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Vet Lab Tech 1 Final
Vet Lab Techniques 1 Final Exam Review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Plasma that appears cloudy or white in a spun microhematocrit tube is referred to as | lipemic |
| In a dog with acute anemia due to hemorrhage or hemolysis, when does evidence of regeneration (polychromasia and reticulocytosis) begin to become evident in the peripheral blood? | within 3 days |
| _________________ is used as an indicator of the average size of RBCs. | MCV |
| The preferred site for venipuncture in large animals is the ____________. | jugular vein |
| To estimate the hemoglobin concentration in the blood of a canine, simply divide the PCV by _______. | 3 |
| What is the most common anemia in veterinary medicine? | anemia of inflammatory disease |
| The instrument used to measure total protein of a sample is the | refractometer |
| The cell with a rounded or slightly indented nucleus that almost completely fills the cell is the mature | lymphocyte |
| This term refers to how close a test value is to the actual patient value: | accuracy |
| Platelets play an important role in both primary and secondary hemostasis . True or False | True |
| Which finding would be supported by a feline blood sample that exhibits stacked red blood cells observable with a microscope that, upon addition of saline, results in dispersed cells? | Rouleaux formation |
| Which of the following is a measure of RBC mass? | HCT, RBC, and HGB |
| __________ is the percentage of RBCs in a specific volume of blood. | PCV |
| The correct term for the presence of pinpoint hemorrhage is | petechia |
| _______________ refers to variation in RBC shape. | Poikilocytosis |
| Under which of the following conditions may a hematology analyzer report false low WBC count? | When there is clumping of WBC in the monolayer region. |
| The instrument that counts particles based on their relative size and density is the | focused laser analyzer |
| The vacutainer most suitable for collection of blood for hematology is the one with the | purple or lavender top |
| Which cell type is characterized by diffuse nuclear material and abundant, blue-gray, vacuolated cytoplasm? | monocyte |
| Hemoglobin formation begins during the __________ stage of erythrocyte maturation and ends during the _____________ stage. | rubricyte; metarubricyte |
| Plasma from healthy dogs and cats is _____, whereas plasma from horses and cattle is ____. | clear and colorless, clear and light-yellow |
| The instrument that counts particles based on their size is the | impedance counter |
| Which abnormality is characterized by three-dimensional clumps of often seen in immune-mediated hemolytic anemia? | autoagglutination |
| A basket cell is best described as a(n) | degenerative WBC that has ruptured. |
| What is the term for red blood cells that exhibit “spikes” on their surfaces and is often considered an artifact of the blood smear production process? | Echinocyte |
| Which of the following hematologic findings would be expected in a blood sample taken from an allergic dog? | Eosinophilia |
| ______________ is the average amount of hemoglobin in each RBC. | MCH |
| Which of the following is the primary function of platelets? | Hemostasis - preventing bleeding |
| ________________ are nuclear remnants that appear as small, round basophilic structures in RBCs. They sometimes are increased in animals with regenerative anemia. | Howell-Jolly bodies |
| Which of the following peripheral blood-formed elements could be easily confused and misidentified as a lymphocyte? | Nucleated RBC |
| Which of the following is the minimum average number of platelets seen in the monolayer region of the blood film, using the 100x oil objective field of view from a dog with an adequate number of platelets. | 8-10 platelets |
| Which is the preferred anticoagulant used to prevent clotting in mammalian blood samples destined for hematologic analysis? | EDTA |
| Round, basophilic nuclear remnants in the RBCs of animals with regenerative anemia are called | Howell-Jolly bodies |
| Nucleated RBCs (nRBCs), are called | metarubricytes |
| A decreased platelet count is called | thrombocytopenia |
| In diseases such as immune-mediated hemolytic anemia, which causes agglutination of RBCs, the RBC count obtained from an automated hematology analyzer will be falsely ___________. | decreased |
| What are monocytes converted into when they migrate from the blood into the tissues in search of foreign invaders in an animal host? | macrophages |
| In most mammals, platelets are | smaller than RBCs |
| Round structures that represent denatured hemoglobin are called | Heinz bodies |
| The preferred site for venipuncture in birds is the ______________. | jugular vein |
| Which RBC abnormality is characterized by coinlike stacks of RBCs? | Rouleaux |
| An increase in the numbers of circulating erythrocytes is termed | polycythemia |
| With ________________ methods, cells interfere with an electrical current, and the size of the cells is proportional to the deflection of the current. | impedance |
| The ____________ is a visual report of the sizes and numbers of various cellular components. It can be used to verify results of a blood smear as well as provide an indication of any problems with test results. | histogram |
| Which of the following species have higher relative levels of lymphocytes than neutrophils in their circulating blood volume? | cattle |
| A decrease in the numbers of all blood cells and platelets is termed | pancytopenia |
| A blood sampling tube which contains heparin as the anticoagulant is colored | green |
| In the visual assessment of the turbidity and color of a plasma sample, a turbid and white sample indicates | lipemia |
| The WBC that responds to allergies and parasitic disease is the | eosinophil |
| Fragments of RBCs, called | schistocytes |
| ______________ is the protein in RBCs that carries oxygen from lungs to tissues. | hemoglobin |
| The normal PCV in dogs is about | 45% |
| The presence of basophilic macrocytes on a peripheral blood cell film usually indicates increased numbers of | reticulocytes |
| Which of the following causes a false decrease in PCV? | low blood-to-anticoagulant ratio |
| The predominant WBC in ruminants is the | lymphocyte |
| Which of the following can be used during blood film evaluation to validate a reported increased reticulocyte count from a hematology analyzer? | The presence of RBC polychromasia |
| Calculation of a bone marrow M:E ratio requires counting and classifying at least ___ cells. | 500 |
| Plasma that appears red tinged in a spun microhematocrit tube is referred to as | hemolyzed |
| A platelet estimate performed on the differential blood cell film requires counting of platelets in a minimum of ___ microscopic fields. | 10 |
| Karyohexis indicates | a cell containing a lysed or damaged nucleus. |
| Cells with regular cytoplasmic projections around the periphery giving the cell the appearance of a scalloped border are | echinocytes |
| Calculation of a reticulocyte count requires enumeration of the number of reticulocytes per _____ RBCs on the reticulocyte smear. | 1000 |
| Which anticoagulant is preferred for routine hematologic studies because it preserves cell morphology? | EDTA |
| RBCs with an increased MCV are called | macrocytic |
| It is important to fill the collection tubes with the correct volume of blood because | underfilling can lead to sample dilution with the anticoagulant. |
| This term refers to the reproducibility of a test result: | precision |
| For which of the following species would the presence of nucleated red blood cells identified during a CBC not be considered abnormal? | birds |
| When examining a blood smear, cell morphology should be evaluated | at the monolayer |
| When the WBC differential is described as having a left shift, it means there is | an increase in the number of immature (band) neutrophils. |
| Lead poisoning can cause | basophilic stippling |
| In mammals, ______________ are non-nucleated fragments of cytoplasm released from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow. | platelets |
| Plasma that appears yellow tinged in a spun microhematocrit tube is referred to as | icteric |
| Hematologic samples should be examined within how long of sample collection? | three hours |
| A person should be able to see a given abnormality in every field before it's considered a significant change, True or False | True |
| Pyknosis indicates | a condensed cell nucleus. |
| Which cell can be identified by its dark, irregular, lobulated nucleus and colorless or pale pink-orange cytoplasm? | neutrophil |
| When making a blood smear with a sample that is very thick and contains some small clots, you should | make the smear from a fresh sample |
| An increased PCV may be the result of | dehydration |
| Variation in RBC size is called | anisocytosis |
| Small, round, or rod-shaped structures found as single organisms or pairs on the periphery of an RBC are | mycoplasma |
| Which is generally the first coagulation test run if vitamin K deficiency is suspected? | prothrombin time |
| Which term is the name for newly released platelets that contain high levels of RNA? | reticulated platelets |
| Which coagulation assay is a good screening test for rodenticide ingestion? | prothrombin time |
| Which red blood cell abnormality is commonly seen in patients with disseminated intravascular coagulation? | schistocytes |
| Which of the following is the term for the measure of the percentage of platelets that are larger than normal platelets? | platelet-large cell ratio |
| The activation of which of the following results in the generation of large quantities of thrombin? | Factor X |
| German Shorthaired Pointers are known to have which type of von Willebrand disease? | Type 2 |
| Which disorder is the most common inherited coagulation factor deficiency in dogs that is caused by factor VIII deficiency? | Hemophilia |
| A technician is asked to collect a blood sample for a coagulation test. Which is the best choice for this procedure? | vacutainer |
| Which of the following medications may destroy or inhibit the platelets in peripheral blood so significantly that improvements in clinical signs will not be evident until undamaged platelets are released from the bone marrow? | acetaminophen |
| Which Vacutainer is the best choice for coagulation testing? | blue top |
| Which of the following is true for primary coagulation disorders? | rare and usually a result of inherited defect |
| Which test can be used to differentiate anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity from primary hemophilia when the ACT is prolonged? | PIVKA |
| Which is the most common acquired coagulation disorder in domestic animals? | Thrombocytopenia |
| Most bleeding disorders in veterinary species are | secondary to some other disease process. |
| A decreased platelet count is called | Thrombocytopenia |
| Which disease is reported in relatively high frequency in Dobermans and dozens of other dog breeds, as well as rabbits and swine? | von Willebrand disease |
| Which type of coagulation analyzer can use either whole blood or citrated samples and the results are usually provided graphically, including the clotting time, strength of the time, and length of time to break down the clot? | Thromboelastograph |
| Which of the following coagulation tests uses a citrated sample in a tube to which thromboplastin reagent is added followed by a reagent designed to recalcify the sample, forming a clot within 6 to 20 seconds? | Prothrombin time test |
| Automated hematology analyzers have a high rate of inaccuracy in platelet counts. What is the best reason for the inaccuracy in the platelet counts? | platelet clumping and overlapping of RBCs |
| Which is a coagulation test that evaluates the extrinsic coagulation pathway? | prothrombin time test |
| When plasmin and tissue plasminogen activator act on the insoluble fibrin, the products of this action are which of the following? | Fibrin degradation products and D-dimers |
| A decrease in the amount of platelets circulating in peripheral blood is referred to as which term? | Thrombocytopenia |
| When tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) and plasmin combine, soluble fibrin is broken down into which of the following? | Fibrin degradation products |
| Which of the following is exposed on the surface of the platelet membrane once it is activated and acts as a binding site for the complexes of the coagulation cascade? | Phosphatidylserine |
| Lee-White Method: intrinsic or extrinsic? | intrinsic |
| APTT: intrinsic or extrinsic? | intrinsic |
| PT: intrinsic or extrinsic? | extrinsic |
| Clot Retraction test: intrinsic or extrinsic | intrinsic and extrinsic |
| Which is the most common inherited coagulation disorder in domestic animals? | von Willebrand disease |
| Which manual blood coagulation test requires a spring-loaded lancet, blotting paper, and a stopwatch? | Buccal mucosa bleeding time |
| Which type of the disease is an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern characterized by very low levels of vWF? | Type 3 |
| Hemostasis disorder common in Beagles | Prothrombin deficiency |
| Hemostasis disorder common in Malamutes | Factor VII deficiency |
| Hemostasis disorder common in Cocker Spaniels | Factor X deficiency |
| Hemostasis disorder common in Great Pyrenees | Factor XI deficiency |
| Hemostasis disorder common in Shar Pei | Factor XII deficiency |
| Hemostasis disorder common in Doberman pinscher | Type 1 vWD |
| Hemostasis disorder common in German Shorthair Pointer | Type 2 vWD |
| Hemostasis disorder common in Scottish Terrier | Type 3 vWD |
| What must be present in order for a clot to break down? | Tissue plasminogen activator |
| Which of the following terms is the alteration in platelet function? | Thrombopathia |
| Which coagulation factor test uses immunoassays to evaluate the function? | von Willebrand factor |
| Fibrinolysis of the microthrombi in disseminated intravascular coagulation leads to which of the following? | Excess D-dimers |
| A technician is asked to collect a blood sample for a coagulation test on a very excited patient that is struggling against the restraint during the blood draw. Which of the following would be correct? | The platelet count may be elevated in the blood sample |
| A technician is asked to collect multiple blood samples from a dog. Which should be the first Vacutainer used for the collection? | blue top |
| The body’s ability to maintain the integrity of the blood and the blood vessels is referred to as which of the following? | hemostasis |
| A blood vessel is ruptured. The subendothelium of the vessel is charged and will attract which of the following to this surface? | platelets |
| Which test of the coagulation system requires a blood tube containing diatomaceous earth? | activated clotting time |
| Which of the indices assesses the variation in the size of the platelets? | PDW |
| Which coagulation factors are dependent on Vitamin K? | II, VII, IX, X |
| Which organ is the primary site for the production of coagulation factors? | Liver |
| Plasma from healthy dogs and cats is _____, whereas plasma from horses and cattle is ____. | clear and colorless, clear and light-yellow |
| The most common inherited coagulation disorder of domestic animals is | von Willebrand disease |
| Which condition is characterized by microvascular thrombi that consume platelets and the coagulation factors and lead to systemic hemorrhage? | Disseminated intravascular coagulation |
| What it is the result of the activation of Factor X that will continue to recruit and activate more platelets and initiate the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin? | Thrombin |
| A small amount of which substance is generated in the first phase of coagulation that recruits and activates platelets and inhibits fibrinolysis? | thrombin |
| Shetland Sheepdogs are known to have which type of von Willebrand disease? | Type 3 |
| If a test cannot be performed within 2 hours, the sample may be centrifuged and the plasma removed and frozen. Which of the following is the best speed and time for the centrifuge? | 2500 g for 15 minutes |
| Which of the following clinical signs of a bleeding disorder refers to blood in the stool? | Melena |
| Which manual blood coagulation test requires the use of a Vacutainer tube that contains an additive such as diatomaceous earth or kaolin? | activated clotting time |
| Which would be another name for hemophilia B? | Christmas disease |
| Which manual coagulation test is rarely used because it is not as sensitive and requires blood collection in a syringe, a stopwatch, and three 10 ́ 75 mm tubes rinsed in saline? | whole blood clotting time |
| Which is a clinical sign of a bleeding disorder that is often confused with bruising? | Ecchymotic hemorrhages |
| Which of the following is the correct term for the mathematical average of the size of the individual platelets counted by an analyzer? | Mean platelet volume |
| The technician has placed a tourniquet on the patient’s forelimb but is distracted by a question from a colleague and leaves the tourniquet in place. How would the increased length venous stasis affect the sample? | the platelet count may be elevated in the blood sample |
| von Willebrand disease is characterized on the basis of the pattern of inheritance. Which type of the disease is a autosomal dominant inheritance pattern characterized by low levels of vWF with normal structure? | Type 1 |
| The aggregation and adhesion of platelets to an exposed blood vessel refers to which of the following? | mechanical hemostasis |
| Which type of coagulation analyzer uses disposable cartridges with a collagen-coated membrane and measures the adhesion and aggregation of the platelets? | platelet function analyzer |
| Which type of coagulation analyzer uses wires that gently move back and forth through the sample cup to detect the clot formation? | Fibrometer |
| Which anticoagulant toxin is the cause of a significant number of secondary hemostasis cases in the veterinary clinic? | Rodenticides |
| Which is the correct dilution in sodium citrate for an accurate coagulation test? | 10% |
| Which of the following is a large glycoprotein that circulates with factor VIII and functions to aid platelet aggregation at the beginning of the coagulation process? | von Willebrand factor |
| Which type of automated coagulation analyzer uses cartridges that contain reagents for the tests and LED optical detectors to evaluate prothrombin time (PT) and activated thromboplastin time (aPTT)? | Coag Dx analyzer |
| Which test is used to determine tertiary hemostasis? | D-dimer test |
| Which of the following best describes the measure of the percentage of total blood volume that is composed of platelets? | Plateletcrit |
| Automated hematology analyzers require what type of sample in order to evaluate platelet counts? | a freshly collected EDTA-treated sample |
| An increase in the amount of platelets circulating in peripheral blood is referred to as which term? | Thrombocytosis |
| Which term refers membrane-bound cytoplasmic fragments released from platelets that increase the surface area to aid in coagulation? | microparticles |
| In animals with congenital deficiencies in concentration of coagulation proteins, the clinical signs usually appear before the animal is how old? | 6 months |
| In mammals, ______________ are non-nucleated fragments of cytoplasm released from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow. | platelets |
| Karyorrhexis indicates | a cell containing a lysed or damaged nucleus. |
| Which coagulation test is designed to help differentiate rodenticide toxicity from hemophilia? | PIVKA |
| Which term best describes a process that requires platelets, a number of coagulation factors, and complex reaction pathways? | hemostasis |
| A technician has collected 2 mL of blood but needs to adjust the sodium citrate-to-blood ratio because the patient is anemic and has a hematocrit of 20%. What would be the correct amount of sodium citrate to add to the sample? | 0.1 mL |
| Multiply the platelet estimate obtained from the blood film by ________ to get the platelet estimate per μl of blood. | 20,000 |
| Patients with DIC often have evidence of ____________ on the differential blood cell film. | schistocytes |
| Which of the following abnormalities will give a prolonged activated clotting time? | thrombocytopenia |
| Blood coagulation Factor II indicates | prothrombin |
| Which of the following terms is the measure of the percentage of the total blood volume that is composed of platelets? | thrombocrit |
| What is the correct indirect platelet estimate for a patient with a white blood cell count of 22,000 and a platelet count of 25 platelets per 100 white blood cells? | 5500 platelets/mL |
| Rodenticide ingestion can lead to coagulation disorders as a result of which deficiency? | Vitamin K |
| Pyknosis indicates | a condensed cell nucleus |
| PDW | assess variation in the size of the platelets |
| PCT | measure of the percentage of the total blood volume that is comprised of platelets |
| MPV | mathematical average of the size of the individual platelets counted by the analyzer |
| P-LCR | measure of the percentage of platelets that are larger than normal |
| von Willebrand disease is characterized on the basis of the pattern of inheritance. Which type of the disease is an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern characterized by low levels of vWF that is not structurally normal? | Type 2 |
| The adhesion of the platelets to each other and to the endothelium of the vessel requires which of the following in order to form a platelet plug? | von Willebrand factor |
| A coagulation test is run on a patient that is polycythemic using the standard dilution, 10%. Which would be the most accurate outcome of the test? | Prolonged clotting time because the sample is overcitrated |
| The complicated coagulation cascade involved in blood clotting is also referred to as which of the following? | chemical hemostasis |
| Which is the most common type of cast found in animal urine? | granular |
| A 12-year-old DSH cat weighing 12.5 lb presents for urinary problems. The urine output for this animal is 80 mL of urine in a 24-hour period. Which term properly identifies this situation? | oliguria |
| Rabbit urine usually has which degree of transparency? | milky |
| Which type of cell is usually round, is granular with a small nucleus, is larger than white blood cells, and, if found in large numbers, is indicative of cystitis or pyelonephritis? | transitional epithelial |
| Which of the following is the structure through which urine passes from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder? | ureters |
| What type of red blood cell may be seen in a urine sample that is concentrated? | crenated |
| Which is the best way to differentiate between hematuria and hemoglobinuria? | Centrifuge urine and examine the sediment microscopically for red blood cells (RBCs). |
| In a free catch sample, what type of cells most likely will contaminate the sample? | white blood cells |
| Which part of the kidney is the most functional portion? | nephron |
| Which of the following gives the best sample for urinalysis? | morning sample or after several hours without water |
| What method is used to stimulate urination in horses? | Rubbing a warm, wet cloth on the ventral abdomen |
| Which of the following could cause an alkaline urine pH in an animal? | high plant-based diet |
| Which animal has a heart-shaped right kidney? | horse |
| In which animal would it be considered normal to have bilirubin present in the urine? | canines |
| What structure composes the renal corpuscle and is surrounded by a Bowman capsule? | glomerulus |
| What method is used to stimulate urination in cows? | Gently rubbing dry hay ventral to the vulva in a circular manner |
| A urine sample has a greenish hue. What could possibly cause this color? | bile pigment |
| Which disorder can lead to proteinuria? | chronic or acute renal disease |
| What would be expected from a clear urine sample? | very little sediment on centrifugation |
| A patient has only a trace amount of protein in a urine sample. When is this trace amount clinically significant? | if the urine sample is very dilute |
| When an owner reports that an animal has had increased urination, it is important to differentiate between frequency and amount of urine produced. What is the term for increased frequency of urination? | pollakiuria |
| What structure leads from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body? | urethra |
| Urine that is brown that is excreted during conditions that cause muscle cell lysis is referred to as which of the following? | myoglobinuria |
| Which structure releases the hormone aldosterone? | adrenal cortex |
| A male dog is presented for a possible urinary infection, and the veterinarian would like you to collect a urine sample by cystocentesis. Where should the technician insert the needle for the collection? | Caudal to the umbilicus and to the side of the sheath |
| What is the first step necessary in performing a catheterization urine collection in a female dog? | wash the external genitalia |
| Which of the following elements would be an abnormal finding in urine sediment? | yeast |
| Which type of crystal is often described as looking like a coffin lid? | struvite |
| Which structure enters the urinary bladder at oblique angles, forming valvelike openings that prevent backflow of the urine as the bladder fills? | ureters |
| Which method of determining specific gravity is the most reliable and reproducible? | refractometer |
| A 5-year-old dog weighing 30 lb presents for urinary problems. The urine output for this animal is 625 mL of urine in a 24-hour period. Which term properly identifies this situation? | polyuria |
| What is the term for excessive white blood cells in urine? | pyuria |
| Which animal species could be expected to have a large amount of sediment in the urine? | equine |
| A urine sample has a fruity or sweet smell to it. What could cause this smell? | ketones |
| How many white blood cells can be present in a normal urine sample? | 0 to 1 per hpf |
| In which species is even a trace amount of bilirubin in the urine considered abnormal and a sign of disease? | felines |
| Which of the following must be true in order to perform a cystocentesis? | a distended bladder can be easily palpated |
| How much supernatant should be left in the tube to resuspend the sediment prior to microscopic evaluation? | 0.5 to 1 mL |
| Which direction should one direct the needle in the caudal abdomen for a cystocentesis? | dorsocaudally |
| Which hormones are involved in the regulation of urine volume? | Aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone |
| Which of the following line the urinary bladder? | transitional epithelial cells |
| What is the best choice for needle size and syringe size for a cystocentesis urine collection? | 20- or 22-gauge needle and 10-mL syringe |
| Which structure of the urinary system is a muscular sac that stores urine and releases it periodically by the process of urination? | urinary bladder |
| What is the term used for the substance that should be poured off after a urine sample is centrifuged? | supernatant |
| Which test system allows for standardization of initial sample volumes and distribution of elements on the slide? | KOVA |
| Which of the following can occur in lactating cows when the energy for milk production exceeds the animal’s ability to ingest sufficient feed to meet these requirements? | ketonuria |
| Which method of urine collection is recommended for a sterile collection when a cystocentesis cannot be performed? | catheterization |
| A technician is reading a urine sediment slide and sees red blood cells (RBCs). What is an acceptable number of red blood cells in normal urine sediment? | 2 to 3 RBCs per hpf |
| What characteristics would be expected in urine from a patient with oliguria? | dark yellow color, high specific gravity |
| Which animal has a lobulated appearance to the kidneys? | cow |
| Which is the only way to correctly identify the composition of a urolith? | send it to a reference laboratory |
| What color background should a urine sample be held up against to determine the true color of the sample? | white |
| Which would be considered a normal urine output for adult dogs and cats? | 20 to 40 mL/kg body weight |
| An animal is presented for possible bladder stones. The animal has had two cystotomies for bladder stones in the past. What type of urine collection should be avoided in this case? | bladder expression |
| What structure in the kidney filters a portion of the plasma and eliminates its wastes? | glomerulus |
| A 7-year-old cat is presented for limited use of the litter box for the past 2 days. The examination reveals that it is 10% dehydrated. What disease may be suspected in this situation? | acute nephritis |
| A dog is hypoglycemic and has only been eating a small amount of chicken breast for the past 3 weeks. Which of the following would you expect to find in a urinalysis evaluation? | ketones |
| What is the best time frame to analyze the sample to ensure accurate results? | within 30 minutes to 1 hour |
| Equine urine usually has which of the following transparencies due to high concentrations of calcium carbonate crystals and mucous? | Cloudy |
| An insufficient production of antidiuretic hormone by the posterior pituitary gland can result in which of the following? | polyuria |
| A 9-year-old dog presents for polyuria and polydipsia. What would be a disease associated with this symptom? | diabetes mellitus |
| Which is the correct setting for the centrifuge rpms for a urine sample? | 1000 to 2000 rpms |
| What must be done to a refrigerated urine sample before analyzing the sample? | warm gently before analysis |
| What is one artifact that may occur in a refrigerated urine sample? | crystal formations |
| A dog that has ingested antifreeze is presented to the hospital. What type of crystals would you expect to see in the urine of this animal? | calcium oxalate |
| Specific gravity is a measure of what in the urine? | dissolved solutes |
| The indented portion of the kidney is referred to as which term? | hilus |
| Which structure releases the antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? | posterior pituitary gland |
| What method can be used to stimulate urination in sheep? | occluding the nostrils |
| A cat is admitted to the hospital with a possible bile duct obstruction. What could be present in urine to confirm this diagnosis? | bilirubin |
| A urine sample has been sitting at room temperature for 3 hours. What effects would this have on the pH of the sample? | pH would become alkaline |
| The presence of hemoglobin in urine is referred to as which of the following? | hemoglobinuria |
| Which disease is seen in ewes carrying twins or triplets and is the result of ketosis? | pregnancy toxemia |
| Which of the following is a result of the glomerular filtration and tubular resorption reaching the threshold for resorption and the excess passed into the urine? | glucosuria |
| A urine sample is collected just before an emergency coming into the clinic. What can be done to the sample to ensure accurate results? | Refrigerate the sample and analyze within 6 to 12 hours. |
| A man notices that his dog has not been urinating as often as it had previously. What is another term for this condition? | oliguria |
| A dog is hospitalized and the nursing staff realizes that the animal is not urinating. What is the term for this condition? | anuria |
| Which body system collects and eliminates waste from the body? | urinary |
| When observing urine for the degree of transparency, it should be held up against which of the following? | white with letter print |
| A feral and fractious cat needs to have a urine sample collected. Once collected what finding could be expected? | proteinuria |
| An increase in daily urine output is usually accompanied by an increase in water consumption. What is the term for increased water consumption? | polydipsia |
| Which part of urinalysis helps to detect the ability of the kidneys to concentrate or dilute urine? | specific gravity |
| Which of the following is defined as the weight of a quantity of liquid compared with that of an equal amount of distilled water? | specific gravity |
| In which animal would it be normal to have a large amount of calcium carbonate crystals in the urine? | rabbits |
| What component of urine may rise to a plane just below the coverslip and is in a different plane of focus than the other elements? | fat droplets |
| Why should the first portion of the sample collected by catheterization be discarded? | Possible bacterial contamination from the catheterization process. |
| A technician has been asked to confirm the reagent test strip results for urine protein. Which test should be performed? | Sulfosalicylic acid turbidity test |
| The kidneys are located where in the body in most animals? | Dorsal aspect of the abdomen, cranial to the lumbar vertebra |
| When distilled water is used to calibrate a refractometer, what should the specific gravity be of the water? | 1.000 |
| Which test is used to help confirm significant amounts of protein in the urine and uses the supernatant to evaluate the concentrations? | Urine protein/creatinine ratio |
| A patient with a specific gravity of 1.010 has which of the following conditions? | Isosthenuria |
| A dog is presented and diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. What would you expect to find in the urine sample? | ketones |
| A cat presents with chronic urinary infections, so the veterinarian asks the technician to collect a urine sample for culture and sensitivity testing. Which is the best collection method for this test? | cystocentesis |
| As fluid passes through the kidney, substances are resorbed. What is the condition called when the nephrons have reached the maximum limit for resorption? | renal threshold |
| The presence of red blood cells in urine is referred to as which of the following? | hematuria |
| By the time the fluid in the nephron reaches the collecting tubules it becomes which of the following? | urine |
| Ideal blood smear technique results in a blood smear that is evenly distributed across _______ of the stationary slide. | 50% to 75% |
| Which disorder can be a possible cause of relative polycythemia? | Splenic contraction |
| Which is the largest of the white blood cells seen on blood films? | Monocyte |
| A bone marrow evaluation reveals 80% nucleated cells and 20% adipocytes. Which term would best describe the evaluation? | Hyperplasia |
| A bone marrow aspirate shows fibrin exudates but lacks any neutrophils or macrophages. What type of condition does this represent? | Fibrinous inflammation |
| A bone marrow smear shows an increase in the number of plasma cells, mature lymphocytes, and mast cells. What type of inflammatory condition would the presence of these cells represent? | Chronic inflammation |
| Which type of stain is best used to prepare a reticulocyte count smear? | Supravital stain |
| A bone marrow evaluation show approximately 75% nucleated cells and 25% adipocytes. Which animal would you suspect from this evaluation? | Juvenile patient |
| A bone marrow aspirate evaluation shows that there are approximately 25% nucleated cells and 75% adipocytes. Which animal would you suspect from this evaluation? | Geriatric patient |
| Which classification of anemia is characterized by normal-sized erythrocytes? | Normocytic anemia |
| A patient has severe flea infestation and shows signs of anemia. Which would be the best classification of anemia for this patient? | Hemorrhagic anemia |
| Which term best describes neoplastic cells present in the blood or bone marrow? | Leukemia |
| Which of the following classifications of anemia would be caused by hypoadrenocorticism? | Production disorders |
| A bone marrow aspirate indicates the presence of both macrophages and neutrophils. What condition is being described? | Chronic progranulomatous inflammation |
| Due to the fact that automated platelet counts are highly inaccurate, it is important to do which of the following to ensure accurate results? | Do a manual count and review morphology. |
| Which of the following is true regarding acquired coagulation disorders? | Can result from the destruction or decreased production of platelets |
| What is the term for the location of the kidney where the blood vessels, lymph vessels, nerves, and ureters enter and exit? | Hilus |
| What can cause an ammonia-like smell to urine? | Urease |
| What is the term that refers to turbid urine? | Flocculent |
| A normal urine sample should be what color? | Light yellow to amber |
| What is the term for the pigments that give urine color? | Urochromes |
| Which test measures the Bence Jones proteins in urine samples? | Sulfosalicylic acid turbidity test |
| Which test may be necessary to detect the presence of proteins in a patient with myeloma? | Sulfosalicylic acid turbidity test |
| The reagent strip test can detect urine protein levels that are greater than which of the following values? | 30 mg/dL |
| Which test is best used to detect bilirubin? | Ictotest |
| Which test is used to detect sugars other than glucose in the urine? | Clinitest reagent tablets |
| Which type of cast might be seen in the urine of dog with diabetes mellitus? | Fatty |
| Which type of crystal is common in an animal with severe liver disease? | Ammonium biurate |
| A urine sample has an increased number of red blood cells. This could be due to which type of urine collection method? | Bladder expression |
| Which type of urine sample is not satisfactory for bacterial examination? | Free catch |
| Which of the following may cause a urine pH to decrease? | Fever |
| Which structure resorbs the plasma proteins in healthy animals? | Renal tubules |
| Which of the following could happen in a dog that has impaired liver function? | ketosis |
| Which of the following ketones is the reagent test strip most sensitive to reading? | Acetoacetic acid |
| A sample that is left at room temperature for an extended period of time may develop which of the following? | an ammonia-like smell |
| Which is the first ketone produced by the body in any condition that causes ketosis? | ß-Hydroxybutyric acid |
| When the urinary bladder enlarges and reaches a certain point, what structures in the bladder wall are activated to trigger the contraction of the smooth muscles in the bladder wall? | stretch receptors |
| A patient has not urinated in the past 24 hours. What disease may be suspected in this situation? | renal shut down |
| Which of the following is the limitation of using reagent test strips when testing for ketosis? | Inability to detect ketones in the early stage of ketosis |
| Which of the following could cause an acidic urine pH in an animal? | high protein, meat-based diet |
| A dog has been placed on furosemide. What would be the expected outcome from this drug? | polyuria |
| Which of the following may occur if a urine sample is kept at room temperature for an extended length of time? | increased turbidity |
| Antidiuretic hormone acts on which structure to promote reabsorption of water? | collecting tubules |
| Which of the following may result in a false-positive result for glucose? | aspirin |
| Which test is used most often in detecting ketones in urine? | reagent test strip |
| A cat has been trapped in a drain for 5 days. What would you expect to find in a urine sample? | ketones |
| A patient is admitted to the hospital with mild congestive heart failure (CHF). What would be an expected finding in a urinalysis? | proteinuria |
| If an animal is suspected of having an obstructed urethra, which type of urine sample collection should not be attempted? | bladder expression |
| Which of the following is formed by the incomplete catabolism of fatty acids and results in excess amounts in the urine? | ketones |
| A herd of cattle has been on pasture with only a pond for a water source. Which condition may occur if the cows drink a large amount of water after the pond thaws? | Hemoglobinuria |
| In which species is the leukocyte reagent test not valid due to false-positive results? | Feline |
| Which of the following would be absent or present in only trace amounts in healthy urine and is measured by sulfosalicylic acid turbidity test? | protein |
| A 2-year-old cat is brought to the hospital after having been locked in a storage shed for 2 days. What would be expected in this situation? | oliguria |
| Which of the following may cause urine pH to increase? | Urinary tract infection with urease bacteria |
| Which condition may occur when the liver is no longer able to metabolize carbohydrates, leading to fats being used as the main source of energy? | ketosis |
| The veterinarian wants a quantitative urine sample on a dog. How is this sample to be collected? | Catheterization for 24 hours |
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Smgregory235
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