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Which of the following is/are recognized as "late effects" damage caused by radiation: gene mutation in individual or offspring, cataracts, cancer, all of the above.
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When an animal's thorax is radiographed with patient lying on back, which markers should be used?
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Radiology 2
Review from Quizzes: Quiz Equine Skull and Trunk
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Which of the following is/are recognized as "late effects" damage caused by radiation: gene mutation in individual or offspring, cataracts, cancer, all of the above. | All of the above (gene mutation in individual or offspring, cataracts, cancer). |
| When an animal's thorax is radiographed with patient lying on back, which markers should be used? | VD and either R or L |
| An artifact that can occur with either flat-film or CR digital technology is: motion artifact, superimposition artifact, white light exposure prior to processing, all of the above. | All of the above (motion artifact, superimposition artifact, white light exposure prior to processing). |
| Uberschwinger artifact in digital radiography is due to: | metal in view |
| DICOM standards refers to: | (Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine) Transmission of medical images. |
| A flat film radiograph using a 50 kVp and 10 mAs produces a patient image that is too white, but a background of appropriate exposure. What would be a reasonable technique change for the retake of the view? | Increase kVp to 54 and leave mAs at 10 |
| Film Exposure Index is an estimate of: | Technique (x-ray exposure to the cassette) |
| What is the approximate age of a canine Greyhound patient if there are no fractures present but growth plates appear to be evident. | Juvenile (less than 1 year) |
| The DVM has ordered a "met check" for a 14 year old feline patient. You will acquire which images? | VD, Right and Left Lateral Thorax |
| Name three positioning aids for radiography and an example of when they may be used. | A radiolucent trough or foam cradle to assist the positioning of the patient in a VD or DV view to help keep the patient symmetrical R and L parallel. Foam wedges placed under the thorax or between limbs to keep anatomy on an even plane. Gauze. |
| List 5 preparation steps prior to taking a radiograph of any animal. | Measure the patient at the thickest area for view in the position they will be in for exposure. Gather all positioning devices and restraining equipment near x-ray machine. Clear unnecessary debris from top. Take patient to bathroom for abdominal. Sedate. |
| When imaging Caudocranial view of shoulder, the patient should be in: | dorsal recumbency. Both arms are pulled cranially. |
| When completing open-mouth VD nasal view, the mouth can be held open with: | gauze or syringe case |
| This "skyline" view of the canine skull is utilized to image which structures? | frontal sinuses |
| True or false: In lateral skull view, a wedge should be placed under the dolicocephalic nose and ramus of mandible to position the skull parallel to the cassette. | True |
| In lateral oblique views, the dog is in left lateral recumbency with the goal of visualizing the: | right TMJ |
| The DVM has requested that you image "Sweetum's" right radius. You will collimate to include the: | the elbow and the carpus |
| The DVM has requested a craniocaudal view of the left elbow. How will you correctly position the patient? | Sternal recumbency, limb extended, head turned to the right. |
| When preparing the patient specifically for skull radiographs, the LVT will take a number of action steps. Name three: | General anesthetic. Positioning must be precise. ET tube usually needs to be removed/repositioned. Measure widest width of cranium. Measurement of nasal passages is taken slightly rostral to widest area as to avoid over-exposing the air-filled sinuses. |
| When taking lateral cervical spine radiographs, the cat/dog should be measured at: | C7 |
| A frog-leg pelvis view is done when: | trauma to the pelvis is suspected |
| Orthopedic Foundation for Animal (OFA) Certification of the hips requires the animal to be (3): | At least 2 years old. Must have a microchip or tattoo for permanent ID. Must be sedated or anesthetized. |
| How many lumbar vertebrae does the normal dog/cat have? | 7 |
| Spondylosis is caused by: | unstable intervertebral joint |
| When imaging the sacrum, the veterinary technician should (3): | Verify the colon is empty prior to imaging. Turn the x-ray tube head 30 degrees cranially. Measure the patient at the sacrum. |
| Intervertebral disc spaces must be ___ to the table top for proper evaluation. | perpendicular |
| True or False: OFA hip certification requirements for radiographic position include the femurs must be extended and parallel to each other. | True |
| To image the stifle in the caudocranial view for small dogs/cats, the patient is placed: | sternal recumbency |
| Describe the technique for acquiring a caudocranial stifle view on a large breed dog. | Place in dorsal recumbency w/ limb of interest pulled straight caudally. Place other leg away from body in a normal relaxed position w/ a wedge under it. Measure over joint. Collimated to outside laterally & medially. Include some of the femur & tibia. |
| What is a dynamic spinal view? | A stress view: flexed or hyper-extended. If DVM needs more information or wants to isolate an area of interest. For lateral cervical neck, the head would be pulled toward the sternum making sure to flex (arch) neck. Avoid cutting off airway or injury. |
| What is x-ray beam divergence and how is this applied to spinal radiographs/ | Vertebrae and vertebral spaces further away from the central x-ray beam experience divergence artifact. The spaces appear artificially narrowed and the vertebrae appear falsely elongated. |
| Which of the following gases may be used in a contrast study? (room air, carbon dioxide (CO2), Nitrous oxide (NO-), or all of the above. | All of the above |
| Which drugs should not be given prior to an upper GI contrast study? (atropine, barbiturates, anti-emetics, all of the above). | All of the above. No drugs should be given that will slow the GI tract. |
| How many images should a Vet Tech take for an Upper GI study? | Images are taken until the contrast agent reaches the colon. |
| An IV catheter should be placed for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram) because: | acute life-threatening allergic reactions are possible |
| The best description of Double-contrast study is: | the use of both a positive and negative contrast agent during the same study. |
| What does an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram) evaluate? | kidneys and ureters |
| True or false: a fixed kVp chart (kVp is the same setting for all tissue thicknesses of a body region) works equally well for film and digital receptor technologies. | False |
| An aluminum step wedge is used to verify the function of the: | image receptor (film or digital cassette). |
| The best quality images will come from a Technique chart provided by: | An on-site professional radiology/veterinary technician |
| How is the Radiology Log book used to monitor Quality Assurance of radiology equipment/technique? | Each exposure is recorded with technique information along with comments on the result of the exposure. This can be reviewed at any time to evaluate the image receptor, collimator positioning, or accuracy of technique charts. |
| Name two uses for BIPs (barium impregnated polyspheres) when evaluating the gastrointestinal tract. | They can help identify the locations of strictures. They can help the doctor evaluate GI motility (peristalsis). |
| When administering barium to a patient, name two important care steps. | The patient should be fasted before the procedure (12-24 hrs). An enema may be necessary (can also decrease gas) or cathartic administered. No fecal material in GI system. Fur should be clean, free of mats, covered during administration of contrast agent. |
| List two cautions for performing contrast studies on the urinary bladder. | Do not over-inflate (negative contrast) or fill (positive contrast) the bladder. It can be easily damaged or ruptured. Avoid contrast/urine on patient, cassette, or table. Collect urine sample prior to contrast admin. |
| How does a myelogram indicate information to a surgeon/neurologist? | They can help visualize narrowing or swelling within the CSF space. Abnormal masses may be visible. |
| True or false: room air into the urinary bladder may cause dangerous air embolism. | True |
| The leak testing procedure, on an endoscope should be performed: | During every cleaning procedure, prior to instrument submersion in cleaning solution. |
| Why is the upper GI endoscopy performed (3)? | To collect biopsy samples. To dilate strictures of the esophagus or pylorus. To remove foreign bodies from the esophagus or stomach. |
| List three patient preparation steps prior to anesthetizing the patient for a colonoscopy. | General anesthetic induction and intubation. Fasting for at least 24 hours. An osmotic liquid is given to the animal during the two days prior to the procedure. If fecal material is seen on a radiograph before the procedure, a warm enema can be given. |
| Compare pros and cons of endoscopy vs surgery upper GI diagnostics or treatments. | Pro: Less invasive, faster recovery, lower mortality rate, shorter anesthetic event. Con: endoscopes are too short to visualize the entire GI tract. Endoscopy biopsy samples are small and while effective are not equal to a surgical sample collection. |
| In addition to gastrointestinal diagnostics and treatments, Endoscopes can be utilized in which other body location? | The trachea and bronchi can be viewed during a Bronchoscopy. |
| True or false: ultrasound is a cyclic sound pressure above human hearing that can be utilized for imaging tissues. | True |
| True or false: Piezoelectric crystals inside the transducer change shape when an electric current is applied to them. | True |
| True or false: color-flow Doppler assigns different colors to different tissue densities. | False |
| True or false: one advantage of ultrasound is that all organs need only be imaged once, in the longitudinal plane. | False |
| True or false: B-mode ultrasound records changes in motion over time and is mostly used for cardiac imaging. | False. M-mode (motion) |
| True or false: Ultrasound is excellent for counting puppies in the last trimester of gestation. | False |
| True or false: ultrasound of the inner structures of the eye is safe and easy to perform. | True |
| One advantage of ultrasound over radiography is: | it can assess motion of anatomic structures |
| One advantage of radiography over ultrasound is: | it visualizes easily through air |
| Ultrasound can be used to guide (3): | Catheter placement in urinary bladder. Biopsy collection from the liver. Cytology collection from the kidneys. |
| Fetal heartbeats of puppies can first be seen at ___ days of gestation. | 25 days |
| Describe the care of the ultrasound machine (3). | Do not drop the transducer. It is extremely fragile. Dilute alcohol can be used to clean the transducer. The transducer should be placed back in its cradle when not in use. |
| When working with a horse to take a leg radiograph you should always: | Let the animal know you are approaching. |
| True or false: Xylazine is a sedative that can be used when taking equine radiographs. | True |
| True or false: prior to taking the radiograph, all dirt must be removed from the hair/fur and frog of the hoof if they are in the primary beam | True |
| True or false: the horseshoe must always be removed prior to taking a radiograph, so the DVM and owner do not need to be consulted. | False |
| True or false: When taking Thoroughbred Repository Films, it is required to retake the film if a marker is not embedded in the image. | True |
| True or false: a foot stand can be used to put the foot at a 65 degree angle for the DP65 view. | True |
| True or false: when taking radiographs of the equine leg/foot...the x-ray beam is always perpendicular to the cassette. | False |
| True or false: When naming a radiographic view, the view name is based first on where the beam exits the patient, and then where the beam enters the patient. | False |
| To prevent air artifact when radiographing the equine foot, which material is used to pack the hoof? | Play-Doh |
| True or false: markers are nice, but the DVM can tell equine right foot from left foot by looking at the image. | False |
| True or false: markers are nice, but the DVM can tell fore foot from back foot by looking at the image. | False |
| When an LVT is planning the safety strategy for large animal radiography, what are the four factors to consider? | The animal (size, behavior, temperament), equipment (plates, cords, cassette holders), owner/handler, and environment. |
| If the owner will be handling the horse during radiography, list three safety requirements. | Must be over 18. Must not be pregnant. Must wear lead. Do not have them stand opposite the beam. Should be attentive to the procedure at hand. Needs to be a competent horse handler. Educate client on where to stand or how to restrain. |
| What do the letters stand for in the following abbreviations- DLPMO? | Dorso Lateral Palmaro Medial Oblique |
| True or false: The cervical vertebrae are located in the ventral 1/3 of the neck of the horse. | True |
| True or false: It is not possible to radiograph the thorax of an adult horse. | False. It just takes four plates. |
| True or false: it is never necessary to image the sinuses of a horse. | False |
| True or false: The guttural pouches are located between the eyes of the horse. | False |
| True or false: When taking skull radiographs, one can mark the skin with barium to label the image. | True |
| True or false: When taking skull radiographs, halters with metal buckles must be removed. | True |
| True or false: Sedation of the horse helps lower the head and calm the animal when taking skull radiographs. | True |
| True or false: When taking skull radiographs, the cassette is placed on the opposite side of the lesion of interest. | False |
| True or false: radiography cassettes/image receptors are never placed in the equine mouth when imaging teeth. | False |
| True or false: sheep fleece is dense, can harbor dirt and debris and may produce artifacts within the image. | True |
| Where is the beam centered when taking a lateral view of the skull? | Over the area of interest |
| Where is the beam centered when taking a lateral view of the guttural pouch? | Caudal to the vertical ramus of the mandible. |
| Which bones can be seen through air filled guttural pouches? | Stylohyoid bones |
| How is the beam angled when taking oblique view of the mandibular teeth? | 45 degrees up from the horizontal plane |
| The equine thorax is radiographed in how many overlapping sections? | 4 |
| Name the four tooth roots associated with the equine maxillary sinus. | PM4, M1, M2, and M3 |
| What is the purpose of flushing the oral cavity when taking a skull radiograph? | Flushing the oral cavity is required to remove any foodstuffs to prevent artifacts. |
| When taking an equine cervical vertebrae radiograph, there are 3 areas we discussed in lecture. Name an area, the corresponding cervical vertebrae included in the shot and identify the vertebrae the beam should be centered over for that area's view. | Area 1: Base of skull, C1, C2, and C3. Center over C2. Area 2: C3, C4, and C5. Center over C4. Area 3: C5, C6, and C7. Center over C6. |
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