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Specialty Medicine
Lecture Review Questions: Lab Research
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Oncology onc- means: | tumors |
| Oncology -ology means: | the study of |
| Oncology A ___ is a growth or mass. | tumor |
| Oncology A ___ tumor will not cause the host harm. | benign |
| Oncology A ___ tumor will cause the host harm. | malignant |
| Oncology What are four characteristics of malignancy? | Tumor growth interferes with homeostasis. Tumor destroys host tissue. Tumor invades distant tissue (metastasis). Tumor causes illness or death of animal. |
| Paraneoplastic Syndrome What are four signs that are caused at sites distant from the primary tumor due to hormones or other substances produced by the tumor? | Hypercalcemia. Fever. Bone marrow toxicity. Hypoglycemia. |
| Structural Groups Name three types of tumor. | Round cell. Sarcoma. Carcinoma. |
| Structural Groups ___ ___ tumors have round to oval cells, exfoliate to individual cells. | Round cell tumor |
| Structural Groups What are three types of disease caused by round cell tumor? | lymphoma, melanoma, mast cell tumor |
| Structural Groups A ___ consists of oval to round cells that exfoliate into clusters. The cells may arrange in ductular or acinar patterns. They have epithelial origin. | Carcinomas |
| Structural Groups ___ are of connective tissue origin. They are spindle-shaped, difficult to exfoliate, disorganized clusters or individuals. | Sarcomas |
| Structural Groups What are two types of disease the sarcomas are responsible for ? | fibrosarcoma, osteosarcoma |
| Structural Groups What are two types of disease that carcinomas are responsible for? | Squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma |
| Staging the Tumor True or false: it involves the evaluation of body involvement. | True |
| Staging the Tumor What are four things evaluated? | Assessing tissues and organs at site of primary tumor, regional lymph nodes, for metastasis, and paraneoplastic syndromes. |
| Invasion and Metastasis True or false: Step 1, cancer cells invade surrounding tissues and blood vessels. Step 2, cancer cells are transported by the circulatory system to distant sites, then cancer cells re-invade and grow at new location. | True |
| Staging the Tumor What are five diagnostic measure available? | Sample tumor for cytology and histopathology. Evaluate regional lymph nodes (measure size, aspirate, and biopsy). Thoracic radiographs (3). Imaging of other organs (liver, spleen) CT, Ultrasound, MRI. CBC/Chemistry panel/UA. |
| Radiographic Vies What are three views typically performed during a Metastasis Evaluation? (met check). | Thoracic Left Lateral. Thorax Ventral Dorsal. Thorax Right Lateral. |
| Therapy of Neoplasia True or false: the foremost goal of cancer therapy is to sustain or improve the animal's quality of life. | True |
| Therapy of Neoplasia True or false: the second goal is to stabilize (palliation), decrease, or eliminate the neoplastic process. | True |
| Therapy for Neoplasia What are four options? | Surgery. Radiation. Chemotherapy. Immunotherapy. |
| Therapy of Neoplasia When performing surgery the removal should include ___. | margins |
| Therapy of Neoplasia What are margins? | A specific amount of normal tissue in all directions removed with tumor. |
| Therapy of Neoplasia True or false: adjuvant therapy is necessary if margins are "dirty." | True |
| Therapy of Neoplasia What is adjuvant therapy? | A second modality of therapy necessary if margins are "dirty" when the tumor is removed. |
| Therapy of Neoplasia Name two adjuvant therapies beyond surgical means. | Chemotherapy. Radiation therapy. |
| Therapy of Neoplasia Most chemotherapy drugs target ___ ___ ___; this is both an opportunity and an obstacle. | rapidly dividing cells. Tumor cells divide rapidly. |
| Therapy of Neoplasia What cells in the body are known to rapidly divide? | GI tract. Bone marrow cells. Hair cells. Fetal cells. |
| A ___ ___ is a treatment plan which includes several different chemotherapy drugs in a specific sequence, spacing, and dose. | chemotherapy protocol |
| Why are chemotherapy protocols used? | Multi-drug protocols protect the animal from chemotherapy resistance and the side-effects unique to one specific drug. |
| What are four to nine chemotherapy side-effects? | Vomiting. Poor appetite. Diarrhea. Low white cell (Nadir): risk of sepsis. Anemia or low platelets. Tissue trauma at injection site. Neurologic signs. Organ damage (heart, kidneys, liver). Hair loss (Poodles, Bichons, Maltese). |
| Chemotherapy: Patient Safety True or false: a careful history and physical should be performed prior to every treatment. | True |
| Chemotherapy: Patient Safety ___ monitoring at nadir is important. | CBC |
| Chemotherapy: Patient Safety ___ check every dose before administration. | triple |
| Chemotherapy: Patient Safety True or false: perfect administration technique is essential. | True |
| Chemotherapy: Patient Safety What are three types of support medication? | Antiemetics. Fluids. Antibiotics. |
| Chemotherapy: Patient Safety What should be done if side-effects occur? | dose or protocol should be changed. |
| Chemotherapy: Patient Safety True or false: these patients must have minimized exposure to contagious diseases. | True |
| Chemotherapy: Human Safety True or false: clearly mark all animals that have received chemotherapy in prior 24 hours. | True |
| Chemotherapy: Human Safety True or false: only trained personnel administer chemotherapy. | True |
| Chemotherapy: Human Safety What are six safety protocols that must be maintained at all times? | Vented pin on drugs. Gown, special gloves, and goggles. Fume hoods or safety cabinets. Chemotherapy fields. Denature with alcohol and careful cleaning. Store chemotherapy agents in separate cabinets or refrigerators. |
| Chemotherapy: Human Safety True or false: pregnant people should never handle chemotherapy agents or pets. | True |
| Radiation Therapy What are two types of external beam radiation? Which is superior? | orthovoltage. megavoltage. Megavoltage |
| Radiation Therapy ___ therapy involves 30 - 60 Gray being delivered 3 - 5 times per week for 3-6 weeks. | Definitive therapy |
| Radiation Therapy ___ therapy involves 8 Gray once per week for 4 weeks. | Palliative |
| Radiation: Side effects What are three acute side effects of definitive radiation therapy? Describe them. | Skin. Oral cavity. Eye. Skin: erythema (sunburn-like), pruritis, and dermatitis. Oral: mucositis, glossitis (anorexia). Eye: conjunctivitis, KCS |
| Radiation Therapy What are late (6 months or more after therapy) side effects of definitive therapy? Describe them. | Oral cavity. Eye. Neurologic. Oral: xerostomia, bone necrosis. Eye: cataracts. Neurologic: damage to. |
| Therapy of Neoplasia: Round Cell tumors True or false: surgery often needs adjuvant therapy due to high metastatic rate. | True. |
| Therapy of Neoplasia: Round Cell tumors True or false: they are usually responsive to chemotherapy and/or radiation as the sole treatment. | True |
| Therapy of Neoplasia: Sarcomas True or false: they are locally aggressive with a slow metastatic rate. | True |
| Therapy of Neoplasia: Sarcomas What is the best defense (treatment)? | Aggressive surgery |
| Therapy of Neoplasia: Sarcomas They have ___ response to radiation. | moderate |
| Therapy of Neoplasia: Sarcomas The have a ___ response to chemotherapy. | Low |
| Therapy of Neoplasia: Carcinomas What is the best treatment? | Aggressive surgery |
| Therapy of Neoplasia: Carcinomas They have a ___ response to chemotherapy. | Moderate |
| Therapy of Neoplasia: Carcinomas They have a ___ response to radiation. | Low |
| Common Neoplastic Diseases: Lymphoma True or false: it is the most common canine cancer. | True |
| Common Neoplastic Diseases: Lymphoma True or false: it may be related to FeLv in cats. | True |
| Common Neoplastic Diseases: Lymphoma True or false: it can effect any part of the body. | True |
| Common Neoplastic Diseases: Lymphoma: Round cell What is the most common form in dogs? | General lymph node enlargement |
| Common Neoplastic Diseases: Mast Cell Tumor (Rnd) True or false: it is a common skin tumor in dogs, especially Boxers. | True |
| Common Neoplastic Diseases: Mast Cell Tumor (Rnd) If the tumor degranulates, there may be signs of: | anaphylaxis |
| Common Neoplastic Diseases: Mast Cell Tumor (Rnd) True or false: unpredictable behavior, so histopathology staging is extremely important. | True |
| Common Neoplastic Diseases: Mast Cell Tumor (Rnd) True or false: very aggressive surgery is the first defense. | True |
| Common Neoplastic Diseases: Mast Cell Tumor (Rnd) True or false: chemotherapy is necessary for metastatic disease to the spleen. | True |
| Common Neoplastic Diseases: Mast Cell Tumor (Rnd) True or false: in cats it starts as a splenic disease and spreads to the skin. Cats with splenectomy have a good prognosis (may be cured). Chemotherapy can be used in cats but survival only 6-9 months. | True |
| Common Neoplastic Diseases: Mast Cell Tumor (Rnd) The presentation for this disease is opposite to cats in dogs. | True |
| Common Neoplastic Diseases: Mast Cell Tumor (Rnd) True or false: a buffy coat prep can be used to assess. | True. Not sure effective. |
| Neoplastic Diseases: Squamous Cell Carcinoma True or false: is the most common oral tumor in cats, and second most common in dogs. | True |
| Neoplastic Diseases: Squamous Cell Carcinoma Prognosis is ___ for mandibular/maxilla forms, but ___ prognosis in lingual/tonsillar forms. | good. poor. |
| Neoplastic Diseases: Squamous Cell Carcinoma ___ can be curative for small lesions, or if used with incomplete surgical margins. | Radiation |
| Neoplastic Diseases: Squamous Cell Carcinoma True or false: good palliation with Piroxicam (Feldene). | True |
| Neoplastic Diseases: Vaccine Fibrosarcoma What is the treatment of choice? | Surgery |
| Neoplastic Diseases: Vaccine Fibrosarcoma True or false: complete excision is difficult without wide margins. | True. Due to tendrils. |
| Neoplastic Diseases: Vaccine Fibrosarcoma True or false: may be induced by certain vaccines in cats (adjuvant in rabies and FeLV). Vaccination in separate rear legs near the knee is recommended in cats. | True |
| What does NAVTA stand for? | National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America |
| What does CVTS stand for? | Committee on Veterinary Technicians Specialties |
| What does the CVTS do? | Established in 1994 to provide guidelines and specific criteria for veterinary technician organizations to facilitate the formation of a specialty organization. |
| What is a VTS? | Veterinary Technician Specialist. A Veterinary Technician or Veterinary Technologist with additional training and certification in a sub-discipline of veterinary medicine. |
| Veterinary Technician Specialists True or false: each specialty organization has designated requirements in which candidates must complete to be awarded the VTS designation in their particular discipline. | True |
| Employment for a VTS Veterinary Technician Specialists are usually employed at secondary and tertiary care centers. What are five industries they may work in? | Veterinarian Specialists facilities. Critical Care Centers. Universities. Animal-related Industries. Government. |
| What is a Society? | It is for individuals interested in a specific discipline of veterinary medicine that must represent a distinct and identifiable specialty, supported by an existing veterinary specialty. Anyone can join. |
| What is an Academy? | Designated veterinary technicians receiving recognition as a specialty and is restricted to credentialed veterinary technicians, who must complete a formal process of education, training, experience, and testing to qualify. |
| Veterinary Societies True or false: a society in the world of veterinary medicine is a place where individuals who have a keen interest in a focused area of veterinary medicine can join and share information and experience in specialized field. | True. The society is recognized by NAVTA. |
| What are four examples of Veterinary Societies? | The Society of Veterinary Behavior Technicians. Association of Zoo Veterinary Technicians. The Society of Laboratory Animal Veterinary Technicians. The American Association of Rehabilitation Veterinarians |
| True or false: there are 16 academies in which veterinary technicians can gain credentials and special recognition for highly focused education that will provide them with unique skill sets. | True |
| Name four Veterinary Academy options. | The Academy of Veterinary Emergency and Critical Technicians. The Academy of Veterinary Dental Technicians. The Academy of Internal Medicine Veterinary Technicians. The Academy of Veterinary Technicians in Anesthesia and Analgesia. |
| What are five subjects under academy provisional recognition by NAVTA? | Laboratory Nurses. Behavior. Clinical Pathology. Clinical Practice. Dermatology. |
| The AVTCP has developed three initial species-specific categories. What are they? | The Academy of Veterinary Technicians in Clinical Practice: Canine/Feline. Exotic Companion Animal. Production Animal. |
| What is continuing education (CE)? | Consists of programs of learning which contribute directly to the advancement or enhancement of skills of the licensed veterinary technician. |
| What are the CE requirements in the state of Washington? | 30 hours of CE every 3 years. |
| What is RACE? | Registry of Approved Continuing Education. It is a national clearing house for the approval of CE providers and their programs. |
| What is Theriogenology? | The branch of veterinary medicine concerned with reproduction, including the physiology and pathology of male and female reproductive systems of animals and the clinical practice of veterinary obstetrics, gynecology, and andrology. |
| The Bitch When does puberty begin? | 6 months. |
| The Bitch True or false: they are monoestrus, so only one estrus during a breeding season. | True |
| The Bitch Name the four basic stages in the Estrous Cycle in order. | Proestrus. Estrus (Heat). Diestrus. Anestrus. |
| Estrous Cycle (Non-Pregnant) Proestrus (9 days). What are three clinical signs you might see? | Vulva swollen. Bloody discharge. Attracted to male but does not mate. |
| Estrous Cycle (Non-Pregnant) Estrus (9 days, ovulation on day 2). What are two clinical signs? | Straw-colored discharge. Accepts male. |
| Estrous Cycle (Non-Pregnant) Diestrus (90 days). True or false: false pregnancy presents here. | True |
| Estrous Cycle (Non-Pregnant) Anestrus (5 months). What is this stage described as? | Sexual inactivity |
| Vaginal Cytology In Proestrus, what would you see on a cytology slide (3)? | Red cells. Basal and parabasal cells. Begin to cornify. |
| Vaginal Cytology In Estrus, what would you see on a cytology slide (3)? | All squamous epithelial cells are cornified. Rare nuclei. No PMNs. |
| Vaginal Cytology In Diestrus, what would you see on a cytology slide (2)? | Non-cornified epithelial cells reappear. PMNs present from Day 3-10 of this stage of the cycle. |
| Vaginal Cytology Describe two clinical signs in the female and one detail of what you would see on a slide. | No vulvar swelling. No vaginal discharge. Immature parabasal cells predominate. |
| Mating At what stage of the estrous cycle does this occur? | estrus |
| Mating True or false: the canine tie lasts anywhere from five minutes to an hour. | True |
| Mating True or false: it is best to mate the animals two times. Days 11 and 13 after start of proestrus. | True |
| Mating True or false: sperm last up to 7 days in the female. | True |
| Mating: Hormonal detection of ovulation Ovulation will occur in 24 hours once their is a increase in Lutenizing Hormone (LH) associated with ___ >0.5 ng/ml. | progesterone |
| Mating: Hormonal detection of ovulation Once ovulation has occurred, progesterone will increase to __-__ ng/ml. | 2-5 ng/ml |
| Artificial Insemination (AI) What are three indications? | Bitch does not accept the male. Shipment of semen. Minimize the number of breedings. |
| Insemination of the Bitch True or false: oocytes must mature in the oviduct before fertilization. | True |
| Insemination of the Bitch True or false: uterine insemination is better than cervical. | True |
| Pregnancy - Canine True or false: diagnosis from onset of diestrus via palpation can occur at Day 21-30 (only). | True |
| Pregnancy - Canine True or false: diagnosis from onset of diestrus via ultrasound can occur at Day 21. | True |
| Pregnancy - Canine True or false: diagnosis from onset of diestrus via Radiograph can occur at Day 37. | True |
| Pregnancy - Canine True or false: diagnosis from onset of diestrus via a Relaxin Assay can occur at Day 20. | True |
| Pregnancy - Canine True or false: females will accept males for 9-10 days, so breeding dates are very unreliable to predict whelping. | True |
| Infertility due to infection can lead to (2): | early or late abortions. Small litters. |
| Infertility due to non-infectious can be caused by what (4)? | Anatomic defects. Abnormal Estrous Cycles. Endocrine Disorder. Stress. |
| Abnormal Estrous Cycles What is a "Split Heat?" | Estrous cycle begins, but stops prior to ovulation. 2-10 weeks later a new estrous cycle is evident (usually fertile). |
| Abnormal Estrous Cycles What is a "Silent Heat?" | The owner does not see any vulvar changes or discharge. Ovarian development is occurring and tests (or the male dog test) will confirm. |
| Abnormal Estrous Cycles True or false: ovarian cysts and neoplasia can cause abnormal estrous cycles. | True |
| Infertility (male or female) What are two typical etiologies? | Hormonal Disorders. Abnormal Breeding Behavior. |
| Infertility (male or female) What are two Hormonal Disorders that may cause this issue? | Hypothyroidism. Glucocorticoid Excess: (Cushing's Disease - Hyperadrenocorticism) or Iatrogenic. |
| Infertility (male or female) What are five things that cause stress infertility in canines? | Over-crowding. Show or Travel. Malnutrition. Heavy physical activity. Any disease. |
| Infertility (male or female) Toxins and Medications can be causative. | True |
| Infertility - Infectious What are three possible causes? | Canine Herpesvirus. Brucellosis. Placentitis (Bacterial/Mycoplasma and Viral). |
| Female Breeding Soundness What are four factors we must access? | Hx. PE. Vaginal exam: visual, digital, and cytology. Blood evaluation: hormones and Brucellosis. |
| Male Breeding Soundness What are five factors that must be evaluated? | Hx. PE. Digital exam. Semen evaluation: morphology and motility. Blood test: hormones, Brucellosis. |
| True or false: radiology and ultrasound are great methods for evaluating reproduction. | True |
| Feline Reproduction The female is called a: | Queen |
| Feline Reproduction The male is called a: | Tom |
| Feline Reproduction Puberty begins at what age? | 6-9 months |
| Feline Reproduction True or false: their estrous cycle is seasonal from January to September. House cats may cycle year round. | True |
| Estrous Cycle - Feline What are three typical signs of proestrus? How long does it last? | Attracted to males. Rubs head and neck on objects. Vocalization, posturing and rolling. 1-2 days |
| Estrous Cycle - Feline What are three typical signs of estrus? How long does it last? | Accepts the male. Ovulation 27 hours after mating (induced). Affectionate to aggressive toward owners. 4-6 days if male present, 10 days if no male. |
| Estrous Cycle - Feline True or false: queen will return to proestrus is she did not ovulate. | True. They are induced ovulators. |
| Hormonal Changes - Feline True or false: during Proestrus, estrogen increases due to follicular development. | True |
| Hormonal Changes - Feline True or false: during Estrus, estrogen is high until ovulation. Ovulation 27 hours after mating (vaginal stimulation). | True |
| Hormonal Changes - Feline True or false: no CL develops if mating does not occur, so no diestrus. | True |
| Hormonal Changes - Feline True or false: CL produces progesterone (63 days, peak day 20). | True |
| Hormonal Changes - Feline True or false: if pregnancy does not occur or fails, CL life only 1/2 that seen in pregnancy. | True |
| Mating - Feline True or false: queens call or vocalize (low moaning sound). Owners may think this is a sign of illness. | True |
| Mating - Feline True or false: during mating, the tom bites the neck of the female. Penis faces forward with erection. | True |
| Pregnancy - Feline How many days gestation? | 63 days |
| Pregnancy - Feline Diagnosis using abdominal palpation can be effective when? | 17-25 days |
| Pregnancy - Feline Diagnosis using ultrasound can be effective when? | day 14 |
| Pregnancy - Feline Diagnosis using radiographs can be effective when? | day 43 |
| The Day of the VTNE exam What six things should you do? | Get plenty of sleep the night before. Eat breakfast before the exam. Arrive early (30 minutes). You are well prepared. First time non-pass not the end of the world. All individual scores are private. |
| What are the three "R's" of Protocol Review? | Refinement. Replacement. Reduction. |
| Anesthesia and analgesia recommendations: | Animals are not allowed to feel pain. Animals are not allowed to suffer. |
| Variances have been approved by the IACUC (Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee). What are they? | Must present scientific justification. Monitoring criteria often increases. |
| True or false: no cosmetic research at UW. | True |
| True or false: Euthanasia is necessary for research results. | True. Purpose bred laboratory animals, USDA Class A. |
| Researchers are encouraged to euthanize their own animals. Why (2)? | An effort to heighten animal awareness. Our veterinary technicians euthanize fewer domestic animals per year. |
| What are some duties in clinical service for Veterinary Technicians in research? | Solve clinical problems in multiple species. Ensure the health of research animals. Carry out treatments of disease process. Investigate disease outbreaks. |
| What are eight clinical mouse conditions? | Dermatitis. Fighting. Eye issues. Rectal prolapse. Malocclusion. Barbering. Hydrocephalus. Dystocia. |
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