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Vickie Brown
Physiology weeks 1-6
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations. | occurrence, distribution, and transmission |
| Negative-feedback control systems | oppose a change |
| Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of | the body trying to maintain homeostasis and a negative-feedback mechanism |
| The term that literally means self-immunity is | autoimmunity |
| The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback | positive |
| If the secretion of oxytocin during childbirth operated as a negative-feedback control loop, what effect would it have on uterine contractions | Oxytocin would inhibit uterine contractions. |
| Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? | Transmitter |
| Positive-feedback control systems | accelerate a change |
| The normal reading or range of normal is called the | set point |
| The body’s thermostat is located in the: | hypothalamus |
| Homeostasis can best be described as: | a state of relative constancy |
| Pathogenesis can be defined as | the course of disease development |
| Intrinsic control: | is sometimes called autoregulation |
| Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease? | Prion |
| Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease? | Environment, Stress, Lifestyle |
| Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? | Reproductive |
| Negative-feedback mechanisms | minimize changes in blood glucose levels, maintain homeostasis, are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature |
| Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein envelope are called: | viruses |
| Of the pathogenic organisms, which of the following are the most complex? | Tapeworms |
| Which of the following is a basic component of every feedback control loop? | sensor mechanism, integrating center, effector, feedback |
| What term describes a signal traveling toward a particular center or point of reference? | afferent |
| Effectors can be described as | organs that directly influence controlled physiological variables |
| Because negative feedback control systems oppose changes that are opposite in direction to the initial disturbance, they are | slowed or maintained in the homeostatic range |
| The body naturally changes some set points to different values at different times of the day. These daily cyles are called circadian cycles | circadian cycles |
| To accomplish self-regulation, a highly complex and integrated communication control system or network is required. This type of network is called a(n) | feedback control loop |
| Which level of control operates at the cell level, often using genes and enzymes to regulate cell function? | intracellular regulation |
| The impact of effector activity on sensors may be positive or negative. Therefore, homeostatic control mechanisms are categorized as | organs that are directly influenced by physiological variables or mechanisms |
| Extrinsic control usually involves which mode of regulation? | nervous, endocrine |
| Processes for maintaining or restoring homeostasis are known as | homeostatic control mechanisms |
| The concept that information may flow ahead to another process to trigger a change in anticipation of an event that will follow is called | feed-forward |
| Many complex processes of the body are coordinated at many levels. These include | intracellular, intrinsic, extrinsic |
| Events that lead to an immune response to an infection or the formation of a blood clot are examples of | positive feedback |
| The relatively constant state maintained by the body is known as | homeostasis |
| Local control or _____, intrinsic mechanisms often make use of chemical signals. | Autoregulation |
| Unsaturated fats: | will kink or bend because of the double bonds between the carbon atoms |
| Which of the following is not true of both triglycerides and phospholipids? | They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end |
| The basic building blocks of fats are: | fatty acids and glycerol |
| The type of lipoprotein associated with “bad” cholesterol and the production of atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels is: | LDL. |
| Prostaglandins and steroids share which of the following characteristics? | Both have a ring structure in their molecule |
| What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids? | Degree of saturation |
| The amino group in an amino acid is: | NH3+ |
| The element that is present in all proteins but not in carbohydrates is: nitrogen | nitrogen |
| Amino acids frequently become joined by: | peptide bonds |
| All of the following substances are organic except: | electrolytes. |
| Which lipid acts as a “tissue hormone”? | Prostaglandin |
| Which of the following is not true of RNA? | It contains ribose sugar, adenine, and composed of smaller molecules called nucleotides |
| A structural lipid found in the cell membrane is a: | Phospholipid and steroid |
| Which of the following is not true of carbohydrates? | They include substances commonly called sugars, they are the body’s primary source of energy and they are a part of both DNA and RNA |
| Which lipid is part of vitamin D? | Steroids |
| Which level of protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids? | Primary |
| DNA: | is a double-helix strand of nucleotides |
| The term glycoprotein, a combination of two words, tells you that the compound is made of _____, with _____ being the dominant component. | carbohydrate and protein; protein |
| The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called | dehydration synthesis |
| A _____ is a functional group that is temporarily unattached and is highly reactive because of unpaired electrons. | free radical |
| Sometimes referred to as animal starch, _____ is the main polysaccharide in the body. | glycogen |
| If one side of a DNA molecule is CTAGGCTG, the other side would be: | GATCCGAC |
| Which energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule does not contain a nucleotide | Creatine phosphate |
| Which of the following is not one of the major groups of organic substances in the human body? | Salts |
| Peptide bonds join together molecules of: | amino acids |
| When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide | Maltose |
| The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure? | Secondary |
| The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are: | steroids |
| Humans can synthesize 13 of 21 basic amino acids; the remaining 8, which must be included in the diet, are called: | essential amino acids |
| The roles played by proteins can be divided into which categories? | Structural and functional |
| A very large molecule composed of subunits of sugar, a nitrogen base, and a phosphate bond is a | nucleic acid |
| Any large molecule made up of many identical small molecules is called a(n) | polymer |
| When two amino acids are joined, a peptide bond is formed and an H+ ion is released. | False |
| RNA and DNA have the same pyrimidine bases but different purine bases. | False |
| Which term means “water loving” and applies to the phospholipid head? | hydrophilic |
| Which of these is not a lipid? | polysaccharide |
| Chaperone proteins assist in the proper folding of other proteins so they can have the correct functional shape. | True |
| A saturated fatty acid is one in which | all available bonds of its hydrocarbon chain are filled |
| In base pairing of DNA molecules, _____ is bound to _____. | adenine; thymine |
| What term is often used to describe certain arrangements of atoms attached to the carbon core of many organic molecules? | functional group |
| All proteins have which four elements? | carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen |
| The lipid that is often referred to as a tissue hormone is | prostaglandin |
| ATP | is the form of energy that cells generally use |
| The most important monosaccharide is | glucose |
| DNA and RNA are important because | information molecules |
| The carbon-containing molecules formed by living things are often called | organic molecules |
| Proteins are polymers of | amino acids |
| Which of the following is polymer of glucose that is sometimes referred to as animal starch? | Glycogen |
| A triglyceride is composed of a glycerol molecule and three of the same type of fatty acid. | False |
| What determines how a protein performs? | shape |
| Osmosis can be defined as | the net movement of water molecules from a region of lower solute concentration to a region of higher solute concentration |
| The result of meiosis is | four daughter cells that are haploid |
| Normal mitosis results in | cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell. |
| The cell process in which microorganisms or other large particles are engulfed is called | phagocytosis |
| In the DNA molecule, a sequence of three base pairs forms a(n) | codon |
| A molecule or other agent that alters enzyme function by changing its shape is called a(n) | allosteric effector |
| Diffusion moves | down a concentration gradient |
| The total number of 46 chromosomes per cell is referred to as _________ number. | diploid |
| Glycolysis occurs in what part of the cell? | cytoplasm |
| The two processes of protein synthesis are | transcription and translation |
| Which of the following phases is NOT correctly matched with its description? | anaphase – mitosis is complete |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of meiosis? | two haploid gametes |
| In the electron transport system, the final electron acceptor is | oxygen |
| Meiosis is called “reduction division” because | the number of chromosomes is reduced by half |
| If oxygen is available, the pyruvate molecules formed by glycolysis are prepared to enter the next phase of aerobic cellular respiration, called the | citric acid cycle |
| In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes move to the opposite ends of the cells along the spindle fibers? | anaphase |
| The component that distinguishes one nucleotide from another is the | nitrogen base |
| Diffusion can be defined as | the net movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration |
| Which of the following is an active transport process? | endocytosis |
| Replication of DNA occurs in which phase of interphase? | S phase |
| Facilitated diffusion is not an active transport process because it | does not depend on cell energy |
| If red blood cells containing 10% solute are placed in a solution containing 10% solute, what will happen? | Water will move into and out of the cells at equal rates |
| Red blood cells are placed in an unknown solution. After 45 minutes, the cells are examined and determined to have decreased in size. The unknown solution is | hypertonic |
| Proteins that act as catalysts are called | enzymes |
| Water pressure that develops in a solution as a result of osmosis into that solution is called _____ pressure. | osmotic |
| Meiotic division occurs in | primitive sex cells |
| RNA makes proteins by | translation |
| A chemical that reduces the amount of activation energy needed to start a chemical reaction is a(n) | catalyst |
| Mitosis is subdivided into four phases, including all of the following except | karyophase |
| Transcription can best be described as the | synthesis of mRNA |
| If a sequence of nitrogen bases in nucleic acid were A-U-C-G-A, which of the following would be true about the nucleic acid? | It contains ribose sugar |
| Diffusion of particles through a membrane by means of a carrier molecule is called: | facilitated diffusion |
| The small water channels in the cell membrane are called: | aquaporins |
| Water will move through the cell membrane by: | osmosis |
| Which of the following is not true of RNA? | It contains deoxyribose sugar |
| Which of the following is not true of diffusion? | Uses cellular energy |
| Two solutions of different concentrations of glucose are separated by a membrane that allows both glucose and water to pass through. When dynamic equilibrium is reached, there will be: | an even exchange of material across the membrane |
| A DNA molecule is characterized by all of the following except: | ribose sugar |
| Which of the following terms is synonymous with tumor? | Neoplasm |
| During which stage of mitosis do the centrioles move to the opposite poles of the cell? | Prophase |
| When the chromosomes align themselves across the equator of the spindle fibers, it is characteristic of which phase of mitosis? | Metaphase |
| Phagocytosis is an example of: | endocytosis |
| Which is true about the sodium and potassium pump? | Three sodium ions are taken out of the cell |
| Materials can be moved from a low concentration to a high concentration through: | active transport |
| A membrane carrier structure attracts a solute to a binding site, changes shape, and releases the solute on the other side of the cell membrane. This describes the process of: | carrier-mediated transport |
| A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than a red blood cell would be: | hypertonic |
| A sequence of three bases forms a(n): | codon |
| Which is not true about the sodium and potassium pump? | Sodium moves into the cell and potassium moves out of the cell |
| An individual’s entire set of DNA can be referred to as a: | genome |
| Extensive weight training causes the muscle cells to: | hypertrophy |
| The pairing of bases of a strand of DNA is obligatory. If a strand of DNA were composed of the base sequence of ATCG, what would be the obligatory sequence of its opposing base pairs? | TAGC |
| Diffusion requires: | a concentration gradient |
| NaCl would move through the cell membrane in which direction? | Both into and out of the cell |
| The physical process by which water and solute move through a membrane when a hydrostatic pressure gradient exists across the membrane is the process of: | filtration |
| The correct order of the phases of mitosis is: | prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase |
| All of the following occur as a result of meiosis except: | chromosome number remains at 46 |
| All of the following are examples of passive transport except: | endocytosis |
| Which of the following statements is true? | The site of transcription is within the nucleus, whereas the site of translation is in the cytoplasm |
| Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans is referred to as: | haploid |
| The type of tissue that contains cells called neurons is called: | nervous |
| Which cells electrically insulate axons to increase the speed of conduction? | Oligodendrocytes, Schwann cells |
| In what area of the body would you expect to find an especially thick stratum corneum? | Sole of the foot |
| Basement membrane is composed of molecules made by _____ tissue. | connective, epithelial |
| The area referred to as true skin is the: | dermis |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of epithelial tissue? | Is important in communication and control |
| Which type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate? | Epithelial |
| Which type of connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temperature by producing heat? | Brown fat |
| Which of the following is not a proteoglycan found in the matrix of connective tissue? | Collagen |
| Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the stratum: | basale |
| A tissue is: | a group of similar cells that perform a common function |
| Which cells help destroy pathogens and damaged tissue in the brain? | Microglia |
| Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? | Connective |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of skeletal muscles? | Having one nucleus per cell |
| Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the: | bones. |
| Which of the following is not a function of the skin? | Synthesis of vitamin E |
| Which is not a function of connective tissue? | Communication |
| Which is not a function of epithelial tissue? | Assimilation |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of connective tissue? | Typically holds its cells together tightly by means of desmosomes |
| Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called: | mesenchyme |
| Which of the following epithelial functions is a primary activity of glandular epithelium? | Secretion |
| Which of the following is not a function of adipose tissue? | Defends the body from microbes and injurious substances |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of smooth muscles? | Having intercalated disks |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of muscle tissue? | Cells are separated by a large quantity of extracellular matrix |
| What structure is formed by the union of the basal and reticular lamina? | Basement membrane |
| Areolar tissue usually contains which types of cells in the greatest number? | Fibroblasts |
| Which of the following vitamins is(are) absorbed through the skin? | Vitamin A, Vitamin D, Vitamin K |
| Which cells form the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood? | Astrocytes |
| The hypodermis: | connects the dermis to underlying tissues |
| Why is cartilage slow to heal? | because it is semi-solid and flexible, because it does not have a blood supply |
| Why are osteocytes spread out in bone tissue? | Formation of osteoid spreads out the osteoblasts that formed the ossification centers. |
| Which of the following bones is (are) formed by intramembranous ossification? | the flat bones of the cranium |
| Bones grow in length due to activity in the ________. | epiphyseal plate |
| Bones grow in diameter due to bone formation ________ | In the endosteum or periosteum |
| Which of the following represents the correct sequence of zones in the epiphyseal plate? | calcification, maturation, proliferation, reserved |
| In endochondral ossification, what happens to the chondrocytes? | They die in the calcified matrix that surrounds them and form the medullary cavity |
| Adipocytes, found in the yellow bone marrow, stores and releases ____________________________ for energy. | fat and triglycerides |
| Which function of the skeletal system would be especially important if you were in a car accident? | protection of internal organs |
| Without red bone marrow, bones would not be able to ________. | make blood cells |
| Which of the following provide flexibility and smooth surfaces for movement? | Cartilages |
| Select the answer that best describes the axial skeletal structure | Supports and protects organs, Provides framework for muscles that adjust positions of neck, head, and trunk, Provides framework for muscles that perform respiratory movements, Provides framework for muscles that anchor and stabilize the appendicular bones |
| The fontanelles of an infant’s skull consists of | Fibrous membrane |
| Which statement below is correct regarding fontanelles? | The anterior and posterior fontanelles allow for overlaping of skull bones to decrease the diamiter of the fetal head at birth, Allows for brain growth, The anterior fontanelle closes at about 2 years of age, The fontanelles are fibrous membranes |
| Hematopoietic stem cells that are found in red bone marrow can develop into a variety of different blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. | True |
| The hair follicle is found in the: | dermis |
| The hair papilla consists of _____ tissue. | Dermal |
| Which skin layer contains closely packed, clear cells that contain a gel-like substance called eleidin? | Stratum lucidum |
| The waxy secretion in the external ear canal is: | ceruminous |
| Hair: | alternates between periods of growth and rest, consists of keratinized cells, is formed from cells of the germinal matrix |
| Which cells of the skin are filled with a tough, fibrous protein and account for most of the epidermal cells of the skin? | Keratinocytes |
| Which skin layer is called the barrier area? | Stratum corneum |
| Apocrine sweat glands can be found in all of the following areas except the: | soles of the feet |
| Fingernail growth is the result of the mitosis of the cells in the stratum: | germinativum |
| Which skin layer has cells that look prickly because of the desmosomes that join the cells together? | Stratum spinosum |
| In which skin layer does the process of keratinization begin? | Stratum granulosum |
| Which is not part of a hair? | Lanugo |
| Which cells of the skin act as a type of antigen-presenting cell in the skin? | Dendritic cells |
| Smooth muscles that produce goose pimples when they contract are the _____ muscles. | arrector pili |
| The nail body forms at the nail root, which has a matrix of proliferating cells from the _____________ that enables the nail to grow continuously. | stratum basale |
| An age-related skeletal disease that is characterized by loss of bone mineral density and increased bone fragility is | osteoporosis |
| Before childbirth, the symphysis pubis softens. | True |
| Because of how the clavicle articulates with the scapula, all shoulder movements involve the sternoclavicular joint. | True |
| Hematopoiesis is carried out in the: | red bone marrow |
| Which structures are unique to the fetal skull and provide additional space for molding the head shape as the baby passes through the birth canal? | fontanels |
| Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes begin to divide and secrete | additional matrix |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of the epiphyses? | Cylindrical in shape |
| Bones act as a reservoir for which of the following minerals? | Calcium |
| The cells responsible for active erosion of bone minerals are called: | osteoclasts |
| The humerus articulates proximally with the | scapula |
| The following are functions of bone except for | support, protection, mineral storage, hematopoiesis |
| Young children’s bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone. | False |
| During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the: | pelvic outlet |
| The primary ossification center of a long bone is located: | in the diaphysis |
| After the age of 50, the density of bone: | decreases slowly because of a shift in the remodeling activity |
| Bones grow in diameter by the combined action of which two of the three bone cell types? | osteoblasts and osteoclasts |
| Until bone growth in length is complete, a layer of the cartilage, known as the _____, remains between the epiphysis and diaphysis. | epiphyseal plate |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of the diaphysis? | Provides a bulbous shape for attachment of muscle |
| A condition that is caused by an abnormally increased roundness in the thoracic curvature is | kyphosis |
| In the epiphyseal plate, the zone of hypertrophy is in the _____ layer | third |
| Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of _____ years. | 35 and 40 |
| An open fracture is also known as a compound fracture. | True |
| Which of the following is not dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood? | Blood clotting, Transmission of nerve impulses, Contraction of cardiac muscle |
| Blood calcium levels involve secretion of which two hormones? | parathyroid and calcitonin |
| The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are: | endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus |
| Which of the following may cause skeletal variations? | Inadequate supply of calcium and vitamin D, Mechanical stress, Age |
| The humerus articulates proximally with the clavicle. | False |
| In bone growth, the medullary cavity is enlarged because of the activity of: | osteoclasts |
| The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the: | thumb |
| As the activity of osteoblasts increases, the | amount of calcium in bone increases, level of calcium in the blood decreases |
| A contraction in which muscle length remains the same but muscle tension increases is called an | isometric contraction |
| Synovial joints are | freely movable |
| The energy required for muscular contraction is obtained by hydrolysis of | ATP |
| Repeated stimulation of muscle in time lessens its excitability and contractibility and may result in | fatigue |
| Synarthrotic joints are | immovable |
| Which of the following is an example of a uniaxial joint? | elbow joint |
| According to the sliding filament theory | actin moves past myosin |
| The muscle’s ability to stretch or extend and to return to its resting length is called | extensibility |
| Which structure allows the electrical signals to travel along the sarcolemma and move deeper into the cell? | transverse tubule |
| Joints joined by fibrocartilage are called | symphyses |
| The joint present during the growth years between the epiphyses of a long bone and its diaphysis is the | synchrondrosis |
| Some synovial joints contain a closed pillow-like structure called a(n) | bursa |
| The contractile unit of a muscle cell is the | sarcomere |
| Three phases of the twitch contraction are the | latent period, contraction phase, and relaxation phase |
| _____ occurs when the foot is tilted upward, thus decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg. | Dorsiflexion |
| Anaerobic respiration results in the formation of an incompletely catabolized molecule called | lactate |
| Which of the following is not a function of muscles? | storage |
| The largest and most commonly injured joint in the body is the _____ joint. | knee |
| The shoulder joint is an example of a _____ joint | multiaxial, freely movable, ball and socket |
| The minimal level of stimulation required to cause a fiber to contract is called the | threshold stimulus |
| The structure of the knee joint permits movements of | flexion and extension |
| The four kinds of protein that make up myofilaments are | myosin, actin, tropomyosin, and troponin |
| Which subtype of fibrous joints is found only in the skull? | suture |
| If a structural classification is used, joints are named according to the type of _____ tissue that joins the bones together. | connective |
| Muscle tone is maintained by | negative feedback mechanisms |
| Which type of movement occurs between the carpal and tarsal bones and between the articular facets of adjoining spinal vertebrae? | gliding |
| The more muscle fibers contracting at the same time, the stronger the contraction of the entire muscle. The number of muscle fibers contracting depends on how many motor units are | recruited |
| Which of the following is not among the structures that characterize synovial joints? | tendons |
| Exercise may cause an increase in muscle size called | hypertrophy |
| The joints between the articulating surfaces of the vertebral processes are classified as what type of joint? | gliding |
| The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is that: | the sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sacs |
| The type of movement possible at a synovial joint depends on the: | shape of the articulating surfaces of the bones |
| Which of the following terms describes an isometric contraction? | Static tension |
| Moving a part of the body forward is: | protraction |
| White fibers are also called _____ fibers. | fast |
| Which of the following is not a part of the neuromuscular junction? | T-tubules |
| Which type of muscle is responsible for peristalsis? | Single-unit smooth |
| The type of movement that occurs when the head is dropped to the shoulder, then to the chest, to the other shoulder, and toward the back is: | circumduction |
| All of the following are noninflammatory joint disorders except: | juvenile rheumatoid arthritis |
| Which joint allows for the widest range of movement? | Ball and socket |
| Stretching the foot down and back and pointing the toe is called: | plantar flexion |
| Which of the following statements is incorrect about motor units? | The more muscle fibers stimulated by a motor neuron, the more precise the movements of that muscle can be |
| Which type of joint joins the two pubic bones together? | Symphysis |
| The protein molecule that has heads jutting out for cross-bridging is: | myosin |
| Which of the following is not one of the major functions of muscles? | Protection |
| In terms of function, which is considered an immovable joint? | Synarthrosis |
| What are the most movable joints in the body? | Synovial |
| Cross-bridges are also called: | myosin heads |
| Endurance training is also known as: | aerobic training |
| Which joint allows for the most movement? | Ball and socket |
| The opposite of dorsiflexion is: | plantar flexion |
| The knee joint is an example of a _____ joint. | Hinge |
| Physiological muscle fatigue may be caused by: | a relative lack of ATP, high levels of lactate, failure of the sodium-potassium pumps |
| After it is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, the calcium combines with which protein? | Troponin |
| Which joint allows for a unique movement called opposition? | Saddle |
| Aerobic respiration: | produces the maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule |
| Skeletal muscles are innervated by: | somatic motor neurons |
| In the structure called a triad, the T-tubule is sandwiched between: | sacs of sarcoplasmic reticulum |
| The opposite of eversion is: | none of the above ( protraction, depression, retraction) |
| All of the following are characteristics of smooth muscle except: | thin and thick filaments are aligned in sarcomeres like skeletal muscles |
| Most body movements are _____ contractions. | isotonic |
| The ability of muscle cells to respond to nerve stimuli is called: | irritability. |
| The substance that attracts oxygen in the myoglobin molecule is: | iron |
| During which phase of the twitch contraction is there a triggering of the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm? | Latent period |
| Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding heat production? | The body temperature set point is established by the hypothalamus, Shivering will increase body temperature, Body temperature functions on a negative-feedback mechanism |
| An example of a pivot joint is(are) the: | head of the radius articulating with the ulna |
| All of the following are true characteristics of an isometric contraction except: | movement is produced. |
| A condyloid joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. | biaxial |
| Glucose can be stored in the muscle as: | glycogen |
| The purpose of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction is to: | replenish energy supply |
| Kicking a football is accomplished by: | extension |
| Muscle contractions will continue as long as: | the calcium ions are attached to the troponin |
| An example of a hinge joint is(are) the: | interphalangeal joints |
| The lactate produced by anaerobic respiration is converted back to glucose in the: | liver |
| A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes is called a(n) _____ contraction. | isotonic |
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