as it takes 7-10 days to wear off
Around 1 in 200 patients on this drug will develop elevated liver enzymes. An LFT should be conducted before initiation and 3 months after Simvastatin
Serum potassium should be checked 1-2 weeks after starting these drugs Aldosterone antagonists e.g. spironolactone or eplerenone
Name a drug that causes increase of bradykinin Ramipril, this is what causes dry cough
What HbA1c should those who are following lifestyle advice target? Below 48 mmol/mol
The trigger for intensification of pharmacological treatment in diabetes (i.e. adding another agent) is HbA1c of 58mmol/mol
The target HbA1c for diabetes patients in those on two or more agents the target is <53 mmol/mol
This drug is a sex hormone antagonist. It acts by inhibiting aromatase, which prevents the peripheral conversion of androstendedione to oestradione. Thereby reducing free oestrogen, treating breast cancer. Anastrazole
This drug treats breast cancer, it acts as a selective oestrogen receptor modulator Tamoxifen
This drug works by 5α-reductase inhibition Finasteride
This drug is toxic to fungi works by it's inhibition of ergosterol synthesis Fluconazole
These drugs work by suppress luteinising hormone (LH)/follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) secretion. Oestrogens and Progesterones
This diuretic can cause hyperglycaemia bendroflumethiazide
The adverse effect of lactic acidosis is more likely in renal failure when taking this drug Metformin
Metformin may interfere with what vitamin absorption and therefore cause or contribute to megaloblastic anaemia Vitamin B12
What drug activates the γ subclass of nuclear peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors (PPARγ), promoting expression of genes which enhance insulin sensitivity. Pioglitazone
Which class of antidiabetic increases the risk and severity of heart failure. Thiazolidinidiones
What drug should be used for acute steroid replacement, for example in Addisonian crisis (acute adrenal insufficiency) Hydrocortisone IV
There is an increased risk of cancer of the lining of the womb with this drug Tamoxifen
If the patient experiences these symptoms: severe and persistent stomach pain which may reach through to the back, it could be pancreatitis. What antidiabetics can cause this? Gliptins (DPP4i) and GLP1 agonists (Dulaglutide, Exenatide and Semaglutide)
What drug should be withheld now and for 48 hours after a CT scan because of the IV contrast media causing contrast nephropathy Metformin
This drug is a sex hormone antagonist. It is a prodrug that requires activation by a cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzyme, CYP2D6 thereby is inhibited by Fluoxetine a potent CYP2D6 inhibitor Tamoxifen, Codeine is also activated by CYP2D6
Can you name the drugs inactivated by a cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzyme, CYP2D6 thereby potentiated by Fluoxetine a potent CYP2D6 inhibitor causing increased adverse effects Propranolol, Risperidone and Loratidine
This antiepileptic drug will need an increased dose if co-prescribed with Microgynon or other contraceptive Lamotrigine
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS). NMS is a serious condition that may be precipitated by drugs that have an antidopaminergic effect. What antiemetic would be most appropriate in someone who has had NMS? Ondansetron (5HT3) or Cinnarizine (H1)
Can you name two Phenothiazine antiemetics prochlorperazine and chlorpromazine
This antiemetic is a dopamine antagonist Metoclopramide
Helicobacter pylori infection presents to her GP to commence treatment. She is allergic to benzylpenicillin, which caused an anaphylactic reaction. What do you give? PPI + clarithromycin and metronidazole
This laxative is an important treatment in hepatic encephalopathy, by inhibiting ammonia producing bacteria in the GI tract Lactulose
These drugs can precipitate hepatic encephalopathy in liver failure Sedating antihistamines, all sedating drugs can
First choice laxative in pregnancy Ispaghula husk
Second choice laxative in pregnancy Lactulose
This antibiotic can cause cholestatic jaundice, even after treatment is completed Flucloxacillin
This drug can cause hepatocellular necrosis in overdose Paracetamol
These drugs should be administered at least 2 hours either side of Gaviscon Levothyroxine, tetracyclines, digoxin, iron and bisphosphonates
The prescriber of this antibiotic should be sure that the patient is not pregnant because it is teratonogenic in the first trimester Trimethoprim
This treatment may be appropriate for someone admitted to hospital with severe cellulitis Benzylpenicillin and flucloxacillin
This drug can treat herpes simplex viral encephalitis Aciclovir
This drug may be used to treat multi drug resistant pseudomonas aeruginosa Ciprofloxacin
What antibiotics have a consistently bactericidal mechanism of action? Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, Vanc, quinolones, metronidazole and nitrofurantoin
This drug is a penicillinase-resistant penicillin, is more likely to be active against penicillinase-producing staphylococci because it has an acyl side chain that protects its β-lactam ring Flucloxacillin
a FBC test should be performed regularly to monitor treatment safety of this IV antibiotic, due to the development of bone marrow supression Chloramphenicol
These drugs can cause prolonged QT interval Antiarrhythmic drugs, antipsychotics, macrolide antibiotics and quinine
This drug binds to calcium in developing teeth and bone. This can cause discolouration and/or hypoplasia of tooth enamel therefore only give with 12+ Doxycycline
This antibiotic drug class should be separated by at least 2 hours from divalent cations like calcium, antacids or iron Tetracyclines
This antibiotic can be given by slow IV bolus injection Amoxicillin
What drug should have a serum concentration performed 18–24 hours after the first dose? Gentamicin
This antibiotic should not be used for upper GI infection even if the sensitivities come back indicate it Nitrofurantoin
This can be used for recurrent episodes of genital herpes but it will not completely stop spread of infection to sexual partners Aciclovir
What is the usual requirement for IV fluid intake (water) 30ml/kg/day
What is the usual requirement for IV fluid intake (Sodium) 1mmol/kg/day
What is the usual requirement for IV fluid intake (Potassium) 1mmol/kg/day
drug causes of gout include Thiazide like diuretics (e.g. indapamide), low dose aspirin, some anticancer drugs and alcohol
This drug is indicated for ongoing clonic seizure lasting for 25 minutes Lorazepam 4mg by slow IV injection
This drug is indicated for a bipolar episode of depression but does not increase the risk of mania Lamotrigine
This drug has long been used as a mood stabiliser in bipolar disorder, but its antidepressant effect is slow to develop. This makes it a less suitable choice in acute depressive episodes. Lithium
These drugs can be used to treat bipolar depression episodes but increases the risk of mania SSRIs and Valproate
This drug is a relatively short acting sedative less likely to precipitate daytime drowsiness Zopiclone
These drugs are short acting sedatives that have a profound effect and are only used in a hospital setting Midazolam and propofol
This drug can be given for tingling burning sensation in the feet in diabetes especially with night time pain Amitriptyline
this drug works on sodium channels and is used for the treatment of bipolar and epilepsy Lamotrigine
This drug effective for focal, generalised and myoclonic seizures works on synaptic vesicles Levetiracetam
This migraine treatment is a vasoconstrictor so is contraindicated in ischaemic heart disease, they can cause angina and, rarely, myocardial infarction. Serotonin 5-HT1-receptor agonists like Sumatriptan
Valproate has a particularly serious interaction with these antibiotics, characterised by a rapid (within days) and profound (near-complete) reduction in serum valproate Carbapenems
Metabolic effects, such as weight gain, diabetes mellitus and lipid changes, are among the most common adverse effects of this drug. Monitoring weight, lipid profile and HbA1c at the baseline, 12 weeks into therapy, then annually, is therefore advised. Second generation antipsychotics such as Olanzapine
This antiparkinsonian should be reviewed regularly and where no benefit is seen after 3 months of treatment, it should be stopped. Donepezil
This treatment for urinary urgency works by antagonism at the muscarinic M3 receptor Oxybutynin
An antimuscarinic drug used to treat urinary urgency and urge incontinence. Side effects of antimuscarinics include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation and confusion. Solifenacin
This blocks α1-adrenoceptors in the smooth muscle of the prostate gland, increasing urinary flow and relieving obstructive symptoms. Can cause hypotension, particularly postural hypotension Tamsulosin
long-acting antimuscarinic bronchodilator. Its side effects include urinary retention in people susceptible to this. It should therefore be avoided or used cautiously in patients with a history of urinary retention, or risk factors Tiotropium
What antibiotic can generally be used without dosage reduction in severe renal impairment? This is because it is excreted by the liver. Metronidazole
This drug can interact with CYP3A4 inhibitors like diltiazem, macrolide antibiotics and amiodarone to potentiate side effects like headache Sildenafil
A gap of 4 hours should be left between taking sildenafil and this class of drugs Vasodilators (e.g. Doxazosin and alpha blockers)
This long acting antimuscarinic inhaler can cause dry mouth Tiotropium
This drug is a specific inhibitor for paracetamol overdose, highly effective if started within 8-10 hours of the overdose Acetylcysteine
A patient has pinpoint pupils, a low GCS score and low repiratory rate, what drugs is he likely to have overdosed on Opiates
This drug should be administered in cases of benzodiazepine overdose flumazenil
This drug is preferred to generic thiazide diuretics, often introduced at stage 2 or 3 of hypertension Indapamide
What should be started if potassium is above 4.5mmol/L for stage 4 hypertension Alpha blocker or beta blocker
Pregnant women are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia if they have chronic kidney disease, diabetes mellitus, autoimmune disease, chronic hypertension, or if they have had hypertension during a previous pregnancy; these women are advised to take? Aspirin
Give this IV to women in a critical care setting with severe hypertension or severe pre-eclampsia or if they have or have previously had an eclamptic fit. Consider IV in severe pre-eclampsia if birth is planned within 24 hours. Magnesium sulphate
Women with a blood pressure of greater than 160/110 mmHg who require critical care during pregnancy or after birth should receive immediate treatment with either oral or IV Labetolol, Hydralazine or Nifedipine
First-line options for treating newly diagnosed focal seizures Carbamazepine or Lamotrigine
First-line treatment for newly diagnosed generalised tonic-clonic seizures Sodium valproate, alternative Lamotrigine
Drugs of choice in absence seizures and syndromes are Ethosuximide, or sodium valproate
The drug of choice in newly diagnosed myoclonic seizures Sodium valproate. Topiramate and levetiracetam are alternatives
Atonic and tonic seizures are usually seen in childhood, in specific epilepsy syndromes, or associated with cerebral damage or mental retardation. The drug of choice is: Sodium valproate
In early stages of Parkinson's disease, patients whose motor symptoms decrease their quality of life should be offered : levodopa combined with carbidopa (co-careldopa) or benserazide (co-beneldopa)
Parkinson's disease patients whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life, could be prescribed a choice of levodopa or what? non-ergot-derived dopamine-receptor agonists or monoamine-oxidase-B inhibitors
Name three non-ergot-derived dopamine-receptor agonists Pramipexole, ropinirole or rotigotine
Name two monoamine-oxidase-B inhibitors rasagiline or selegiline hydrochloride
Patients who develop dyskinesia or motor fluctuations despite optimal levodopa therapy should be offered: non-ergot-derived dopamine-receptor agonists, monoamine-oxidase-B inhibitors or COMT inhibitors
Name two COMT inhibitors Entacapone and Tolcapone
These drugs should only be considered as an adjunct to levodopa if symptoms are not adequately controlled with a non-ergot-derived dopamine-receptor agonist. An ergot-derived dopamine-receptor agonist (bromocriptine, cabergoline or pergolide)
This drug can be considered If dyskinesia is not adequately managed by modifying existing therapy for Parkinsons Amantadine
Daytime sleepiness for Parkinson's can be treated with this drug Modafanil
Radiotherapy induced nausea with no appetite, what drug should be used to treat Dexamethasone
First line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia Carbamazepine
Vaginal thrush treatment in adults Canesten 2%
Nappy rash treatment suggestive of candida infection Canesten 1%
Treatment for ringworn which inflamed and itchy Canesten HC 1% and 1%
Give an example of a LAMA + LABA treatment Spiolto respimat (Tiotropium and Oladaterol)
These vaccines are given to neonates at risk only Bacillus Calmette-Guérin vaccine[BCG] (at birth) hepatitis B vaccine (at birth, 4 weeks, and 1 year)
Vaccines given at 8 weeks Infanrix hexa, Meningococcal type B and rotavirus
What second doses of vaccines are given at 12 weeks (second dose) infanrix hexa and rotavirus
What single dose vaccine is given at 12 weeks pneumococcal polysaccharide conjugate vaccine
Vaccines given at 16 weeks Infanrix hexa 3rd dose, meningococcal group B vaccine 2nd dose and pneumococcal polysaccharide conjugate vaccine 2nd dose
Infanrix hexa has got what in it? diphtheria with tetanus, pertussis, hepatitis B, poliomyelitis and haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine
What vaccines are to be given at 1 year MMR 1st dose, [Men B, Pneum Poly and Haem Influ (Single booster doses)]
These drugs are acetylcholinesterase inhibitors indicated for dementia associated with Parkinson's disease Rivastigmine and Galantamine
What order are the 54321 for lipid targets 5 Total TC, 4 TC/HDL ratio, 3 LDL target, 2 Fasting TG and 1 (higher) HDL
If a symmetrical pain is present when walking down stairs after starting this drug recently Statins
A patient has a positive stool antigen test and a positive Urea 13C breath test, confirming H Pylori, what dose of antibiotic should be given Amoxicillin 1g BD for 7 days + Metronidazole 400mg BD for 7 days, with Omeprazole 20-40mg BD for 7 days
This drug is an adjunct for focal seizures Zonisamide
This drug licensed for treatment of muscle spasm associated pain can enhance hypotensive effects of antihypertensives Baclofen
This drug is first line for treating infections of strep pyogenes around the mouth, this indication can also be caused by staph areus Hydrogen peroxide
Treatment for this drug have centrally monitored Leucocyte and Neutrophil counts Clozapine
What vitamin deficiency can caused bowed legs (rickets) and make someone feel tired Vitamin D
What vitamin deficiency can cause bleeding gums and bruising (scurvy) Vitamin C
This antiepileptic can cause visual field defects Vigabatran
This antibiotic can cause damage to skeletal development of a foetus Oxytetracycline
This high risk drug is approximately 90% protein bound so it's concentration does not follow first order kinetics Phenytoin
Gene testing is appropriate with these drugs for steven johnson rash Carbamazepine and Phenytoin
This antiparkinsonian can exacerbate oedema so is Cautioned in CHF Amantadine
This antiparkinsonian can cause hair loss, and can delay the need for levodopa therapy Selegiline
Recommended as first-line treatment of ocular hypertension in patients with an intra-ocular pressure of 24 mmHg or greater and who are at risk of visual impairment within their lifetime. Name some topical prostaglandin analogues latanoprost, tafluprost, travoprost, or bimatoprost
Second line for ocular hypertension is? topical beta-blocker (betaxolol, levobunolol hydrochloride, or timolol maleate)
First line treatment for pain associated with endometriosis Paracetamol or NSAID trial for 3 months
What other treatment along wit pain relief should be given for endometriosis Hormonal treatment (COC or POC)
Which NSAID is not used in acute attacks of gout Aspirin
What is the safest option for acute attack of gout with someone who takes an Anticoagulant Colchicine
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When using this treatment, men should not have unprotected sex, especially with those of childbearing age / or pregnant as it can induce labour Alprostadil
When applying this medication if washing hands with soap and water the cream should be reapplied after Permethrin
The most likely class of antihypertensive to cause cold extremities Beta blockers
The most likely class of antihypertensive to cause peripheral vasodilation Dihydropyridine CCBs e.g. Amlodipine
Care should be taken when driving or operating machinery as this drug is associated with hypotensive reactions and a sudden onset of sleep. Rotigotine
It is important to ensure adequate hydration at all times in patients receiving higher-strength preparations of this drug, given for reduced or absent exocrine secretion Pancreatin
Brush teeth for one minute before spitting out. Avoid drinking or rinsing mouth for 30 minutes after use. Duraphat
A patient is admitted to hospital with tuberculosis and requires the combination of drugs used in the continuation phase of tuberculosis treatment. Isoniazid and rifampicin, pyridoxine hydrochloride
A patient, with a penicillin allergy, requires treatment to eradicate a H. pylori infection. Clarithromycin, metronidazole and omeprazole
Treatment choice in patient with HIV once stabilised on other medication. Efavirenz, emtricitabine and tenofovir
This treatment for a patient for deep vein thrombosis has a direct thrombin inhibitor which has a rapid onset of action Dabigatran
This drug is usually contraindicated in under 16 years unless for Kawasaki disease Aspirin
This drug can colour urine a tint of blue (in some lights), potassium sparing diuretic used for oedema Triamterene
This antidiabetic has an increased risk of heart failure Pioglitazone
this antidiabetic has a risk of fatal diabetic ketoacidosis Empagliflozin
This drug can be used for psychoses, can cause contact sensitisation Chlorpromazine
Before initiating treatment with this drug a review of oral health should be carried out because of the risk of osteonecrosis of the jaw Bisphosphonates (Risedronate)
absorption of this antibiotic impacted by dairy. Consumption of large amounts of dairy produce should be restricted to 1 to 2 hours before taking this medication. Ciprofloxacin
The use of higher dosages of this drug may cause photosensitisation, and as such, sunlight should be avoided. Chlorpromazine
This treatment for benign gastric ulceration has an adverse affect of slowing gastric emptying Sucralfate
This antiarrhythmic drug is contraindicated in sino-atrial block Amiodarone
What drug is contraindicated in a patient suffering with complete biliary obstruction? Colestyramine
In patients with acute inflammation of the gall bladder, what medication is contraindicated Ursodeoxycholic acid
This medication is indicated for bacterial vaginosis and is usually given at a dose of one applicatorful daily for 3-7 nights Clindamycin
Used for the induction of labour for medical reasons Oxytocin
Potent uterine stimulant that is teratogenic Misoprostol
This drug, when prescribed, should only be for treatment courses lasting for 2 to 4 weeks. This indication includes '....anxiety that is severe or disabling...' Diazepam (other benzos accepted)
The overuse of this drug may result in potentially serious hypokalaemia. Salbutamol
This drug can cause cholestatic jaundice up to 8 weeks after treatment has ceased. Flucloxacillin
A prescription for these capsules for a 25-year-old woman would expire after 7 days. Isotretinoin
Sudafed® and Sinutab® contains this active, and is cautioned in hypertension and diabetes. Pseudoephedrine
What is the first line add on therapy to ICS+SABA for asthma by SIGN LABA
Addition of this therapy should be considered in patients uncontrolled on a SABA, ICS and LABA (SIGN) Montelukast
What is the advice from SIGN for patients who are still experiencing asthma symptoms despite the use of four therapies Refer to specialist
This drug if taken by a man, both him and his partner should use contraception and for 90 days after stopping therapy. If a women takes it she should use two forms of contraception Mycophenolate mofetil
This drug is used as the antidote for heparin overdose/toxicity Protamine sulphate
Menstrual disturbance can occur with use of this antihypertensive treatment Spironolactone
Insomnia is a side effect of this antihypertensive, along with dry cough Captopril
This drug is used as an adjunct in the treatment of alcohol dependency Disulfiram
Fosavance® is a combination brand of these two drugs Alendronic acid and colecalciferol
Targinact® contains what Oxycodone and naloxone
Teysuno® contains what (used in the treatment of advanced gastric cancer) Tegafur, gimeracil and oteracil
Triapin® contains what Ramipril and Felodipine
Can you name some common creams/ointments that stain clothing (Not all) Ampthotericin, Anthralin, Apomorphine, Benzoyl Peroxide, Calcipotriene, Chlorhexidine, Ciclopirox, Clioquinol, Clobetasol, Coal tar, Halobetasol, Hydroquinone, Tetracyclines, Mupirocin, Selenium and Silver nitrate
If a patient is showing signs of Lithium toxicity in your community pharmacy what should you do? Send them to A&E
Drugs that can prolong QT "Conazole's, "Mycin's, Metronidazole, Quinolones, Antivirals, Antimalarials, Antiarrhythmics, TCAs and antipsychotics
These drugs can cause damage the skeletal development in unborn babies Tetracyclines
This drug may be used in the treatment of cellulitis. It can be administered orally, IM or IV for this condition Clindamycin
This drug is known as a bile acid sequestrant Cholestyramine
A patient who has been taking metformin for 4 months with a HbA1c of 7.2% with no other health concerns should be given what? Gliclazide
Which antidiabetic for first drug intensification from metformin causes weight loss SGLT2 inhibitors
Which drug should have contraception during treatment and for 90 days after stopping in men and 6 weeks after stopping in women Mycophenolate mofetil
Minimum age suitable for this drug is 3 months, brand name with strengh of 100mg/5ml Nurofen
This drug for weight loss cannot be sold to those under the age of 18 years Alli® 60 mg hard capsules.
Gingival hyperplasia (swollen gums) is a common side effect of this drug Ciclosporin
This treatment for rheumatoid arthritis can cause retinopathy Hydroxychloroquine
This drug should be monitored weekly for the first 18 weeks of treatment, the fortnightly up to 1 year, the monthly Clozapine
Treatments for head lice include Dimeticone, Malathion or wet combing
This treatment for head lice should not be given in patients under 6 months or with asthma Malathion
Which eye drop for ocular hypertension should not be considered in a patient with CHF Timolol
This drug is present in Bactroban, applied 2-3 times daily for 5-7 days up to 10 days for impetigo Mupirocin
This antidiabetic works by blockade of ATP-sensitive potassium channels Glipizide
Which NSAID has the lowest side effect profile but has less anti-inflammatory effects Ibuprofen
This NSAID has minor anti-inflammatory properties. It has occasionally been associated with diarrhoea and haemolytic anaemia which require discontinuation of treatment. Mefenamic acid
This NSAID is licensed for the short-term relief of pain in osteoarthritis and for long-term treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and ankylosing spondylitis. Meloxicam
This NSAID is as effective as naproxen and has a long duration of action with OD admin, but has more GI side-effects than most other NSAIDs, and is associated with more frequent serious skin reactions. Piroxicam
These are selective COX-2 inhibitor NSAIDs and have lower likelihood of serious GI event than non-selective NSAIDs Celecoxib and Etoricoxib
What NSAIDs are most associated with increased risk of cardiovascular effects Celecoxib, Etoricoxib, Ibuprofen and Diclofenac/Aceclofenac
NSAIDs with the highest risk of GI effects Piroxicam, Ketoprofen and Ketorolac
This antibiotic must be taken while standing or sitting upright and well before bed to avoid oesophagitis Doxycycline
This drug is to be taken before conception and for the first TWELVE weeks of pregnancy. Dose is 400mcg for low risk and 5mg for high risk Folic acid
This is licensed in patients above 30mg/m2 or 28mg/m2 with T2DM, HTN or Hypercholesterolaemia Orlistat
This treatment should be added to Levodopa therapy in those who develop dyskinesia Dopamine agonists (Pramipexole, ropinirole or rotigotine)
This drug works by Inhibiting the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines Methotrexate
A Neurokinin 1-receptor antagonist, because of its very long t½ (>160h), this drug is effective for treating delayed phase nausea in CINV Rolipitant
This laxative can enter breast milk Senna
What drug in toxicity causes slurred speach, nystagmus, ataxia, confusion, hyperglycaemia, dyplopia and blurred vision Phenytoin
Side effects of this drug include gingival hyperplasia, coarsening of facial features, acne, hirsutism, blood dyscrasias Phenytoin
This drug works by binding to neuronal sodium channels in their inactive state and prolongs inactivity Phenytoin
This drug works by inhibiting neuronal sodium channels, stabilising membrane potential and reduces excitability Carbamazepine
Therapeutic index of 4-12mg/L or 20-50micromole/L Carbamazepine
Symptoms of toxicity are incoordination, hyponatraemia, ataxia, nystagmus, drowsiness, blurred vision and diplopia, arrhythmias and nausea and vomiting Carbamazepine
Side effects of this include blood dyscrasias, hepatotoxicity, rash and hyponatraemia and dose effective SEs: headache, ataxia, drowsiness, nausea, vomiting, blurred vision, unsteadiness and skin reactions Carbamazepine
Weak inhibitor of neuronal sodium channels, stabilises resting membrane potential and reduces excitability Sodium Valproate
Side effects include hepatotoxicity, blood dyscrasias, pancreatitis and teratogenicity Sodium Valproate
What should be given in non-convulsive status epilepticus with incomplete loss of awareness Continue or restart their oral antiepileptic drug
What should be given in the community for someone having a seizure over 5 minutes in duration Diazepam rectal, or Midazolam oromucosal
The mechanism of action of this NTW drug is not fully understood Lithium
The therapeutic range for this drug is 0.4-1mmol/L for prophylaxis in the elderly and 0.8-1mmol/L in a manic episode Lithium
Blood samples for monitoring are taken 12 hours post dose and monitored every 3 months unless significant or intercurrent illness Lithium
Symptoms of toxicity for this include Renal disturbances (polyuria, incontinence and hypernatraemia), Extrapyramidal symptoms, visual disturbance, Nervous system disturbance and diarrhoea and vomiting Lithium
Toxic effects when blood conc is above 2mmol/L include Renal failure, Arrhythmias, seizures, BP changes, circulatory failure, coma and sudden death Lithium
Side effects of this drug include Thyroid disorders, Renal impairment, intracranial hypertension, QT prolongation and lower seizure thresholds Lithium
This drug is a schedule 5 CD as a tablet but a schedule 2 CD as an injection Codeine
Toxicity of this causes pinpoint pupils, coma and respiratory depression Opioid
These drugs can be used in smoking cessation Varenicline and Bupropion
Initial treatment for Rheumatoid arthritis Methotrexate + Other DMARD + Temporary steroid
This DMARD works by inhibiting the conversion of dihydrofolate(folic acid) to tetrahydrofolate needed to make pyrimidines and therefore DNA. Preventing cellular replication Methotrexate
If the dose of this drug is missed by over 3 days then you should wait until the next scheduled dose, if within 3 days take immediately Methotrexate
This drug cause hepatotoxicity, renal toxicity, low platelet, anaemia, pulmonary toxicity and GI toxicity. NSAIDs should be avoided and ensure flu vaccinated. Methotrexate
Patient to report: mouth ulcer, fever, malaise, sore throat, extreme tiredness, pallor, dizziness, bruising and bleeding easily, N&V, dark urine, jaundice, SOB, cough and stomatitis Methotrexate
Drugs that can cause gout include Loop and thiazide diuretics, ciclosporin, Tacrolimus, Cytotoxics and cancer drugs
The dose of these drugs when taken with allopurinol should be reduced by 1/4 to 1/2 Mercaptopurine and Azathioprine
This class of drug if taken in the 3rd trimester can delay labour, cause pulmonary hypertension (in new born) and cause premature closure of foetal ductus arteriosus NSAIDs
This class 1 antiarrhythmic is contraindicated in severe COPD and asthma Flecainide and Propafenone
What drug should be given for non-sustained ventricular tachy Beta blocker
What drug should be given for stable sustained ventricular tachy Amiodarone
Treatment for Torsade de Pointes (prolonged QT interval) Magnesium Sulphate
Therapeutic levels for this drug are taken 6 hours after dose, varying bioavailability from different routes and a long half life Digoxin
Digoxin dose should be halved if taken with this drug Amiodarone
VTE in pregnancy, what is the choice anticoagulant LMWH, stop at labour onset
This drugs tablets are white=0.5mg, brown=1mg, blue=3mg and pink=5mg. The drug takes 48-72 hours to work. Warfarin
What should be given for long term management of TIA in combination with Aspirin MR Dipyridamole
Take these 30-60 mins before food, Persantin retard capsules have a special container with a 6 week expiry Dipyridamole
This antihypertensive should be avoided in combination with a beta blocker in a diabetic patient Bendroflumethiazide
This cannot be sold for use in children under the age of 10, max supply is 1 week. Used for allergic contact dermatitis, irritant dermatitis, insect bite reactions and mild to moderate eczema Hydrocortisone cream
This drug used for fracture prevention in osteopenia should be avoided in women of child bearing potential Zolendronic acid
What Statins are considered high intensity statins + dose Atorva 20, 40 and 80mg, Rosuva 10, 20 and 40mg and Simvastatin 80mg
If vomiting occurs within 3-4 hours of taking this contraceptive another should be taken immediately Cerazette
Intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA) represents the capacity of BBs to stimulate as well as to block adrenergic receptors. they cause less bradycardia than the other BBs and may also cause less coldness of the extremities. Celiprolol hydrochloride, pindolol, acebutolol, and oxprenolol
The antidiabetic effect of this drug is enhanced by alcohol can be resulting in hypoglycaemia Sulphonylureas
This drug's elixir contains 20% alcohol content Theophylline elixir
Drugs that can produce a disulfiram like reaction when mixed with alcohol Phenacetin, Phenylbutazone, Cefamandole, Cefoperazone, Cefotetan, Chloramphenicol, Griseofulvin, Isoniazid, Metronidazole, Nitrofurantoin, Sulfamethoxazole, Isosorbide dinitrate and Tolbutamide (+other less well known)
Alcohol interacts with these drugs by increasing the likelihood of a GI bleed NSAIDs
Alcohol interacts with these drugs by enhancing their CNS depressive effects resulting in drowsiness and decreased motor skills Opiates
Alcohol inhibits the metabolism of the actives of these agents as well as enhancing their CNS depressant effects resulting in drowsiness and disorientation Sedatives and hypnotics
Alcohol increases the sedative effects of these drugs and also increase the risk of orthostatic hypotension (sudden drop in BP) TCAs (Amitriptyline)
Alcohol interacts with this drug by increasing it's hepatotoxic effects Methotrexate
These drugs increase the effect of alcohol by reducing it's first pass metabolism and increases gastric emptying H2 antagonists
Alcohol will increase the anticoagulant effect of this drug by decreasing its metabolism Warfarin
This drug interacts with alcohol by increasing its absorption rate and can also potentially cause liver damage by a bi product of their combined metabolism Aspirin
This antibiotic can cause liver disease when taken with alcohol and can have a disulfiram like reaction Isoniazid
This antibiotic causes increased gastric absorption of alcohol Erythromycin
Used in Mild - Mod dementia, acetylcholinesterase inhibitor associated with increased risk of NMS especially when co-prescribed antipsychotics Donepezil
Used in Mild - Mod dementia, acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, stop at first sign of rash due to associated steven johnsons rash Galantamine
Used in Mild - Mod dementia, acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, used in Parkinson's associated dementia, if GI symptoms occur withold until resolved Rivastigmine
Used in Moderate to severe dementia, NMDA glutamate receptor antagonist Memantine
Used in severe non-cognitive symptoms of dementia that cause severe distress or immediate harm to self or others. Caution in history of cardiac, stroke, smoking or diabetes Antipsychotics
Used in severe aggression, violence or agitation associated to non-cognitive symptoms of dementia Oral benzodiazepine or antipsychotics
What benzodiazepines can be considered for IM injection for immediate behavioural control in a dementia patient Haloperidol, Olanzapine or Lorazepam
Most antiepileptics are given twice daily, what antiepileptics have long half lives and so are given once daily at night Phenobarbital, Lamotrigine, Perampenal and Phenytoin
These drugs are first line for partial / focal seizures Lamotrigine and Carbamazepine
These drugs are alternatives for partial / focal seizures Levetiracetam, Valproate and Oxcarbazepine
These drugs are first line for generalised tonic-clonic seizures Valproate and Carbamazepine
These drugs are alternatives for generalised tonic-clonic seizures Lamotrigine
This drug is first line for generalised Absence seizures in someone at high risk of tonic clonic seizures Valproate
This drug is first line for generalised Absence seizures in someone at low risk of tonic clonic seizures Ethosuximide
This drug is an alternative for Absence seizures Lamotrigine
First line for generalised myoclonic seizures Valproate
Alternative therapy for generalised myoclonic seizures Topiramate and Levetiracetam
First line for generalised atonic seizures Valproate
Category 1 antiepileptics maintain on same brand CP3 (carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital and primidone)
Category 2 antiepileptics use clinical judgement as to maintaining on same brand Valproate, Lamotrigine, Clonazepam and Topiramate
Apart from valproate what antiepileptics are at increased risk of teratogenicity in pregnancy CP3L (carbamazepine, phenytoin, primidone, phenobarbital and Lamotrigine). Topiramate does also cause cleft palate
What main antiepileptic reduces the efficacy of contraception Carbamazepine
What antiepileptics are high risk of withdrawal in new borns Phenobarbital and benzos
What antiepileptics require dose adjustment based on plasma drug conc in pregnant women Phenytoin, Carbamazepine and Lamotrigine
What antiepileptics require monitoring of foetal development in pregnant women Topiramate and Levetiracetam
These antiepileptics are highly present in breast milk when taking (ZELP) Zonisamide, Ethosuximide, Lamotrigine and Primidone
Further to ZELP, what other antiepileptics have established risk in breast milk induced effects on babies Phenobarbital and benzos
These antiepileptics are especially prone to hypersensitivity reaction CP3L (carbamazepine, phenytoin, primidone, phenobarbital and lamotrigine)
This antiepileptic is most associated with steven johnson rash Lamotrigine
The following antieplieptics can cause blood dyscrasias and so should report signs of bleeding or infection C VET PLZ (carbamazepine, vigabatran, ethosuximide, topiramate, phenytoin, lamotrigine and zonisamide)
Report signs of raised intraocular pressure as this antiepileptic can cause acute myopia and secondary acute angle glaucoma Topiramate
This antiepileptic is associated with severe respiratory depression Gabapentin
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First line for low sev CAP + dose Amoxicillin 500mg tds for 5 days
Potent central nervous system stimulant, increases dopamine and noradrenaline levels in the brain, first line for ADHD in children Methylphenidate
Potent central nervous system stimulant, increases dopamine and noradrenaline levels in the brain, second line in ADHD in children Lisdexamfetamine
Which SSRI has the greatest risk of withdrawal symptoms Paroxetine
What two SSRIs can cause QT prolongation Citalopram and Escitalopram
For what antidepressant do you give a treatment booklet, it is also hepatotoxic Agomelatine
This SNRI is also used in diabetic neuropathy Duloxetine
Side effects of this class of antidrepressants are GASH, Gastrointestinal, Appetite or weight disturbance, Serotonin syndrome and Hypersensitivity. Other symptoms include bleeding risk increased, QT prolongation(for some), seizure threshold lowered & more SSRIs
Symptoms of overdose of this drug class include N+V, agitation, tremor, nystagmus, drowsiness, sinus tachy and convulsions SSRIs
This can increase concentration of SSRIs Grapefruit juice
Name Tricyclic antidepressants Amitriptyline, Clomipramine, Dosulepin, Doxepin, Trimipramine, Imipramine, Lofepramine and Nortriptyline
Name some tetracyclic antidepressants Mianseron and Trazodone
What are the less sedating tricyclic antidepressants Imipramine, Lofepramine and Nortriptyline
Antimuscarinic side effects are caused by this drug class, these include Dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, tachycardia, urinary retention, pupil dilation, raised intraocular pressure and angle closure glaucoma TCAs
Name some MAOIs (AEs: hepatotoxic, postural hypo, Hypertensive crises, Tyramine food interaction) Phenelzine, Isocarboxazid, Tranylcypromine and Moclobemide (MAOBi)
Highest risk of C.Diff Clindamycin
This antibacterial should be avoided with a renal clearance below 45ml/min Nitrofurantoin
As a general rule Tetracycline antibiotics should not be used in renal impairment, what are the two exceptions to this rule Minocycline and Doxycycline
Nephrotoxic antibiotics include Aminoglycosides and Glycopeptide
Along with Flucloxacillin, this antibiotic can cause cholestatic jaundice Co-amoxiclav
The pneumonic MCAT is for antibacterials to avoid during pregnancy, what does it stand for Metronidazole, Chloramphenicol, Aminoglycosides and Tetracyclines
The safest antibiotics for use during pregnancy include Penicillins and Cephalosporins
What is the antibiotic of choice for combatting Staphylococci Flucloxacillin
What is the antibiotic of choice for combatting MRSA Vancomycin
What is the antibiotic of choice for combatting Streptococci Benzylpenicllin or Phenoxymethylpenicillin
What is the antibiotic of choice for combatting Anaerobes Metronidazole
What is the antibiotic of choice for combatting Pseudomonas Aeruginosa Gentamicin
This antibiotic inhibits protein synthesis, bacteriostatic, Narrow spectrum, if diarrhoea develops it should be reported immediately Clindamycin
This antibacterial inhibits protein synthesis in gram positive bacteria, narrow spectrum and bacteriostatic, alternative to Vanc in MRSA, report visual symptoms and avoid tyramine rich foods Linezolid
This antibacterial inhibits DNA synthesis, bactericidal with narrow spectrum, can cause blood dyscrasias in long term use. Hyperkalaemia and teratogenic in first trimester Trimethoprim
This drug is used in prophylaxis and treatment of Pneumocystis Jirovecii Pneumonia. Can cause SJS and phototoxicity Co-trimoxazole
This antibacterial is broad spectrum, bacteriostatic and works by inhibiting protein synthesis, it is reserved for life threatening infection, can cause blood dyscrasias and grey baby syndrome Chloramphenicol
This antibacterial is narrow spectrum, bactericidal with high activity against anaerobes and protozoa, inhibitis DNA synthesis. Taken with or after food, can cause taste disturbance and oral mucositis Metronidazole
This narrow spectrum antibiotic is bactericidal, damaging bacterial DNA, only active against urinary pathogen, causes neonatal haemolysis at term. Take with or after food, colours urine yellow or brown. Nitrofurantoin
This antibacterial binds irreversibly to bacterial ribosomes. Broad spectrum. Not absorbed by the gut so is given IV Aminoglycosides
This Aminoglycoside is reserved for TB for it's activity against mycobacteria Streptomycin
This aminoglycoside is given via inhaler for pseudomonal infection in cystic fibrosis Tobramycin
This aminoglycoside is parenterally toxic so it is only used in bowel sterilization Neomycin
This Aminoglycoside is used in Gentamicin-resistant g-ve bacilli Amikacin
This antibacterial is bacteriostatic, broad spectrum, binds to 30s ribosome subunit. Stop in cases of headaches and visual disturbance due to intracranial hypertension. Some can cause photosensitivity and oesophageal irritation Tetracyclines
This can be used to treat pneumocystis pneumonia if the patient is intolerant to trimethoprim Atovaquone
This drug class is bacteriostatic, broad spectrum and works by binding to the 50s subunit of the ribosome, generally taken with or after food Macrolides
This macrolide can cause taste disturbance, taken BD Clarithromycin
These two antibacterials are potent enzyme inhibitors and can cause an increased risk of bleeding with warfarin and an increased risk of myopathy with statins Erythromycin and Clarithromycin
This type of antibiotic can be fatal if given intrathecally. Penicillins
1st generation cephalosporins include Cefalexin, Cefadroxil and Cefradine
2nd generation cephalosporins include Cefuroxime and Cefaclor
3rd generation cephalosporins include Cefixime, Ceftriaxone, Cefotaxime and Ceftazidine
This drug is a 5th generation cephalosporin with extended spectrum, used in community acquired pneumonia and complicated skin infections Ceftaroline
This medication is contraindicated during treatment of C.Diff Loperamide
Treatment for Endocarditis Amoxicillin +/- Low dose Gentamicin
This oral drug combination is licensed for moderate severity CAP Amoxicillin + Clarithromycin
Standard treatment for a non-blanching rash caused by Neisseria Meningitidis (Meningitis) Benzylpenicillin
Treatment for Meningitis in a patient with penicillin allergy Cefotaxime, Chloramphenicol in immediate allergy
First line treatment for osteomyelitis Flucloxacillin, Clindamycin in Penicillin allergy
This antimalarial is initiated 1-2 days before entering endemic zone and continued for 4 weeks after. Protect skin from sunlight, 2 hour gap with indigestive remedies. Swallow whole capsule with meal while sitting or standing. Doxycycline
This antimalarial is initiated 2-3 weeks before, Contraindicated in psychoses Mefloquine
Drugs with risk of G6PD deficiency haemolytic anaemia Dapsone, Sulphonamides, Nitrofurantoin, Quinolones and Rasbirucase
Treatment of acute porphyric crises Haem arginate
First line treatment for haemophilus influenza (Epiglottis) Cefotaxime, Chloramphenicol if immediate reaction to Penicillin history
This product should not be cut, do not touch the adhesive side when applying, avoid hairy areas, Apply it to a dry flat & undamaged area, do not expose it to strong heat or sunlight, the same area can be used after a 7 day break and fold inward on removal Opiate patches
This anticoagulant should be stopped 5 days before surgery Warfarin
If INR is above 1.5 on the day of surgery for a warfarin patient (stopped 5 days prior) what should be given Phytomenadione
In patient who are stopping warfarin for 5 days prior to surgery, this drug should be given for the interim if the patient is high risk of stroke LMWH
This drug if started for interim bridging of warfarin for surgery should be stopped 24 hours before surgery or 48 hours if the surgery is high risk of bleed LMWH
What should be given in patients who require emergency surgery who take warfarin be given Prothrombin complex and Phytomenadione
This antiparkinsonian has a max daily dose of 100mg, administered s/c into the stomach Apomorphine
This is a nicotine partial receptor agonist, dose adjustment in renal below 30ml/min. Uncommon s/e of depression, immediately stop and refer to GP if this occurs Varenicline
This drug can be taken to arrest dysfunctional uterine bleeding Norethisterone
The dose of this drug should be adjusted when used in combination with Itraconazole Solifenacin or Tamsulosin
The concentration of this drug should be measured 5 days after starting treatment and 3 days after any dose adjustments Theophylline
In overdose can cause vomiting, agitation, restlessness, dilated pupils, sinus tachycardia, and hyperglycaemia. More serious effects are haematemesis, convulsions, and arrhythmias and hypokalaemia Theophylline
This drug can be given for those over 2 years of age with bacterial conjunctivitis Chloramphenicol
This drug is used as an adjunct for loop or thiazide diuretics for potassium conservation Amiloride
This drug is used for treatment of osteoporosis in men at a dose of 35mg a week, avoid if eGFR below 30ml/min Risedronate
This treatment for postmenopausal osteoporosis can be given as 70mg ow or 10mg od, avoid if eGFR below 35ml/min Alendronic acid
This drug is given as 10mg daily for the treatment of steroid induced osteoporosis in post menopausal women w/o HRT or osteoperosis in men Alendronic acid
This treatment can be used for paget's disease of the bone at a dose of 30mg daily for 2 months Risedronate
This treatment for osteoporosis should be given 5mg annually or once every 18 months (osteopenia), avoid if eGFR below 35ml/min Zolendronic acid
This antimalarial can be given to those over 40kg and 18 years of age. 1-2 days before and 7 days after endemic exit. Maximum period of supply. Take with food/milk Maloff (progaunil and Atovaquone)
This drug is initiated at 300mg then reduced to 75mg od for ACS, continue lifelong Aspirin
Combination for ACS DAPT, ACEi, BB/Verapamil/Diltiazem and Statin
This drug should be administered within 4.5 hours of symptom onset, if intracranial haemorrhage has been ruled out Alteplase
This drug can be initiated 24 hours after alteplase Aspirin
First line antiplatelet for stroke prevention Clopidogrel
This drug should be taken for 6 weeks for DVT, 3 months for provoked VTE and at least 3 months for unprovoked Warfarin**
This anticoagulant works by activating antithrombin, used if the patient is high risk of bleed Unfractionated Heparin
This drug is renally cleared, risk of toxicity with nephrotoxics. Symptoms of toxicity of this drug include Bradycardia, GI disturbance, Blurred/yellow vision, confusion and rash Digoxin
This drugs biovailability is 75% in elixir, 90% in tablets and 100% IV Digoxin
This drug is an alternative for Carbimazole for if it causes a rash. It should also be used in the first trimester of pregnancy. Caution hepatotoxic. Propylthiouracil
This drug for hyperthyroidism is C/I in the first trimester of pregnancy but can be restarted in the second. Carbimazole
This drug interacts with mesalazine by lowering stool PH in the intestine preventing sufficient release of the active Lactulose
This drug is a more potent analogue of vasopressin with a longer duration of action. Side effects include hyponatraemia and convulsions Desmopressin
This constipating drug can cause cardiac reactions like QT prolongation. Max dose 16mg/day Loperamide
This drug is used alone or in combination with insulin for type 2 diabetes in pregnancy Metformin
This drug should be monitored for fluid retention when given in pregnancy, but is generally safe Steroids
This antiparkinsonian can cause hypotensive reactions Bromocriptine
This class of drug is not useful in eGFR's below 30 Diuretics
These are some mildly potent steroids Hydrocortisone 0.1–2.5%, Dioderm, Mildison, Synalar 1 in 10 dilution
These are some mildly potent steroid with antimicrobial preparations Canesten HC, Daktacort, Econacort, Fucidin H, Hydrocortisone with chlorhexidine hydrochloride and nystatin Terra-Cortril, Timodine
These are some moderately potent steroids Betnovate-RD, Eumovate, Haelan, Modrasone, Synalar 1 in 4 Dilution, Ultralanum Plain
Name a moderately potent steroid with antimicrobials preparation Trimovate
Name a moderately potent steroid with urea preparation Alphaderm
These are some potent steroids Beclometasone dipropionate 0.025%, Betamethasone valerate 0.1%, Betacap, Betesil, Bettamousse, Betnovate, Cutivate, Diprosone, Elocon, Hydrocortisone butyrate, Locoid, Locoid Crelo, Metosyn, Mometasone furoate 0.1%, Nerisone, Synalar
These are some potent steroid with antimicrobial preparations Aureocort, Betamethasone & clioquinol, Betamethasone & neomycin, Fucibet, Lotriderm, Synalar C, Synalar N
Name a preparation with potent steroid with salicylic acid Diprosalic
Name some very potent steroids Clarelux, Dermovate, Etrivex, Nerisone Forte
Name a preparation containing a potent steroid with antimicrobial Clobetasol with neomycin and nystatin
Doses of this drug are 150mcg 1month - 5years, 300mcg 6y-11y, and then 500mcg 12y+ unless small or prepubertal in which case 300mcg Adrenaline
A 16 hour patch for this drug is generally used unless the patient has strong cravings when they wake in the morning, then a 24 hour patch can be used Nicotine transdermal patch
This high risk drug can cause hyponatraemia in overdose and it's therapeutic range is 4-12mg/L Carbamazepine
This high risk drug increases the metabolism of vitamin D so can cause low vitamin D Phenytoin
This high risk drug can cause chronic intestinal obstruction Clozapine
This Schedule 2 CD can cause growth retardation, decreased weight, hypertension, depression, anxiety, aggression and N+V Methylphenidate
The antiemetic of choice in Parkinson's disease is Domperidone
This IV anaesthetic is most appropriate in children and has a quick recovery with minimal hangover effect Propofol
This drug can be used for beta blockers overdose Atropine
These electrolyte imbalances carry a risk of this drug's toxicity, Hypokalaemia, Hypercalcaemia and Hypomagnesemia Digoxin
Withdrawal of this drug can cause hallucinations and fever. These side effects can become life threatening Baclofen
Magnesium antacids should be avoided while taking this drug as it can cause severe diarrhoea, sometimes requiring withdrawal, but can be reduced by giving single doses not exceeding 200mcg Misoprostol
Symptoms of a PE, DVT, severe stomach pains, jaundice or a BP above 165/95 are reasons to withdraw this drug Combined oral contraceptive
This can raise potassium levels due to it inhibiting aldosterone secretion. This is particularly in patients with Diabetes, CKD, metabolic acidosis or taking medicinal products known to increase potassium. Enoxaparin
This drug can cause bone marrow suppression which would present as flu like symptoms (runny nose, feverish, shaky and headache) Carbimazole
For what drug should you rinse the irretrievable liquid and pour it into a denaturing kit Methadone
This treatment should be used at high dose for faecal impaction with hard stools Macrogols
After a few days with treatment of hard stools with high dose macrogol what can be added to aid the passing Senna or other oral stimulant laxative
Side effects of this mineralocorticoid include hypertension Fludrocortisone
This migraine treatment is contraindicated in ischaemic heart disease Triptans (Sumatriptan)
This can turn urine pink/orange Phenindione
This container of tablets should be discarded 8 weeks after opening GTN tablets
This drug when sold OTC has a minimum age of 12 years for the 0.1% spray and 6 years for the 0.05% spray Xylometazoline
Treatment for cellulitis if the patient has a penicillin allergy Clindamycin
The wash out period for this SSRI is 2 weeks and the period for withdrawal is 5 weeks for short term use Sertraline
Due to a severe interaction with alcohol this drug should be stopped for at least 2 weeks before drinking alcohol MAOIs
This SSRI can take 4 weeks to show an effect Citalopram
What is the wash out period for this SSRI is 5 weeks Fluoxetine
This drug carries a risk of necrotising fasciitis so report any signs and symptoms SGLT2 inhibitors
This cytotoxic is excreted in bile so a high bilirubin would indicate a reduced dose Doxorubicin
This cream can be used for anogenital warts, superficial basal cell carcinoma and actinic keratosis. Applied 5 nights a week for carcinoma Imiquimod
Deficiency of this is associated with ocular defects (particularly xerophthalmia) and an increased susceptibility to infections, but deficiency is rare in the UK (even in disorders of fat absorption). Vitamin A (retinol)
This is the treatment for vaginal thrush in pregnancy, usually given for 7 days in pregnancy as they require longer treatment Topical clotrimazole
This is a treatment for acute severe UC that contains lactose so is cautioned in those with lactose intolerance Methylprednisolone
This drug can be given IV for acute severe UC in those that cannot tolerate steroids, although it is unlicensed for this indication IV Ciclosporin
Treatment for for urinary retention with a raised PSA and risk factors for progression Finasteride or Dutasteride
First line treatment for acute prostatitis Ciprofloxacin and Ofloxacin
These are long acting nitrates used in stable angina in those that cannot tolerate or symptoms are not controlled with BBs or CCBs Ivabradine, Nicorandil and Ranolazine
Along with Methadone this drug can be used for opioid substitution therapy Buprenorphine
This treatment requires contraception for at least 2 years after in women and at least 3 months in men Leflunomide
This drug is used for peripheral vascular disease and cerebral vascular disease, assess after 3-6 months for effect (e.g. improve pain free walking) Naftidrofuryl oxalate
The ranges for this drug are 5-10mg/L at peak and less than 2mg/L trough, serum conc should be measured after 3 or 4 doses, then at least every 3 days and after a dose change Gentamicin
Suitable Cephalosporins for CNS infection (Meningitis) Cefotaxime and Ceftriaxone
Benefits of this drug includes: predictable bleeding, reduced risk of ovarian, endometrial and colorectal cancer, treatment of endometriosis and premenstrual syndrome, improvement of acne, menopausal sx and maintains bone density Combined oral contraceptive
This drug when levels return to normal should be continued for 3 months Iron supplements
Continue contraception for 4 weeks after finishing therapy Isotretinoin
This antisickness can cause cleft palate Ondansetron
This drug is given if hypoglycaemic patient is unconscious as 1mg stat Glucagon
If Glucagon is given and no response in hypoglycaemic patient give this as 10% or 20%, not 50% as this causes extravasation Glucose
This is given for a conscious hypoglycaemic patient who can swallow. Apart from this 15-20g fast acting carbs, 3-4 heaped teaspoons of sugar, 4-7 glucose tablets or 150-200ml of fruit juice can be used. 2 tubes of glucose 40% gel
This anti oestrogen is used in infertility for oligomenorrhea (infrequent periods), can be used for 6 cycles only due to it's risk of ovarian cancer Clomifene
Supply OTC to 40-75 year old with BPH for at least 3 months Tamsulosin
Toxicity of this drug presents as SNAtCHeD: Slurred speech, Nystagmus, Ataxia, Confusion, Hyperglycaemia, Diplopia or blurred vision Phenytoin
This can be given OTC 120mg up to 3 times a day, taken immediately before, during or up to 1 hour after meals, continue beyond 12 weeks only if weight loss greater than 5% Orlistat
Antidiabetic that works by reducing glucose absorption in the gut, reducing hepatic gluconeogenesis and increasing cell uptake of glucose Metformin
This drug works in a similar fashion to sulfonylureas causing an increase in pancreatic insulin secretion Glinides
The side effects of this OTC drug are diarrhoea, anxiety, GI disorder and abdominal pain Orlistat
This drug works via PPAR gamma to increase cell uptake of insulin Pioglitazone
This antidiabetic works by increasing pancreatic release of insulin and decreasing liver gluconeogenesis Gliptins
In order to continue this drug at the 6 month review weight must have reduced by 3% and Hba1c must have reduced by 11mmol/L (1%) GLP1
This drug works by increasing pancreatic insulin secretion, decreasing liver gluconeogenesis and delaying stomach emptying GLP1
This drug works by activating antithrombin, it is the parenteral anticoagulant of choice in renal failure, it has a short duration of action and is also used in high risk of bleed Unfractionated heparin
This drug works by inhibiting factor Xa, it is the heparin of choice in pregnancy LMWHs
The treatment dose for unstable angina/nstemi is 1mg/kg BD, treatment of DVT/PE is either 1mg/kgBD or 1.5mg/kg OD in high risk of reccurrence and prophylaxis of VTE dose is 40mg od Enoxaparin
This drug class is contraindicated in severe peripheral arterial disease Beta Blockers
This OTC is given for over 6 month olds, leave on for 24 hours, two treatments 7 days apart, treat whole body and treat close contacts Malathion
This OTC drug is given over 2 years, leave on for 8-12 hours before washing, two treatments 7 days apart, whole body, treat close contacts Permethrin
This OTC treatment is for 2 + year olds, 100mg as a single dose, repeat after 14 days, treat all family members, C/I in pregnancy or BF. Interacts with Cimetidine and hygiene measures continued for 6 weeks Mebendazole
This OTC drug can be given to women 18-45 years, reduction of heavy menstrual bleeding. Tranexamic acid
This parenteral anticoagulant is used in VTE in pregnancy, lower risk of osteoporosis and HIT LMWH
These should be given for ACS along with DAPT, Statin and ACE if beta blockers are C/I Diltiazem or Verapamil
Long term prophylaxis after ischaemic stroke Clopidogrel
Long term prophylaxis after ischaemic stroke, if Clopidogrel is C/I MR Dipyridamole + Aspirin
This drug for long term prophylaxis after an ischaemic stroke should be started 48 hours after symptom onset Statin
Initial treatment of ischaemic stroke once confirmed Alteplase
This drug is given 24 hours after alteplase for ischaemic stroke Aspirin
This OTC can be given in over 18 year olds, two sprays into each nostril for up to 3 months, refer if no improvement after 14 days Mometasone
Treatment for Torsade de pointes which is a prolonged QT interval Magnesium sulphate
Given for CAP of low/moderate severity Amoxicillin > Clarith or Doxy
Trimbow contains these actives Beclometasone + Glycopyronium + Formoterol
Treatment for scabies Permethrin or Malathion
Symptoms of overdose of this drug include SLOW + SICK: Bradycardia, GI disturbance, Blurred/yellow vision, confusion and rash Digoxin
This drug is sampled at least 6 hours after dose and it's range is between 0.8-2mcg/L Digoxin
This drug is renally cleared, toxicity occurs with reduced clearance which can occur with NSAID use, ARB or ACE Digoxin
The dose of this drug is 200mg tds x7d, 200mg bd x7d and then 200mg od for maintenance. Stop if visual impairement occurs. Phototoxicity can occur and slate grey skin Amiodarone
This drug can only be given OTC once an initial diagnosis has been made by a GP, for age 18-65, Hx of over 4 migraines in the last year is required for sale and simple analgesic treatment failure Sumatriptan
This drug is not licensed for those under 5 months, max 10g, max 6 times a day. Other advice can include gentle rubbing of gums and biting a cold wet flannel Bonjela teething gel (Lidocaine)
This treatment should be expected to take 9-12 months for toenails and 6 months to treat fingernails, review with pharmacist every 3 months. Given to over 18 years, max 2 nail treatment, not for pregnancy or BF, apply once weekly Amorolfine
This antidiabetic should not be taken with dapagliflozin Pioglitazone
This drug is the SGLT2 of choice in triple therapy Canagliflozin
These antidiabetics should not be used with gliptins GLP1
This anticoagulant is given for 2 weeks in knee and 5 weeks in hip surgery, given 10mg od starting 6-10 hours after surgery Rivaroxaban
This anticoagulant is given for 10 days in knee and 28-35 days in hip surgery, given for 0ver 75s as 75mg for the first day and then 150mg od and 110mg first day and then 220mg in under 75s Dabigatran
This anticoagulant is given for 10-14 days in knee and 32-28 days in hip surgery, given as 2.5mg BD starting 12-24 hours after surgery Apixaban
When giving these OTC refer if over 55 years in new onset, over 45 years with long term recurrent symptoms, those pregnant or BF or with prior GI problems PPIs
When using this drug topically it can increase sensitivity to sunlight Ketoprofen
This antidiabetic is weight neutral and can cause pancreatitis Gliptins
Monitor 5 days after starting and 3 days after any dose change, 10-20mg/L range of effect taken 4-6 hours post dose Theophylline
Antidiabetics that cause weight gain Pioglitazone and Sulphonylureas
OTC drug, 16-60 years, refer if 2 or more episodes in 6 months Clotrimazole
When switching from this drug to an MAOI this time period is 1 week. When withdrawing this drug it should be withdrawn over 4 weeks or longer. Paroxetine
When switching from this drug to an MAOI the time period is 5 weeks Fluoxetine
When switching from this drug to Paroxetine or Fluoxetine the time period is 2 weeks irreversible MAOIs
When switching from this drug to Paroxetine or Fluoxetine the time period is 24 hours Reversible MAOIs (Moclobemide)
This drug is cautioned in QT prolongation, C/I in severe uncontrolled hypertension (180 sys/ 110 dia) Mirabegron
Toxicity with this drug class will precipitate with dilated pupils, increased BP and tachycardia SSRIs
Treatment for otitis externa Flucloxacillin or Clarithromycin
Treatment for otitis externa caused by pseudomonas Ciprofloxacin or Gentamicin drops
Treatment for otitis media Amox, clarith or eryth
Treatment for otitis media if symptoms worsen after 3 days treatment with amoxicillin Co-amoxicillin
These antidepressants have a small increased risk of bleed postpartum if taken during the last month of pregnancy SSRI and SNRI
This antidiabetic is licensed for treatment of symptomatic chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction Dapagliflozin
Created by: RossGeraint
 

 



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