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Pharmacology II
Review from Quizzes: Final Exam
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Controlled drugs must be stored where? | In a locked cabinet mounted to the wall. |
| Your patient needs a dose of mEq/liter of KCL to treat hyperkalemia. DVM requests this be added to his buretrol which currently contains 75 ml of LRS. If stock solution KCL is 2 mEq/ml how many ml will you add? | 1.5 mL |
| 152 mg = ___ ug | 152,000 ug |
| Translate this order: Apply 1/2 inch of ointment OD QID. | Apply 1/2 inch of ointment in the right eye every six hours. |
| A patient needs 0.75 mg of metoclopramide SQ. Metoclopramide injectable is 5 mg/ml. How many ml will you give the patient? | 0.15 ml |
| If both cats weigh 10#, which cat has the larger volume of distribution? | The thinner cat |
| A 1% solution of Drug X is also: | 10 mg/ml |
| What type of drug is metoclopramide? | Antiemetic. Gut motility stimulator. Used for GERD and gastroparesis in diabetes. |
| Amoxicillin 20 mg/kg PO BID for 5 days is an example of? | Dosage |
| An LVT will give medication to a cat, if both are equivalent, how should the LVT write the medication in the record. | Name of drug. Dose of drug in mg. Route of administration. |
| True or false: it is okay to give a drug labeled "for IM use" by the SQ route. | False |
| True or false: failure to give correct withdrawal time information to a livestock owner is a federal offense. | True |
| ___ means a drug is given in an amount below the goal treatment effect. | Subtherapeutic |
| A ___ dose is a drug concentration amount in the body that achieves desired treatment effect. | Therapeutic |
| ___ is a percent of drug administered that actually enters the systemic circulation. | Bioavailability |
| ___ is how the drug is metabolized in the body before excretion. | Biotransformation |
| True or false: enteric coated Denamerin liver support tablets for dogs can be split to achieve the correct dose. | False |
| Name seven pieces of information that must be on a prescription label. | Dispensers name and address. Pet owners name and address. Animal name and species. Date of order. Expiration date. Quantity of drug. Concentration (strength) of drug. Refill #. Instructions for administration including how often, route, and for how long. |
| ___ may act locally at the mucous membranes. Act centrally at the brain, and have atropine added to decrease the risk of human abuse. | Antitussives |
| ___ should be used with caution in heart patients. They may be adrenergic agonists (albuterol/epinephrine) or may be methylxanthines (aminophyline/theophylline. | Bronchodilators |
| True or false: decongestants may cause a "rebound effect" if used more than three consecutive days in a row. | True |
| Corticosteroids are indicated to treat airway thickening due to ____. | Immune-mediated disease (asthma) |
| True or false: a metered dose inhaler (MDI) does not deliver the same amount of medication every time. | False. |
| True or false: delivery of oxygen by a closed system (intubation, cage, or tent) must have a mechanism to remove CO2 from the patient. | True |
| True or false: Doxapram (Dopram) is a respiratory stimulant that activates the respiratory center of the brain. | True |
| True or false: there is no difference between a nebulizer and a humidifier. | False. Nebulizers administer medication in microdroplets. |
| True or false: a respiratory spacer is a device attached to a MDI to deliver medication to the small airways in animals. | True |
| True or false: diuretics are a good choice for drying excess secretions and enhancing healing in infectious pneumonia patients. | False |
| ___ is a drug that suppresses coughing. | Antitussive |
| ___ is a drug that makes mucous more fluid. | mucolytic |
| ___ administers ultra-fine droplets. | Nebulizer |
| ___ drugs prevent degranulation of mast cells. | antihistamines. |
| ___ is a drug that promotes water excretion by the kidney. | diuretic |
| There is a 5% solution of diphenhydramine in the treatment pharmacy The DVM wants you to give a dose to a patient with history of vaccine reactions. What is the concentration of diphenhydramine in mg/ml? | 50 mg/ml |
| The DVM asks you to give "Spot" 0.01 mg/kg of terbutaline IM for an asthma attack. If terbutaline is 1 mg/ml, how much will you give? "Spot" weighs 11.3 lbs. | 0.05 ml |
| What is terbutaline? | Brochodilator and Tocolytic (used to delay labor). Used for asthma, bronchitis, and emphysema. |
| A 22.3# pug has chronic bronchitis. DVM has prescribed her Tussigon (hydrocodone: 5 mg, & homatrophine: 1.5 mg per tab) for her chronic cough. Her dose is 0.2 - 0.5 mg/kg. Every 6-12 hrs. What is the maximum number of tabs she should get in 24 hrs. | 4 tablets |
| What are two possible signs of digoxin toxicity? | vomiting and arrhythmias |
| True or false: regarding arrhythmia treatment: the type of arrhythmia must be determined before a drug can be chosen. | True |
| ___ blockers (atenolol and propranolol) slow the heart rate. | Beta blockers |
| Lidocaine (a drug that inhibits Na+ influx into the cardiac cell) is commonly used to treat ___ and other ___ ___. | PVCs (premature ventricular contractions), and other ventricular arrhythmias. |
| ___- converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors such as Enalapril and Ramipril) lower blood pressure and decrease afterload. | Angiotensin |
| ___ ___ blocking drugs block calcium channels of cardiac muscle cells, causing decreased automaticity. They are used to treat cats with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. (Diltiazem and Verapamil) | Calcium Channel Blockers |
| What is the antidote for beta-blockers overdose? | atropine |
| The mechanism of action for nitroglycerin ointment topical is? | vasodilator |
| ___ are tapered to the lowest possible dose in heart disease due to long term concerns for electrolyte depletion (particularly potassium), dehydration, and hypotension. | diuretics |
| Catecholamines (dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine) are utilized in heart disease for? | Emergency use only. CPR. |
| Place in order of pacemaker hierarchy: bundle of his, AV node, SA node, and ventricular muscle. | SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, and ventricular muscle. |
| Define the terms preload and afterload relating to heart function. | Preload: volume of blood entering the right side of the heart. Afterload: the force required to expel the blood from the left side of the heart. |
| Name one drug that reduces preload related to heart function. | furosemide |
| Name one drug that reduces afterload relating to heart function. | nitroglycerin ointment |
| Untreated pain may lead to what four things? | Increased pain (wind up), poor wound healing, increased risk of infection, decreased quality of life. |
| The desired target of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is: | Cox-2 prostaglandins |
| True or false: opioid drugs such as morphine, and buprenorphine may cause excitatory side effects if given rapidly IV. | True |
| True or false: Opioid reversal agents last > 12 hours so patient monitoring for respiratory despression is not needed after they are administered. | False. 30 min - 90 min. |
| True or false: veterinary assistants are allowed to be in charge of controlled drug logs in Washington state. | False |
| True or false: alpha 2 agonists provide moderate to excellent analgesia. | True. They also provide moderate to profound sedation. (Dexmedetomidine & Xylazine) |
| Opioid synergy occurs when an opioid is combined with: | Alpha 2 agonists. Phenothiazine (acepromazine). NSAIDs. |
| List 5 medical or non-medical options for managing chronic pain (such as from chronic osteoarthritis). | Physical therapy/Modified exercise. NSAIDs. Acupuncture. Chondroitin & Glucosamine. Omega-3 |
| True or false: It is ideal to minimize drug exposure and therefore (PRN) treatment for pain is best. | False. |
| Describe multimodal pain management (What is it? Why is it used?) | Using various classes of drugs in combination to reduce transmission of pain in multiple areas in the body. NSAIDs with opioids and Local and Systemic Anesthetics. |
| List two possible side effects from NSAID administration. | GI upset (anorexia/vomiting and ulcers). Liver and kidney damage. |
| Name the receptor that translates tissue damage to pain perception. | Nociceptor |
| What do you call increased sensitivity to non-noxious stimuli? | Hyperastesia |
| The absence of pain sensation? | analgesia |
| Change of pain perception by the efferent analgesic pathway (spinal cord). | Modulation |
| DSH is to receive transmucosal buprenorphine for pain. 13.6#. Burprenorphine is 0.6 mg/ml. Dosage is 0.03 mg/kg every 12 hrs for 3 days. How much should be in each syringe? What is the total volume recorded in the drug log? | 0.31 ml. 1.86 ml total |
| True or false: radioactive calcium is an effective treatment for Hyperthyroidism. | False. Radioactive Iodine. |
| True or false: O,p - DDD (Mitotane) treats hyperadrenocorticism by selectively killing adrenal cells, particularly those involved in glucocorticoid production. | True |
| Type I diabetes mellitus is defined as the lack of production of insulin and Type II Diabetes Mellitus is defined as tissue insensitivity to insulin. | True |
| True or false: Diagnosis of diabetes mellitus can be accurately made if glucose is present in the urine. | False. Blood glucose will also be elevated. |
| ___ help the body resist the effects of stress (starvation). | Glucocorticoids. |
| ___ is used to treat hyperthyroidism by blocking utilization of iodine by the thyroid. | Methimazole. |
| Which type of insulin is the only type of insulin which can be given intravenously? | Regular. Otherwise SQ for other types. |
| Name three drugs that might be used to treat hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's Disease). | Prednisone. Fludrocortisone (Florinef). DOCP (Percortin-V). |
| True or false: sulfonylurea drugs (glipizide and glimiperide) are oral drugs that directly stimulate Beta Cells to produce insulin. | True |
| True or false: synthetic T4 (levothyroixine) may have different effectiveness in a patient if the manufacturer or a generic medication is changed. | true |
| What are three goals of therapy for diabetes? | General well being of the pet (and owner). Resolution of neuropathies. Maintain blood glucose levels between 100 - 300 mg/dl |
| What is the difference between U-40 and U-100 insulin. | U-40 contains 40 units/ml insulin & U-100 contains 100 units/ml. |
| A cat comes into the clinic as a Boarding diabetic and the instructions on the treatment sheet are: Give 1 U insulin twice per day. What additional information is needed? | Concentration of insulin. Source of insulin (beef, pork, human). Duration of action. |
| What possible test results would you see in a hypoadrenocorticism case? | Dilute urine. High kidney values. Electrolyte imbalance. |
| Name four drug classes used in Behavioral management. | SSRI: Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors. MAOIs: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors. Benzodiazepine (diazepam). Tricyclic antidepressents. |
| Name three anticonvulsant medications. | Diazepam. Phenobarbital. Potassium bromide. |
| True or false: hormone therapy might result in the side effect Diabetes mellitus. | True |
| True or false: Anticonvulsants may cause CNS depression and drowsiness. | True |
| True of false: anticonvulsant medication mechanism of action is decrease of propagation of action potentials. | True |
| What are three possible side effects of phenobarbital? | ataxia. liver enzyme elevation. polyphagia (increased eating.) |
| Synthetic hormones are produced for what three species? | Horses. Dogs. Cats. |
| What is a side effect of Potassium Bromide? | Profound rear leg weakness. |
| True or false: neurotransmitter levels or effects can be changed by blocking of neurotransmitter receptor, mimic or neurotransmitter at the receptor, and increased neurotransmitter release across the synapse. | True |
| True or false: regarding the use of Behavior modification drugs in animals: drugs should be coupled with environmental changes or training. | True |
| Phenothiazines (Acepromazine) may cause inappropriate aggression and starting with loud noises. | True |
| True or false: polydipsia and polyuria are side effects that might occur with administration of both potassium bromide and phenobarbital. | True |
| True or false: Diazepam (Valium) may be administered IV, orally, or rectally for equally effective seizure control at the same dose? | False |
| A grain (gr) of drug is equal to ___ mg. | 64.8 mg |
| True or false: monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) work by slowing clearance of neurotransmitters such as dopamine and norepinephrine and are used for canine cognitive dysfunction. | True |
| True or false: physical inventory counts are the ideal for controlling inventory. They are an excellent way to ensure the computer inventory is correct. They are time consuming and labor intensive. | True |
| True or false: inventory is usually only a small portion of the total budget of a veterinary clinic? | False. Second to labor costs. |
| Gabapentin 100 mg tablets come in a 500 count bottle. The cost is $45.25 for one bottle. What is the total cost @ 9% tax. Cost per pill with 100% mark up. | $49.32. $.20. |
| An ___ is created before ordering to know what the clinic has ordered and what it will cost. | Invoice |
| A ___ ___ is included in the box to show what was included in the shipment and what it cost. | Packing slip |
| The ___ is sent later with the total cost of the order and details for paying the bill. | Statement |
| What is delayed billing? | Payment is allowed over 90 days rather than the usual 30 days. |
| True or false: controlled substances can be ordered easily with the same forms for regular inventory. | False |
| Calculate turnover of inventory with the following information: Average cost of inventory over one year $67, 000. Total cost of inventory in one year is $349, 000. Is this ideal turnover rate? | 5.2 turnover rate. Total cost/Average cost. Yes, monthly would be best, but four times a year (quarterly) is acceptable. |
| Inventory should be placed on pharmacy shelves in such a way so as to ensure ___. | FIFO - First In First Out |
| What are three incentives for purchasing inventory? | Free shipping on qualified order. Delayed billing. Discounts for early payment. |
| True or false: computer software management of inventory is valuable but physical inventory still needs to be performed. | True |
| List 4 challenges of managing inventory: | Expired inventory left on shelves. Time consuming. Ordering in a timely manner to keep needed inventory in stock. Finding reliable and affordable vendors. |
| True or false: the reorder point refers to the reorganizing of items on the shelves in alphabetical order. | False. It refers to at what point an item has reached inventory level to be ordered. |
| Mannitol is used to treat: | Cerebral edema. |
| Name three drugs that might be indicated for respiratory distress. | Albuterol (Bronchodilators) Asthma. Prednisone (Corticosteroids) Asthma or Anaphylaxis. Furosemide (Diuretic)(pulmonary edema). |
| Crystalloid fluid treatment for shock can be given at a rate as high as: | 90 ml/kg over 1-4 hours |
| Which of the following fluids should not be used to treat shock: Lactated Ringers. Plasmalyte-M (with potassium). 7% Hypertonic Solution. 0.9% NaCl (normal saline) | Plasmalyte-M with potassium |
| Name three drugs that might be administered for anaphylaxis. | Diphenhydramine (Benadryl). Glucocorticoids (Dexamethasone). Epinephrine. |
| Severe anemia causing a failure of oxygenation is best treated with: | Packed Red Blood Cells. |
| What are the two primary drugs used in Advanced Life Support? | Atropine. Epinephrine. |
| Hypertension for a prolonged period of time may cause: (3) | Retinal detachment (blindness). Kidney damage. Increased risk of Thromboemboli. |
| Name a cause of shock that should not be treated with shock dose fluids. | Heart failure |
| Oxytocin should only be used if: (3) | The cervix is dilated. Any malpositioning of the fetus has been resolved. Blood test for calcium and glucose levels are normal. |
| True or false: Calcium gluconate must be given slowly while monitoring the heart rate for dangerous bradycardia. | True |
| ___ is a calcium channel blocker: treats atrial arrhythmias or hypertension. | Diltiazem |
| ___ is a mu receptor opiate used for pain control. | Buprenorphine |
| ___ is a potent vasodilator. It reduces cardio afterload. | Nitroprusside |
| ___ inhibits acetylcholine (ACh) receptor and increases heart rate. (anti-cholenergic like glycopyrolate. | Atropine |
| ___ is a diuretic that acts on the Loop of Henle. | Furosemide (Cerebral and pulmonary edema.) |
| ___ slows Na+ channel repolarization. It treats ventricular arrhythmias. | Lidocaine |
| ___ is a catecholamine. It increases heart rate and blood pressure. | Epinephrine |
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Raevyn1
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