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Lrg Animal Medicine
Review from Quizzes: Study for Final Exam
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The following are a list of vaccines commonly given to horses. Choose the vaccines commonly considered "core" vaccines: (Streptococcus equi, West Nile Virus, Tetanus, Rabies, Equine Rhinopneumonitis, Eastern and Western Encephalitis, Equine Influenza) | West Nile Virus, Tetanus, Rabies, and Eastern/Western Encephalitis. |
| The following are a list of vaccines commonly given to horses. Please list the diseases caused by bacterial infection: (Streptococcus equi, West Nile Virus, Tetanus, Rabies, Equine Rhinopneumonitis, Eastern and Western Encephalitis, Equine Influenza) | Streptococcus equi and Tetanus |
| Describe the Leptospirosis etiology, vaccine, clinical signs, and treatments. | A spirochete transmitted through consumption of contaminated water or mucous membrane or wound exposure in infected water. Renal disease/failure, lethargy, fever, jaundice, anorexia. Supportive care and treatment appropriate to clinical signs. |
| Describe the Rabies etiology, vaccine, clinical signs, and treatments. | A virus transmitted through a bite wound from an infected animal. Mucous membrane transmission is possible but less common. Behavior changes, anorexia, excess salivation, convulsions, death. There is no treatment in animals. |
| What is true about risk based vaccines: (Are all for diseases that are zoonotic. They are based on specific locations and conditions. Only given to foals. Only given for diseases caused by bacteria). | They are based on specific locations and conditions. |
| True or false: the Coggins test and form are used to check for infection with Equine Infectious Anemia. | True |
| True or false: post exposure treatment for rabies is available for animals. | False |
| Which is NOT an appropriate management technique to limit intestinal parasitism in horses: avoid overgrazing of fields, quaratine new animals and check fecal egg counts, feeding animals on the ground, collecting and composting manure. | Feeding animals on the ground. |
| What are possible clinical signs of severe, chronic parasitism in horses (4)? | Chronic weight loss. Tail head itching. Rough, dull hair coat. Chronic diarrhea. |
| True or false: generally horses need their feet trimmed every 8 to 12 weeks. | True |
| True or false: horse's teeth continuously erupt throughout their lifetime. | True |
| True or false: Equine Streptococcus equi infections are usually fatal. | False |
| True or false: Sinus infections in horses are often caused by tooth root infections. | True |
| True or false: the virus that causes Equine Viral Rhinopneumonitis persists in the horse's lymph nodes for long periods of time until it is reactivated and undergoes "recrudescence." | True. Recrudescence is the recurrence of an undesirable condition. |
| True or false: a common term for Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary disease is "heaves." | True |
| True or false: exercise induced pulmonary hemorrhage is commonly treated with antibiotics. | False. Diuretics like furosemide (used to reduce extra fluid in the body (edema) caused by conditions such as heart failure, liver disease, and kidney disease). |
| True or false: Dorsal displacement of the soft palate results in partial airway obstruction usually when at high speed. | True |
| True or false: Viral lower airway infections usually only affect older animals with minimal exposure to other horses. | False |
| What are two clinical signs that would help you determine if a horse had lower airway disease rather than upper airway disease? | Heave lines. Lack of or unusual breath sounds when lungs are auscultated. Usually on expiration. |
| Name two clinical signs of horses with guttural pouch disease (either bacterial or fungal). | Epistaxis or neurological deficiencies. Yellow nasal discharge. Especially when the head is lowered. |
| What is Laryngeal Paralysis? Name two clinical signs. What treatments is available? | Arytenoid is obstructing the airway. Stridor on inspiration when exercised or poor work performance. Laser surgery or pin back technique. |
| True or false: skull radiographs are not helpful for evaluating the sinus cavities of horses. | False |
| What is trephination? | (also known as trepanning or burr holing) is a surgical intervention where a hole is drilled, incised or scraped into the skull using simple surgical tools. |
| True or false: Chronic sinusitis in horses can be caused by viral or bacterial infections. | True |
| True or false: Clinical signs of Chronic sinusitis in the horses include nasal discharge, swelling, and foul breath. | True |
| True or false: Chronic sinusitis in horses can be evaluated with Endoscopy. | True |
| All of the following are possible treatments for Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease EXCEPT: Oral treatment with corticosteroids and antihistamines. Keep horse in stall in barn. Avoiding dusty feeds. Use of inhaler therapy. | Keep horse in stall in barn |
| A young horse and several others in the barn have had a sudden onset of fever, thick yellow nasal discharge and marked swelling of the submandibular lymph nodes. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? | Streptococcus equi |
| What is a flex test? How is it helpful in a lameness exam? | DVM flexes each individual joint for 60 seconds then has the horse walk or trot while they assess them from the front, side, behind. They are looking for changes in the horse's gait that indicate increased lameness due to stress and irritation on joint. |
| Which gait is lameness best evaluated at? | A trot |
| What is a trot? | (with reference to a horse or other four-legged animal) proceed or cause to proceed at a pace faster than a walk, lifting each diagonal pair of legs alternately. |
| A horse has lameness in a front leg. Which of the following clinical signs is the horse unlikely to show? (hip hike, increase in lameness when circling, decrease in limb flexion, head bob). | hip hike |
| A horse has lameness in a front leg. What three clinical signs might you see in this case? | head bob, decrease in limb flexion, increase in lameness when circling. |
| True or false: a grade I lameness is more evident than a grade 5 lameness. | False |
| What is a Nerve Block on an equine leg? How is it helpful in lameness evaluation? | A local anesthetic is being injected into the limb. A DVM can systematically numb the suspected limb, starting distally, to establish at which joint is causing the lameness. After the area is numbed. The horse's gait is assessed for improvement. |
| You are presented with a horse with obvious left forelimb lameness. What are FOUR important questions to ask the owner of the horse before the lameness exam? | When did the lameness begin. Always present? Is it associated with any particular activities. Has it gotten worse/better since it started? What is the horse's job? Level of activity? How often? Diet? Changes in appetite? Injurey or had any accidents. |
| Using appropriate tests you've localized the lameness in the previous horse with an acute left forelimb lameness to pain in or around the hoof. Please list two possible causes (differentials) for acute lameness somewhere in the hoof. | Laminitis. White line disease. |
| You are presented with a 12-year-old Thoroughbred mare who has come up Grade 4 out of 5 lame on right front leg after a jumping competition. There is obvious swelling & pain on palpation of superficial digital flexor tendon & obvious bulge in the tendon. | Bowed tendon. Radiography or ultrasound to evaluate. |
| Synovial effusion without inflammation or lameness of the joint pouches of the front or hind leg is referred to as: | wind puff |
| Osteoarthritis of the small joints of the hock is called: | Bone spavin |
| ___ is caused by osteoarthritis of the distal interphalangeal joint (pastern). | Low ring bone |
| ___ result from strain on the interosseus ligament attached to the cannon bone resulting in bone formation. | "Splints" |
| You are presented with a 2 year old Thoroughbred colt who is in training at the race track. He recently started training hard and has become acutely lame with pain, swelling and warmth of the dorsal metacarpal area in both front legs. | Bucked shins. Radiographs and ultrasound. |
| You are presented with a 3 year old Warmblood gelding (large, fast growing, sport horse) with a hx of chronic, progressive weakness in hind legs. What TWO other physical exam tests might be added to your lameness exam if you suspect a neurologic problem? | Foot placement (proprioception). Tail tug and sway. |
| True or false: stress diarrhea in the horse is usually self-limiting and does not require treatment. | True |
| True or false: Salmonella is the most common diagnosed infectious cause of diarrhea in the horse but luckily does not spread to other horses or humans. | False |
| True or false: over-dosage with NSAIDs such as phenylbutazone or banamine can result in right dorsal colitis. | True |
| True or false: only oral antibiotics are associated with antibiotic induced diarrhea. | False |
| True or false: A 1000 lb horse is 10% dehydrated and severe fluid losses may require more than 100 L of intravenous fluids per day. | True. Weight (lbs) x .10 (10%) = 100 L |
| What is the definition of equine choke and what are three clinical signs? | Esophageal Obstruction. Palpable lump obstruction in the esophagus. Feed/fluids leaking from the nose. Difficulty passing an NG tube. |
| Which is NOT a complication after choke? (Esophageal stricture, aspiration pneumonia, gastric ulcers, perforation of the esophagus) | Gastric ulcers |
| What are three possible complications of choke in a horse? | Esophageal stricture. Aspiration pneumonia. Perforation of the esophagus. |
| What management changes are best for horses diagnosed with gastric ulcers? | Allow more time to graze in pasture. Smaller more frequent meals throughout the day. Limit grain. Increased exercise. |
| What is the typical medication given for gastric ulceration? | Omeprazole |
| What are five clinical signs of colic in the horse? | Straining to defecate. Appearing to strain w/ little to no urine. Rolling on ground excessive laying down. Sweating. Persistent pawing at ground (could cause hoof wall damage), abdominal distension, kicking at their abdomen or turning to look at flank. |
| What are four important ways (procedures) a veterinarian and veterinary technician can evaluate a horse experiencing colic? | Hx (including husbandry and physical exercise/ work) and PE (mm, crt, temp, pulse/quality, rr). Observation of their environment. Percussion of abdomen. Auscult borborygmi. Rectal exam. Don't damage rectum & avoid arm injury. Stand cranial as possible. |
| ___ colic is caused from accumulations of gas, often from a change in feed. Can cause distention of the intestines and pain. | Spasmodic colic |
| ___ colic is caused by an obstruction of the gastrointestinal tract with feed or foreign material. | Impaction colic |
| ___ colic results when mobile areas of intestine can move and become twisted or moved. | Displacement or Entrapment |
| ___ colic is caused by a lack of blood supply causing cell and tissue death. | Necrotic colic |
| What are three important complications of severe diarrhea in the horse? | Dehydration & Electrolyte imbalances. Septicemia. Death. |
| Which area of the intestine in NOT a common site for impaction? (body of cecum, small intestine, pelvic flexure, base of cecum) | small intestine |
| What three areas are common sites of impaction in the horse? | Body of the cecum. Pelvic flexure. Base of the cecum. |
| Describe Spasmodic colic (gassy) and how it is typically treated. | Pain related to distension. Treated w/ NSAID. An antispasmodic. An NG tube is placed: allows passage of gas & other contents of stomach (previously blocked by the LES). Fluids thru IV an NG tube. Food withheld. Hand walking to provide relief. |
| True or false: the major decision to make when evaluating a colicky horse is to determine if it is best treated with surgery or medical therapy. | True |
| True or false: equine reproduction is highly efficient. | False |
| True or false: Cryptorchid stallions are fine to use for breeding. | False |
| True or false: The second stage of labor in the horse can last for several hours. | False |
| True or false: Dystocia during labor often results in the death of the foal. | True |
| True or false: Premature foals are easy to treat and have an excellent prognosis. | False |
| True or false: Foals can be premature/dysmature even if born on their due dates. | True |
| True or false: Mares are equally fertile in the winter as they are in the summer. | False |
| True or false: uterine artery ruptures are easily corrected with surgical intervention. | False |
| Please name three different causes of equine abortion and indicate which is the #1 cause of infectious abortion. | Equine Hepatitis Virus (EHV-1) #1 Cause of infectious abortion. Endometritis or Infectious Metritis. Dystocia resulting in the need for Fetotemy. |
| True or false: Excellent suckle response in a sign of a premature foal. | False |
| What are four clinical signs of a premature foal? | weak, floppy ears and limbs, silky hair, poor suckle response. |
| What is Neonatal Isoerythrolysis? What clinical signs can the foal show. How could it be prevented in future foals of the same mare? ADD to: | When there is an incompatibility between the foal's and mare's blood type. This disease can be very severe, and sometimes fatal. Thus, prevention and early detection are key. NI can occur in all breeds of horses and mules, and is seen in maiden mares. |
| What are two reasons that a young foal may strain and react colicky? | Bladder rupture. Patent urachus or infection caused by it. |
| What is the name for the surgical procedure in which the dorsal aspect of her vulva is sewn shut? | Caslicks surgery (procedure). To prevent debris or bacteria from getting past the vulva to the vagina and/or uterus. They suture it closed but must open it for parturition and breeding. |
| What are three options for treatment of dystocia in a mare? | C-Section. Reposition the foal. Fetotemy. |
| What is the usual timeline for passage of the equine placenta? What are possible treatments? What are possible complications from a retained placenta? | Immediately to six hours. DVM could assist with removal. Flush the area. Possible with antibiotics to prevent infection. Infection. Inflammation. Death. |
| The esophagus of the horse has both skeletal (striated) and smooth muscle and is controlled by the vagus nerve. The bovine esophagus is: | skeletal muscle (striated) muscle all the way down to the stomach and is controlled by the vagus nerve. |
| Ruminant saliva has two key functions: | It keeps the rumen contents a fluid consistency and alkalizes (neutralizes) acids produced by microbial fermentation in the rumen. |
| In order for rumination to occur (the eschewing of a food bolus), the following action must take place. | The lower esophageal sphincter must relax, allowing the food bolus back up the esophagus and into the mouth. |
| The three "forestomachs" of a ruminant are the: | reticulum, omasum, rumen |
| Hardware disease (Traumatic Reticuloperitonitis) occurs when: | A sharp object is swallowed and penetrates the wall of the reticulum. |
| Grain overload (rumen acidosis) occurs when a cow ingests excessive amounts of: | easily digestible carbohydrates |
| If rumen acidosis has occur ed, a sample of rumen fluid will have a pH that is: | lower than normal (acidic) |
| The term "displaced abomasum" refers to: | a change in position of the abomasum to either the left or right of the rumen. |
| The abomasum of the ruminant produces water, mucus, pepsinogen, rennin, and: | hydrochloric acid (HCl acid) |
| Bovine Viral Diarrhea and Johne's Disease have a characteristic in common that makes them very difficult to eliminate: | Infection with either disease can result in healthy looking animals that are persistently infected and act as carriers. |
| A zoonotic pathogen that can affect ruminants and be transmitted to humans is: | Salmonella spp bacteria |
| Winter Dysentery is characterized by: | Explosive sometimes bloody diarrhea, loss of appetite, and a decrease in milk production in housed dairy cattle. |
| The purpose of having a ruminant swallow a magnet is to: | attract metallic foreign bodies and prevent Hardware Disease. |
| Abomasal displacement is more common in certain deep-bodied cows and can also occur in association with: | Mastitis, Milk Fever, Metritis |
| Describe Free Gas Bloat - Intra: | Caused by diets that result in excessive gas production and low pH (acidity) within the rumen (usually concentrates which are easily digestible carbs). The low intraruminal pH inhibits the cyclic contractions of the fore stomachs and gas accumulates |
| Describe Free Gas Bloat - Extra: | Caused factors outside the forestomachs (ie outside the rumen): esophageal obstruction (choke), postural bloat (animal gets trapped; falls into a ditch & can't roll over to get sternal), hypocalcemia, medications (ie. xylazine), severe inflammation & pain |
| Describe Frothy Bloat: | Caused by diets that lead to formation of a stable froth in the rumen (lots of legumes, lush fresh pastures, grain overload) |
| Name 3 of the 5 sources of lost income due to mastitis we discussed in class. | Decreased milk production. Expense of Veterinary Visit. Expense of Treatment and Medication. |
| When is mastitis most commonly diagnosed during the cow's lactation (days in milk)? | The first 30-60 days. |
| What somatic cell count level is indicative of NO mastitis? | 50,000 - 100,000 somatic cells/ml |
| True of false: Subclinial mastitis results in increases in undesirable milk components (electrolytes) and decreases in the desirable components (fat, protein). | True |
| True or false: pasteurized milk that is processed from raw milk with a SCC below 250,000 has a significantly longer shelf-life than products make from milk with a SCC above 500,000. | True |
| Name the 5 main bacterial causes of bovine mastitis. | Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus agalactiae, Escherichia coli, Clostridium perfringens, Mycoplasma. |
| Milk culturing is performed to identify bacterial causes of mastitis during lactation. Name two times during lactation that a producer may want to perform a milk culture. | Before parturition. Before restarting milking after drying off period. |
| Good milk quality can be simplified into 6 components, name three: | Protein, fat, Nutrient content like calcium |
| There are ten "Mastitis Prevention Principles" discussed in class. Identify five of those principles: | Clean milking equipment before milking and between. Cleaning teats before milking. Clean environment. Reduce stress. Good nutrition and regular access to clean water. |
| Describe the correct placement of chains on a calf's leg when needing to pull a calf due to a obstetrical problem. | 1 loop proximal to the fetlock joint and 1 loop distal to the dew claws with the large link on the dorsal aspect of the foot. |
| The most common approach for a bovine caesarean section is: | Standing left flank |
| What is a "calf jack?" How is it helpful for a dystocia? | Instrument is placed on the "pin bones" of cow and this is used to leverage the calf out with continuous traction by attached to come-along to OB chains on calf feet. |
| List two possible infectious causes of bovine abortion. | Leptospirosis. Brucellosis. |
| Epidural anesthesia is administered during replacement of the prolapsed uterus to abolish straining. | True |
| True or false: Neither Leptospirosis nor Brucellosis are zoonotic diseases. | False |
| What is milk fever? What clinical signs would a mildly affected cow show? What clinical signs would a severely affected cow show? What is the usual course of treatment? | Hypocalcemia. Loss off appetite and fatigue. Collapse, coma even death. IV calcium administered slowly for rapid therapeutic effect. Milder cases can be administered orally. |
| What are the Three Stages of Milk Fever (Hypocalcemia)? | Stage 1: loss of appetite, lethargy. Stage 2: muscle tremors, teeth grinding, incoordination, occasionally excitable. Stage 3: cow is down and unable to rise, progresses to lie on side, coma and death. |
| True or false: oral dextrose is given for cases of milk fever. | False |
| True or false: cows that have been "down" for over 24 hours have a 100% mortality. | False. Closer to 60%. |
| Name two of the four clinical signs of ketosis in the cow: | Lower milk yield and Weight loss. (Reduced milk yield, loss of body weight, ketones in the milk, urine or blood. Nervous signs. |
| What are three treatment are appropriate for a cow with ketosis? | Oral propylene glycol. Glucocorticoids: dexamethosone. IV dextrose/glucose. |
| True or false: ruminants have a cotyledonary attachment of their placenta and a horse has a diffuse attachment. | True |
| True or false: a retained placenta in a cow is an emergency after six hours and manual removal is required. | False |
| The large animal vet in your practice says that she's headed out to a calving dystocia and asks you to grab "all the stuff". What items are you going to put in the back of the truck? | Bucket, Short and long chains and handles, stomach pump, water and lubricant. |
| A farmer calls the clinic and his heifer is in labor and he can see a head and one front leg. What do you tell him? | I'm sending the vet out. She will need the calf manipulated into a normal position for birth. |
| True or false: a fetotomy on a dead fetus usually requires several different, carefully planned dissections. | True |
| True or false: more people drink goat milk worldwide than cow milk worldwide. | True |
| Haemonchus contortus is a major parasitic problem in ruminants. The typical problem associated with infection is? | Anemia |
| "Overeating disease" is an entertoxemia resulting from infection with: | Clostridium perfringens type C & D |
| Signs of acute rumen acidosis typically appear when rumen pH drops below what level? | 5.5 |
| Signs of pregnancy toxemia in sheep are caused by an increased blood level of: | ketones |
| Vaccine is available to prevent what disease of sheep that occurs most often following castration and tail docking? | Tetanus |
| What is transfaunation? | Transfer of symbiotic rumen microbes from one host to another. |
| Heatlth care in sheep and goats starts with prevention. List four of the seven components of a preventative health program in small ruminants. | Biosecurity. Vaccination program. Parasite control. Good nutrition. Early detection and treatment. Culling. Predator control. |
| When discussing herd biosecurity with a client, list 3 of the 5 methods to ensure no transmission of infectious diseases, parasites, and pests and maintain a biosecure flock/herd? | Buy from reputable breeders. Know the health status of the animals you are purchasing. Maintain a closed flock/herd. Limit showing/exhibiting. Isolate new animals for at least 30 days. |
| Name two species of animals sometimes used to guard small ruminants. | Llamas and Donkeys (dogs, cattle) |
| List two examples of wasting diseases of sheep and goats. | Johne's disease. Scrapie (prion). CLA, CAE, OPP. |
| She asks your advice on how to do a basic assessment of whether her animals are healthy or not. You make her a list of 5 common signs of illness you might see in a small ruminant, NOT including abnormal TPR values. | ??? |
| Coccidiosis is a highly contagious disease of young sheep and goats. Your dog may become clinically infected and ill if he ingests infected sheep/goat feces. | False. Coccidiosis (coccidian protozoa) or Coccidia infections are species specific. |
| True or false: copper toxicity is more common in sheep than goats. | True |
| True or false: Llamas and alpacas at petting zoos can transmit Cryptosporidium to children and adults. | True |
| True or false: Female llamas will develop fighting teeth. | False |
| True or false: Foot rot is highly contagious and is usually brought in by new purchases of animals. | True |
| Laryngeal Paralysis, also called Hemiplegia, occurs when one or both arytenoids do not retract causing obstruction of the glottis. Describe two clinical signs. List one: cause, means of diagnosis, and treatment. | Stridor on inspiration. Reduced performance. Demyelination of cranial nerve (left laryngeal nerve). Endoscopy. Surgical correction. Laser sx most popular. |
| Clinical signs of Equine herpes virus (EHV-1) include respiratory problems, ___, high ___ in foals, and ___ dysfunction. | abortion, mortality, neurologically |
| What disease etiology reflects chronic inflammation of the lower airways, both small bronchi and bronchioles caused by hyper-responsiveness of the airways to dust and allergens. It is likened to asthma in human medicine. | COPD: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease. Also called "Heaves." |
| Inflammation of the central nervous system caused by infection with Sarcocystitis neuroma, a protozoan commonly linked to opossums, is called Equine Protozoal Myeloenchephalitis. Name 5 - 9 clinical signs. | Ataxia, facial paralysis, dysphagia, seizure/collapse, head tilt, fatigue, abnormal sweating, narcolepsy, muscle atrophy. |
| True or false: "Choke" does not refer to choking on material that went down the trachea. It occurs when a bolus of material, likely food, becomes lodged in the esophagus. | True. Esophageal Obstruction. |
| A twin pregnancy can cause what three clinical signs? | Abortion, dystocia, uterine prolapse or retained placenta |
| What category of mastitis is most common? No gross inflammation of the udder or changes in the milk are observable. Clinical signs: decreased milk production and quality with elevated Somatic Cell Count (SCC). | Subclinical mastitis |
| Lactic acidosis or Carbohydrate engorgement or rumen "impaction" is also called: | Grain overload |
| True or false: mild cases of grain overload (Lactic Acidosis) exhibit clinical signs: dehydration, ataxia, anorexia, muscle weakness, diarrhea, colic. Severe cases exhibit: laminitis, renal failure, shock, cardiovascular collapse, DEATH in 24 - 72 hrs. | True |
| In the Bovine C-section, a local anethesia is administered in an inverted __ block or via a __ block. Lidocaine (2%) is injected SQ, as well as in the deeper layers. To restrict straining & movement of the tail, a ___ anesthesia is also indicated. | Inverted L block, Line block, epidural |
| To protect Biosecurity, and reduce or eliminate transmission of infectious diseases, endoparasites, and ectoparasites, it is important to (4): | Buy from a reputable source (breeder). Know the health status of the animals you are purchasing. Limit showing or exhibiting. Isolate new animals for a minimum of 30 days. |
| What kind of bacteria causes Tetanus? | Clostridium tetani |
| What it the incubation period of Equine Viral Rhinopneumonitis? | 3-7 days |
| Equine Lameness: Why are flexion tests used? | To put strain on an individual joint and surrounding ligaments to exacerbate lameness. Hold for 60 seconds. Start at distal joints and move proximally. Walk horse between tests to access for changes in gait. |
| What are the two types of mucosa in the equine stomach. Describe their appearance. What do you call the dividing line? | Squamous mucosa (white, similiar to tissue of the mouth or esophagus.) and Glandular mucosa (dark pink to red w/ smooth glistening appearance). Margo Plicatus. |
| What is the number one cause of infectious abortions in equines? | EHV-1. Equine Herpes Virus 1. |
| How many days does a cow lactate typically? | 305 days |
| What is the normal rumen pH range? | 5.5-7 |
| What is Johne's Disease caused by? | Mycobacterium paratuberculosis bacteria (Wasting Disease) |
| True or false: there is no vaccine available against Brucellosis. | False |
| What is the number one health problem affecting sheep and goats in warm, moist climates? | Internal parasite infection |
| What are the core vaccines for equines? | Tetanus, Rabies, EEV & WEE, West Nile Virus |
| True or false: when an equine has lower respiratory issues they will have increased respiratory sound when inhaling. | False |
| What grade of lameness (1-5) would be for a lameness that is apparent at BOTH walk and trot? | Grade 3 |
| What are the two reasons horses cannot vomit? | The esophagus enters the stomach at a very acute angle, and the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) is always tensed. |
| Which of the choices below is a mandated reportable disease? (Endometritis, Contagious Equine Metritis, Equine Herpes Virus, Rescue Toxicosis). | Contagious Equine Metritis |
| Name three bacteria that cause infection and three environmental sources. | E. coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter. Manure, barns, other cows. |
| Abomasal Displacement Name the displacements from best to worst prognosis. | LDA, RDA, Torsion. |
| What is the second stage of parturition? | Delivery of the fetus |
| What is the primary nematode that causes internal parasites in ruminants? | Haemonchus contortus (barber-pole worm) |
| What are three common stomach parasites in bovines? | Haemonchus contortus (barber-pole worm), Ostertagia, Trichonstongulus - HOT complex |
| True or false: If testing for rabies in a large animal must occur, the head with both the brain and brain stem needs to be submitted (without freezing) for testing. | True |
| What is a clinical sign that is more expected in upper respiratory disease compared to lower respiratory disease in the equine patient? | Increased respiratory sounds when inhaling. Increased respiratory sounds on exhalation are commonly associated with lower respiratory disease. |
| True or false: 70% of equine lameness is somewhere in the proximal limb. | False. Distal limb: fetlock -> hoof |
| What is "Choke?' What typically causes it? | Partial or complete obstruction of the esophagus. Caused by a bolus lodging in the esophagus. |
| What are two human health concerns of mastitis? | The potential for antibiotic residue in cow's milk (allergy and low dose exposure). Lesser milk quality: nutritional and bacterial. |
| The esophagus in the cow is ___ muscle all the way down. | skeletal (striated) |
| In what animals is the cotyledonary attachment present? | Ruminants (cows, sheep, goats) |
| What is an example of a non-infectious cause of diarrhea in goats and sheep? (E. coli, Stress, Viral, Protozoa). | Stress |
| What are three clinical signs of a lower respiratory disease? | increased respiratory sounds on expiration or the absence of lung sounds, "heave" lines, "deep" cough |
| Briefly explain what causes gastric ulcers in horses. Name three clinical signs. How is it treated? | Confinement & feeding habits. Instead of grazing roughage. Fewer large meals instead of small frequent meals throughout day. Low grade colic, poor performance. decreased appetite. Increase grazing time, increase forages, reduce concentrates, medication. |
| True or false: core vaccines for horses include Tetanus, West Nile Virus, Rabies, EHV-1, and EEE. | False |
| What is the #1 cause of racehorse injury? (Bowed tendon, Splint bone fracture, Carpal chip fracture, Bucked shins)? | Carpal chip fracture |
| Entire placenta should be passed within ___ hours of parturition. | 6 hours |
| What is Neonatal Isoerythrolysis. Why does it happen? | Occurs when mare's antibodies attack foal's RBCs. Mare is bred to stallion w/ different blood type & foal develops stallion's blood type. Mare develops antibodies against this blood type. If breed again, 2nd foal ingests colostrum foals RBCs attacked. |
| The key functions of ruminant saliva are to ____ and ___. | Keep rumen contents a fluid consistency. Keep the rumen pH between 5-5 and 7. |
| What four to eight obstetrical supplies should be grabbed by the veterinary technician? | short and long chains, handles, bucket, lubricant, water, stomach pump, calf puller |
| The losses from mastitis are how much higher than infertility losses? | 2X greater |
| The number one health problem affecting sheep and goats is ___. | internal parasites |
| Name the core vaccines for all horses. | Tetanus, EEV & WEE, Rabies, West Nile Virus |
| What respiratory disease causes yellow nasal discharge and swelling of the lymph nodes in the neck? | Strangles (Streptococcus equi) |
| List three important questions to ask the owner when getting the history of the patient. | How long has this been happening. Have they been lame on this same limb in the past? Have you treated the horse when anything? |
| What is the normal Somatic Cell Count in milk from a healthy cow? | 50,000 - 200,000 cells/ ml |
| What causes frothy bloat in cattle? | Consuming large quantities of lush pasture and legumes. Grain overload. |
| What type of placental attachment do ruminants have? Equines? | Cotyledonary attachment (buttons). Diffuse. |
| What is the ideal position for calves during parturition? | Head first. Dorsosacral. Head tucked between both front limbs. One limb slightly cranial to the other. |
| True or false: nasal discharge, sneezing, a dry unproductive cough, and roaring on inhalation are all signs of equine lower respiratory disease. | False. |
| True or false: Wobbler's Disease is a vertebral stenosis that causes ataxia and neurologic deficits in horse and usually has a low grade and chronic presentation. | True |
| True or false: Bovine mastitis is most common 30-60 days after beginning lactation. | True |
| The most common pathogen for causing viral abortions in horses is equine herpesvirus. What is the name for the vaccine that is given to mares to prevent this disease? | Equine Rhinopneumonitis EHV-1 |
| the three kinds of "bloat" that cause disease in ruminants are ___ bloat, intra-ruminal sourced free gas, and extra-ruminal sourced free gas. | frothy bloat |
| The bovine 2nd stage of labor (delivery of the fetus) should last no more than ___ hours. | 3-4 hours |
| Copper toxicity is common in sheep especially those fed a goat diet. In addition to being caused by too much copper, it can also result when there is a deficiency of either ___ and/or ___. | Molybdenum and sulfur |
| True or false: Equine infectious Anemia is a dangerous disease affecting clotting, that requires vaccination if coming into WA state. | False. There is no vaccine. |
| What are two of the six treatments discussed for a horse that is diagnosed with COPD? | Move horse outdoors. Avoid dusty or humid conditions (avoid dusty feed). Provide good ventilation. Corticosteroids. Antihistamines. Bronchodialators. |
| How is regional anesthesia used to localize the causative area of lameness in a horse. | DVM administers a regional anesthesia and evaluates changes in lameness, continually administering anestheti distal -> proximal along the leg until lameness changes. The DVM can determine area of lesion based on where anesthetic is most effective. |
| How would NSAIDs cause drug induced diarrhea? | They cause ulceration in the GI tract. Irritating the horse's body. Resulting in diarrhea. |
| True or false: Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM) is a sexually transmitted disease caused by a bacterial organism, and affected horse must quarantine for a minimum of 21 days and be treated. | True |
| True or false: Ovine Progressive Pneumonia (OPP) and Caprine Arthritic Encephalitis (CAE) are infections primarily transmitted through infected colostrum. | True |
| True or false: Internal parasites are the #1 problem affecting sheep and goat in warm moist climates. | True |
| What is one major issue caused by bovine patients being indiscriminate eaters and what is the common preventive measure taken? | Hardware disease which can result in pericarditis. Feeding magnets. |
| Briefly describe how a vet might address a calving where the calf is in normal posterior longitudinal presentation but with a forelimb retained at the carpus. | A chain or rope is attached to the distal portion of the limb. Traction is applied and then the carpus is repelled upwards and laterally. Manually pushing the calf back a bit and pulling limb into proper alignment. |
| True or false: lymphoid tissue is not found within the respiratory tract of equines. | False |
| From proximal to distal, name the order of the main bones of the equine leg (coffin bone, short pastern, navicular bone, cannon bone, proximal phalanx). | Cannon bone, proximal phalanx, long pastern, short pastern, navicular bone, coffin bone. |
| True or false: severe peracute mastitis in the cow is a severe disease characterized by the sudden onset of agalactia and toxemia. Complete anorexia, depression and a fever of 104-108F are common. The cow may become recumbent and unable to get up | True |
| What disease is caused by a lack of selenium in camelids, sheep, and goats? | White muscle disease |
| In regard to abnormal limb contact, what is forging? | The toe of the hind foot hits the sole of the forefoot on the same side. |
| What is Equine Infectious Anemia? How is it transmitted? | It is a viral disease that can affect any age, breed, or sex of horse, pony, donkey, or mule (equines). it is transmitted by blood sucking insects, contaminated needles, and mare to foal in utero. |
| What is the #1 cause of racehorse death? | Sesamoid fractures/osteitis |
| What are possible complications of "Choke?" | Esophageal stricture. Esophageal perforation. Pneumonia. |
| How do you treat a uterine prolapse? | Sedation and/or an epidural. Cleanse uterus and soak with hypertonic saline solution. Lavage and manual replacement. Often fill with sterile fluid and suture are placed across the vulva. Caslicks surgery. |
| What are seven good milking procedures? | Provide cows w/ clean stress free environment. Check foremilk & udder for mastitis. Wash teats & lower surface of the udder with warm sanitizing solution. Use a premilking dip. Dry teat thoroughly. Attach teat cups within 1 minute. Use postmilking dips. |
| What causes free gas bloat inside the rumen? | Diets that result in excessive gas production and low pH. |
| What are the three stages of parturition? | Stage 1: Contractions begin and push fetus toward cervix. Stage 2: Fetus is born. Stage 3: Placenta is completely delivered. |
| What is Rumen Acidosis? | Excessive consumption of concentrates and grains which changes the acidity of rumen and death of microflora. |
| Name four good practices of a parasite control program? | Good management. Pasture rest and rotation. Fecal egg count. Selective deworming. |
| True or false: the vaccine for Swamp Fever (Equine Infectious Anemia) is considered core by the AAEP. | False. No vaccine is available. |
| Name two primary functions of the larynx. | Protects the airways from food and water. Vocalization (phonation). Bonus: Dilation for high volume movement of air during exercise or excitement. |
| Name two fractures commonly affecting racehorses. | Carpal chip fractures and Sesamoid fractures. Bonus: splint bone fractures. |
| True or false: Horses fed 2-3 times daily are at higher risk for gastric ulcer rather than ones on free access to pasture. | True |
| Name four complications of equine parturition. | Retained placenta (metritis/septicemia). Prolapsed Uterus. Colic. Uterine artery rupture. Bonus: Dystocia, rectal tears, lacerations of reproductive tract, red bag: premature placental separation. |
| True or false: clinical mastitis is responsible for most of the economic losses on a dairy farm. | False. Subclinical mastitis. |
| The normal pH of the bovine abomasum is about: | 2 |
| Name three wasting diseases of sheep. | Scrapie. Ovine Progressive Pneumonia (OPP), and Johne's disease. |
| True or false: the mortality percentage of cow that are "down" for more than 24 hours is about 60%. | True |
| True or false: the carotid artery runs through the Guttural Pouch, so any infection or damage to the area can lead to fatal hemorrhaging. | True |
| Which Musculoskeletal Disease is the #1 cause of racetrack deaths? | Sesamoid Fractures |
| Which of the following are possible GI side effects of NSAIDs on the horse? (Constipation, diarrhea, ulcers, vomiting). | diarrhea and ulcers. Diarrhea being the best answer. |
| How long after parturition does the equine neonate have to consume colostrum for it to be the most beneficial? | 18 hours. |
| A neonatal Llama or Alpaca is called a: | Cria |
| What is the difference between Guttural Pouch Empyema and a Guttural Pouch Mycotic infection? | Guttural pouch empyema is pus in the guttural pouch usually secondary to respiratory infection and a guttural pouch mycotic infection is a fungal infection that invades the tissues. |
| Name four clinical signs of colic: | Pawing. Rolling. Lying down for prolonged periods of time. Kicking or staring at abdomen (flank). Bonus: Sweating. tachycardia, arching back, trembling upper lip, dog sitting. Playing with water but not drinking. |
| What three management factors should be changed to treat gastric ulcer? | Increase time allowed out to graze. Increasing amount of forage (hay). Decreasing amount of concentrate. |
| True or false: Laminitis is described as inflammation between the sensitive and insensitive laminae and is usually worse in the front feet. | True |
| True or false: Fescue Toxicosis causes a shorter gestational period in the horse. | False. Longer gestational period but with a dysmature fetus. |
| List four common signs of illness in ovines and caprines. | Loss of body condition. Poor appetite. Lethargy. Ears or head down. Bonus: dirty hocks or tail due to scours, fever, ataxia, lameness. |
| True or false: the esophagus in the bovine is smooth muscle and is controlled by the vagus nerve. | False. |
| True or false: a horse cannot possibly have tetanus is a puncture wound is not found. | False |
| What is a possible treatment for COPD (Heaves) in Horses: use of inhaler, move horse outdoors, avoid dusty conditions and feed, all of the above. | All of the above |
| What is the minimum amount of water/fluids a horse needs in a day for maintenance? | 30 ml/kg/day |
| All of the following are clinical signs of Salmonella in horses except: colic, dehydration, low body temperature, tachycardia, profuse bloody diarrhea. | low body temperature |
| True or false: A horse may pass its placenta several days after parturition with little complication. | False. A horse should pass the entire placenta within 6 hours. |
| True or false: the four most common organisms that cause mastitis are Staphylococcus aureus, Mycoplasma bovis, Streptococcus agalactiae, and Corynebacterium bovis. | True |
| What percent of Bovine Dystocias are caused by abnormal presentation of the fetus? | 22% |
| Rumen Acidosis in goats and sheep becomes clinical at a pH of: | <5.5 |
| What causes a Carpal Chip Fracture? | Poor condition and conformation (look up) |
| True or false: Salmonella is not zoonotic. | False |
| Name a clinical sign of Coccidiosis (Eimeria) in sheep and goats. | Scouring (diarrhea). Bonus: anorexia, weight loss, death in lambs and kids |
| Which of the following does not have a vaccine for equines? (Botulism, Anthrax, West Nile Virus, Coccidiosis). | Coccidiosis |
| Explain two potential complications associated with Caslick's procedure in mares. | Trauma to the mare or stallion during normal breeding. May lead to trauma to the mare and foal during parturition. Bonus: loose sutures may lead to gas in healing vulva which will allow debris and bacteria to enter. |
| What cells are counted when a somatic cell count is performed? What type of cells make up the majority? | All cells represented in milk (except reproductive cells). White blood cells make up the majority: leukocytes. |
| List three clinical signs of bloat in cattle. | Abdominal distention. Colic. Tachypnea/dyspnea. Bonus: open mouth breathing, cyanosis, collapse, death |
| True or false: goat and sheep feed treated with coccidiostats is toxic to horses. | True |
| True or false: parasite control programs based on fecal egg counts are usually more cost effective than blanket deworming. | True |
| Streptococcus equi (Strangles) usually affects horses of which age? | 1-5 years |
| What are some ways to prevent Thrush? | Keep horses out of mud. Keep hooves clean. Remove mud, debris, and manure daily. |
| Name four clinical signs of Salmonella infection. | Depression. Dehydration. Tachypnea. Profuse, foul smelling, sometimes bloody diarrhea. |
| What three ways can Leptospirosis infection be prevented. | Vaccination. Rodent control. Clean/dry environment. |
| True or false: Treatment for entertoxemia (overeating disease) is safe and effective. | False. Anti-toxin is usually unrewarding. Supportive care rarely works. Prevent with vaccine of pregnant dams and offspring. Avoid sudden changes in diet. |
| How often do horses need their feet trimmed? | 8-12 weeks |
| What medication is usually given for gastric ulceration? | Omeprazole |
| True or false: it is okay to use cryptorchid stallions for breeding purposes. | False |
| What are three options for treating dystocia in a mare? | fetotomy, repositioning of the fetus, Cesarean section. |
| What are two functions of ruminant saliva? | It keeps rumen contents a fluid consistency and neutralizes acids that are produced by the microbial fermentation in the rumen. |
| What are the three forestomachs of the ruminant? | reticulum, rumen, omasum. |
| True or false: female llamas grow fighting teeth. | False |
| What species are used as guardian for small animals? | donkeys, llamas, dogs, and cattle |
| What is the function of the Paranasal Sinuses? | Make the head lighter in weight and protect within the head. |
| What are a few Neurogenic reflex mechanisms a horse can experience? | Coughing, sneezing, gagging |
| What is the most common viral respiratory disease in horses? | Equine encephalitis virus |
| What type of parasite can a horse ingest to get Potomac horse fever? | Fluke |
| The innervation to the horse esophagus is supplied by the: | vagus nerve |
| How common is gastric ulcer in horses? | 90% of race horses and 60% performance horses. |
| True or false: Overreaching (in terms of limb contact) in a horse is when the hind foot catches the forefoot on the same side when moving faster than a walk. | True |
| How long should a flexion test be held for? | 60 seconds |
| True of false: Horses are prone to rectal tears therefore DVMs should perform all rectal exams in a horse. | True. Effective restraint is very important. |
| A Coggins test determines the infection status of what disease? | Infectious Equine Anemia |
| In addition to visual evidence of lameness in the equine, what other sense might you employ to detect lameness? | Hearing. Gait abnormalities may be heard on concussive surfaces even when visual cues are extremely minimal. |
| Bruising of the hoof sole as well as puncture to the hoof sole can result in what acutely painful condition in the equine. | Abscesses |
| What are four clinical signs of "Choke" (Esophageal Obstruction)? | Drooling, food coming out of the nose, continuous extension of the neck, palpation of a bolus in the esophagus. |
| True of false: Horses can carry and raise twins with few complications. | False |
| The California Mastitis Test approximately measures what component of cow's milk? | SCC Somatic Cell Count |
| Why is it important to make changes to cattle diets slowly? | To allow rumen microbial population to adjust. Rapid changes may result in bacterial overgrowth or imbalance leading to other health conditions such as bloat or acidosis. |
| True or false: Brucellosis (Bang's disease) can be diagnosed by evaluating for clinical signs on a live calf. | False. It can only be diagnosed via central nervous system evaluation of a dead calf. |
| A flerd is a strategy used to reduce predation on small ruminants and small camelids. What is it? | A functioning herd of two or more species housed together in a pasture or free range. They must be bonded and cooperative. |
| True or false: if a horse is suspected of dying due to rabies, because they are so large, they whole body needs to be sent to the lab for testing. | False. Head and brain stem. Refrigerated not frozen. No formalin. |
| What are three ways "Choke" can be diagnosed in a horse? | Palpate esophagus for obstruction. Attempt to pass NGT (Nasogastric tube). Clinical signs. |
| True or false: Male and Female horses who have been diagnosed with Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM) do not need to be reported. | False. Quarantine and treat. |
| What are three clinical signs of grain overload in cattle? | colic, dehydration, laminitis |
| What are two treatment options for a cow who has been diagnosed with Ketosis? | IV Glucose. PO propylene glycol. Glucocorticoids. |
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