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Immunology&Pharma 1
Review from Quizzes: Antiviral and Antiparasitic
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| True or false: vaccines can be reconstituted up to 3 hours prior to use. Preservatives in vaccines prevent contamination of multi-use vials. Lyophilized vaccines are always reconstituted with saline. | false |
| True or false: Regarding general guidelines for vaccinations live vaccines are not given to pregnant animals. | True |
| True or false: it is not necessary to do vital signs prior to vaccination and vaccines should be started when the animal is 4 weeks old. | False |
| Which of the following is NOT part of the Non-specific (innate) Immune System? B Lymphocytes, Monocytes/Macrophages, Physical Barriers (skin, cilia, mucous), Granulocytes. | B-Lymphocytes |
| Which of the following is not part of the Non-specific (innate) Immune System? interferon, cytokines, MCH II (Major Histocompatibility Complex II), complement. | MCH II (Major Histocompatibility Complex II) |
| What is MCH II (Major Histocompatibility Complex II)? | A group of genes that encode proteins on the cell surface that have an important role in immune response. Their main role is in antigen presentation where MHC molecules display peptide fragments for recognition by appropriate T-cells |
| Which is a core vaccine for the dog? (parvovirus, Lyme disease, canine influenza, bordetella). | Parvovirus |
| Which is a core vaccine for the cat? (FIP- feline infectious peritonitis, rabies, FIV- feline immunodeficiency virus, leptospriosis). | Rabies |
| Name two "Pros" and two "Cons" for the use of vaccinations in veterinary medicine. | Pros: Reduction of disease infection and transmission of the patient and its community. Decreased risk of zoonotic transmission to humans. Cons: Possibility of allergic/adverse reaction. Possibility of tumor development at site of administration. |
| There are four basic types of vaccines utilized in veterinary medicine. Describe the unique features of Modified-live virus vaccine. | Altered virus through radiation or chemical exposure that renders it weak. Reproduces in the body. |
| There are four basic types of vaccines utilized in veterinary medicine. Describe the unique features of Killed Vaccines. | Killed virus in vaccine. Does not reproduce in the body. The lesser immune response usually requires an adjuvant. |
| There are four basic types of vaccines utilized in veterinary medicine. Describe the unique features of Adjuvanted vaccines. | An additive to a vaccine that increases the immune response to improve memory. |
| There are four basic types of vaccines utilized in veterinary medicine. Describe the unique features of Recombinant vaccines. | Only part of the virus is used to induce an immune response like an FeLV vaccine. |
| Define "Titer." | A measurement of level of antibodies to specific antigen in patient's serum. Can be used to compare a convalescent titer count to an acute titer count. After at least two weeks. For an active infection, you would need to see a 4x increase in antibodies. |
| Describe the role of titers in determining need for vaccination (or patient protection against disease). | A high titer or low titer might affect decisions to vaccinate a specific patient, but would need specific information on that specific disease as to the correct antigen and correct level that defines "protective immunity." |
| Describe amanestic response and its relationship to vaccinations. | Quicker more effective response of immune system due to previous exposure to antigen. Vaccines allow controlled dose of specific antigen. Results in little to no clinical signs, but development of antibodies to protect animal upon further exposure. |
| How is the macrophage the "bridge" between the Nonspecific (innate) and Specific (acquired) immune system? | Macrophages are involved in both nonspecific (innate) and specific (acquired) immune responses. They present antigen/MHC2 to lymphocytes as well as phagocytize bacteria and parasites. |
| What is the function of the T-Lymphocyte? | Helper T-cells call B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes contribute to immune memory. |
| True or false: A contraindication is a condition or situation in which a drug should NOT be given. | True |
| True or false: "10mg/kg TID for 3 days" is an example of a dose and "250 mg" is an example of a dosage. | False |
| Listing a withdrawal time on a prescription label for a dairy cow is optional and at the discretion of the veterinarian. | False |
| Inert ingredients do not contain a pharmaceutical action and are added to medication to maintain medication form or delivery. | True |
| True or false: Enteric-coated tablets should not be split because this may lead to gastric irritation for some drugs. | True |
| True or false: Adverse drug reaction and allergic drug reaction have the same definition and can be used interchangeably. | False |
| True or false: "Tylenol" is an example of a chemical name. | False. Acetaminophen. |
| True or false: the drug package insert is a very good source of information for a specific drug. | True |
| True or false: OTC is the abbreviation for "Official Titer Controlled" medications. | False |
| Which of the following is considered extra-label drug use? Use in a species not listed on the manufacturer's label. Use by a route not listed on the manufacturer's label. Deviation from the withdrawal time listed on the label. All of the above. | All of the above |
| Which of the following is NOT a type of suspension? (ointment, syrup, elixir, emulsion) | Ointment |
| True or false: Regarding generic equivalents, after the patent expires, any company may produce the drug. | True |
| True or false: Generic drugs are not always inferior to trade name drugs, have different bioavailability as the trade name drug, are sometimes but not always less expensive than trade name drugs. They are not always the best choice. | True |
| Regarding blister packs and foils: | they protect the drug from air, moisture, and light. |
| Regarding drug expiration dates: | Never administer drugs after their expiration date. They may have changes in power (lower or higher). |
| Related to prescription medication, define "current DVM-patient-owner-relationship" in veterinary medicine. | A doctor can not prescribe a prescription medication for a patient that they have not examined for that particular issue. The situation would dictate how long between examination and extension of a prescription or a change. |
| Describe correct disposal of expired/excess pharmaceutical agents. | Proper incineration following federal guidelines. Can be returned to manufacturer for disposal (possibly a refund/credit). Can be left in their original containers, label crossed out with an "X" but still legible, double-bagged, and sent to the landfill. |
| Pharmocokinetics is the: | movement of drugs into, within, and out of the body. |
| Bioavailability of drugs varies with (3): | drug pH, GI motility, and molecule size of drug |
| What is the first-pass effect by the liver? | Drugs given orally go to the liver for metabolism prior to entering general circulation. |
| True or false: An antagonist is a drug that binds to a receptor and causes action. | False |
| True or false: Sub-therapeutic drug dosage is a common, safe, and effective practice. | False |
| True or false: drugs with a wide therapeutic range are generally safe and easy to use/dose. | True |
| True or false: a parenteral drug is given PO (by mouth). | False |
| True or false: some drug extravasations (chemotherapy agents) may cause extensive tissue damage. | True |
| True or false: Intra-arterial (IA) injections should be avoided because the drug will go to the local tissue and not the general circulation. | True |
| True or false: a loading dose is necessary whenever medication is initiated. | False |
| Steady state is when the amount of drug entering the plasma: | is equal to the amount of drug exiting the plasma. |
| Describe perfusion effect: | Body of animal in shock shut down their peripheral capillary ducts to limit blood circulation to core body systems (brain, heart, etc). If you administer a drug or fluids SQ or IM, the animal's body will not absorb it until homeostasis has been restored. |
| Name one drug factor and one patient factor that may affect drug absorption. | Drug factor: protein binding. Patient factor: health status of the patient (organ issues). |
| Describe the active transport process across the cell membrane. | A drug is moved into a cell actively using ATP. The drug is allowed to move from an area of low concentration. |
| If the half-life (t1/2) of a drug is 2 hours, how long until all of the drug has been eliminated from the body? | 10 hours (5x) |
| The desired target of Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is: | COX2 pathway |
| Glucocorticoids are indicated to treat airway thickening due to: | immune-mediated disease |
| Beneficial effects of inflammation include (3): | Increases migration of leukocytes to an area. Increases blood supply to an injured area. Increases activity of phagocytes. |
| Where in the Inflammation Cascade do glucocorticoids take action? | Phospholipase inhibition |
| True or false: it is okay to use glucocorticoids and NSAIDs at the same time if the animal has normal liver function. | False |
| True or false: NSAIDs work by decreasing prostaglandin synthesis. | True |
| True or false: Toxic effects of NSAIDs on the kidneys are potentiated (made worse) by hypotension. | True |
| True or false: Salicylates are often utilized for their blocking effects on thromboxanes, blocking platelet activation. | True |
| True or false: Flunixin meglumine (Banamine) is excellent for orthopedic inflammation and has a wide margin of safety for use in dogs. | False |
| True or false: All glucocorticoids are metabolized and cleared from the body within three days. | False |
| True or false: DMSO (dimethyl sulfoxide) can be absorbed through the skin and exert anti-inflammatory effects. | True |
| List two benefits and two drawbacks to utilizing therapeutic glucocorticoids. | Benefits: Anti-pruritic. Anti-Inflammatory. Drawbacks: Increased risk of infection. Delayed wound healing. |
| Describe the pathophysiology of NSAID use in dogs and cats that may cause gastric ulcers. | Prostaglandins of COX-1 pathway protect by maintaining blood flow, increasing mucous and bicarbonate production to the gastric mucosa. |
| A 50-lb dog will be treated with Carpofen for osteoarthritis at 4.4 mg/kg PO once daily. Rimadyl chewable tablets (100mg) will be used. How many tablets will be given at each dose? | one |
| An 7 lb cat will be treated for acute pain with Robenacoxib at a 1mg/kg PO SID for 7 days. Onsior tablets (6mg/tablet) will be used. How many tablets will you dispense? | four |
| A 500kg horse will be treated for abdominal pain with Flunixin meglamine at 1.1mg/kg IV. If stock drug is 50mg/ml, how much drug will you draw up? | 11 ml |
| If Meloxicam suspension is available as a 0.15% solution, how many mg of Meloxicam per ml? | 1.5 mg/ml |
| A C symbol with a roman numeral in the center on a drug label indicates that the bottle contents are: | controlled substances and have a high risk of abuse. |
| True or false: Any person employed in a veterinary facility may handle controlled drugs and enter information in log books. | False |
| True or false: It is okay to leave the keys to the drug lock box in the door during normal business hours for the veterinary facility. | False |
| True or false: the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) may make an unannounced site inspection at any time. | True |
| True or false: veterinary facilities are not allowed to employ persons that have been convicted of felony drug charges. | True |
| True or false: euthanasia solution is a controlled drug. | True |
| True or false: veterinary facilities may use normal pharmacy inventory computer software to keep record of controlled drugs. | False |
| True or false: veterinary facilities are required by law to inventory all controlled drugs on a regular basis. | True |
| True or false: lock boxes for controlled drugs may be mobile for easy use within a facility or for house-calls. | False |
| True or false: lock boxes should be clearly labeled so that all employees and visitors can identify where controlled substances are stored. | False |
| True or false: the inappetance side-effect of antibiotics may lessen if drug is given with food. | True |
| True or false: antibiotics should be given at a sufficient dosage to maintain therapeutic levels until infection is resolved. | True |
| True or false: allergic reactions to antibiotic drugs may occur. | True |
| True or false: Metronidazole toxicity may cause neurologic signs. It treats both protozoa and anaerobic bacteria. Its mechanism of action is unknown. | True |
| True or false: Penicillins and Cephalosporins have a beta-lactam ring that interferes with bacterial wall synthesis. | True |
| Antibiotics have difficulty penetrating which tissue? | Tissue with non-draining abscess. |
| True or false: Aminoglycoside antibiotics (Amikacin, Gentomyacin) are uniquely toxic to vision and the nervous system. | False. Nephro and oto- toxic |
| True or false: Tetracycline antibiotics are broad spectrum bacteriostatic agents with activity against Rickettsia (such as Lyme Disease). | True |
| True or false: Fluoroquinolones (such as Enrofloxacin/Baytril) are safe for growing animals, such as puppies. | False |
| True or false: Imidazole antifungals (ketoconazole, itraconazole) may cause liver or kidney damage. | True |
| True or false: bacteriostatic agents kill bacteria. | False |
| True or false: if a MIC test reads Resistant, then that antibiotic is a good choice to fight that bacterial infection. | False |
| True or false: antibiotic residue in food products may cause allergic reactions in the animals or people that consume these foods. | True |
| True or false: Doxycycline may cause esophageal damage in cats and therefore pills should be immediately followed by feeding or syringes of water orally. | True |
| True or false: broad-spectrum antibiotics are always effective in killing both gram+ and gram- bacteria. | False |
| Name three possible mechanisms of action for antibiotics to kill or inhibit bacteria. | Cell wall damage. Nucleic acid agent. Protein synthesis. Add to......... |
| Describe how bacterial resistance to an antibiotic may develop. | Antibiotic resistance occurs when bacteria change in some way that reduces or eliminates the effectiveness of drugs, chemicals, or other agents designed to cure or prevent infections. Sometimes because of sub-therapeutic dosages or not completing Rx. |
| List three side-effects to sulfonamides antibiotics (Sulfa drugs) that are not common to other antibiotics. | Dry eye (KCS: Keratoconjunctivis syndrome). Crystalluria. Severe allergic reaction. |
| True or false: Griseofulvin is an antifungal agent with teratogenic properties. | True |
| True or false: Chloramphenicol may cause bone marrow damage and so veterinary staff and owners should wear gloves to administer this drug. | True |
| True or false: if an animal is allergic to penicillin, then a cephalosporin is a good alternative. | False |
| The DVM has prescribed 225mg of cephalexin IV to be administered q. 8 hours. If the dog weighs 10kg and the cephalexin is 100mg/ml, how many ml of drug will you give at the next dose? | 2.25 ml |
| The DVM has prescribed a cat t receive 50mg/kg of Griseofulvin PO SID for 30 days. If the cat weighs 11#, how many capsules will you send home? The capsules available are 125mg or 250mg. | 30 capsules (250mg size) |
| Imidazole antifungals (ketoconazole, fluconazole) work by causing the fungal cell membrane to leak. | True |
| True or false: there is a test to identify animals at increased risk of toxicity to the Avermectin drug class (such as Ivermectin). | True |
| True or false: After adulticide therapy, a microfilaricide must be given during treatment of heartworm (Dirofilaria immitis). | True |
| True or false: side effects of treatment of heartworm (Dirofilaria immitis) might include injection site pain, allergic reaction, and vascular obstruction in the lungs. | True |
| True or false: an intramuscular injection of melarsomine is an effective adulticide for heart worm (Dirofilaria immitis). | True |
| ___ inhibit acetylcholinesterase activity in the neuromuscular junction. | Organophosphates |
| A 1200 lb Angus bull needs to be dewormed with albendazole liquid at a dose of 10mg/kg po. If albdendazole is available at a concentration of 113.6 mg/ml, how many milliliters are needed to treat this bull? | 48ml |
| A heifer weighs 100 lbs and has been Diagnosed with coccidia. The DVM orders amprolium at a dose of 10mg/kg po SID for 5 days. On hand is Corid liquid (9.6% amprolium). How many ml will you dispense to treat this calf? | about 24ml |
| True or false: Nitenpyram (Capstar) kills adult fleas and is safe for kittens older than 4 weeks. | True |
| True or false: prevention of heartworm disease requires the stopping of the L3 stage from reaching maturity. | True |
| True or false: anticoccidial drugs such as sulfadimethoxine (Albon) are coccidiocidal, killing the protozoa. | False. They are coccidiostatic. |
| True or false: antiviral drugs act by preventing viral penetration of the host cell or by inhibiting the production of viral RNA or DNA. | True |
| True or false: Insect Development Regulators (IDRs) inhibit synthesis of chitin, making them safe for use in mammals. | True |
| List three possible clinical signs of organophosphate toxicity. | SLUDDE or SLUDGE: Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Dyspnea, Defecation, Emesis or Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, GI distress, Emesis. |
| List two qualities of the ideal parasiticide drug. | Kills or restricts the development of parasites without inciting resistance. Does not harm the host. |
| NSAIDs cause gastric ulcers by which mechanisms (3)? | Block mucous production by prostaglandins. Increase gastric acid production. Decrease bicarbonate buffers. |
| What OTC intestinal protectant changes feces to a black color? | bismuth subsalicylate (Peptobismal) |
| Opiate-related drugs (such as loperamide) control diarrhea by which mechanism? | Decreasing peristalsis and increasing segmental contractions. |
| Histamine-2 receptor antagonists (H2 Blockers) function by: | inhibiting histamine induced HCl acid production |
| Centrally acting emetics (apomorphine) work by: | stimulating dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CRTZ) |
| Which class of anti-emetics has the side effect of hypotension? | phenothiazine derivatives (Chlorpromazine). |
| Proton-pump Inhibitors (omeprazole, Nexium) treat ulcers by: | preventing the parietal cell from making HCl |
| Before inducing vomiting, the veterinary team must evaluate the patient for contraindications. Name three possible contraindications for inducing emesis. | GI obstruction. Risk of gastric rupture. Hx or suspicion of the animal ingesting a caustic substance. |
| Diarrhea is caused by an imbalance of fluid secretion and fluid reabsorption in the intestinal tract. Name two possible mechanisms for this imbalance to occur. | Exudative. Malabsorption from parvovirus. Osmotic. |
| Dr. Smith (DVM) has diagnosed Giardia in Brandy Johnson (canine). If the dose is 25mg/kg BID for 5 days, and Brandy weighs 45#; how many 500mg tablets will you dispense for Brandy? | 10 |
Created by:
Raevyn1
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