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Vet Diseases 1 Final
Veterinary Diseases I Final Exam Review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Treatment of this disease is aimed at correcting hydration and electrolyte imbalances as well as preventing bacterial translocation from the intestines: | Parvovirus |
| Which disease is a possible cause of hepatic encephalopathy: | Leptospirosis |
| Which of the clinical signs would be anticipated from a puppy that was vertically transmitted Distemper virus: | Seizures within the first few weeks of life |
| Leptospirosis is shed through which body secretions? | urine |
| CAV-2 is shed through which body secretions? | upper respiratory secretions |
| Parvo is shed through which body secretions? | Feces |
| Distemper is shed through which body secretions? | Upper respiratory secretions (although all secretions should be considered contagious) |
| CAV-1 is shed through which body secretions? | Urine, feces, saliva |
| Why would a puppy with CAV-1 benefit from a blood transfusion: | To correct deficiencies in white blood cells, platelets, and clotting factors |
| Novel Canine respiratory virus with a high morbidity and low mortality: | CIV |
| Which of the following infections can cause a tonsillitis: | CAV-1 |
| A squirrel urinates on dog toys in the yard. Once the dogs grab the toys and put them in their mouth, they have been exposed to a disease the squirrels were infected with. Which of the following diseases was transmitted to the dogs: | Leptospirosis |
| Which disease is among the most common causes of seizures in puppies less than 6 months of age: | Distemper |
| CAV-2 Viral or Bacterial? | Viral |
| Herpes Viral or Bacterial? | Viral |
| Parainfluenza Viral or Bacterial? | Viral |
| Bordetella bronchiseptica Viral or Bacterial? | Bacterial |
| Which leukocytes are involved in both adaptive and nonadaptive immune systems? | Neutrophils |
| What are the signs of inflammation? | swelling, pain, and loss of function |
| The cell that can differentiate into a macrophage when in tissue spaces is the: | monocyte |
| Chemical messengers produced by a variety of cells that interact with components of the immune system are | cytokines |
| Substances that are capable of generating a response from the immune system are referred to as: | Antigens |
| The primary immunoglobin involved in mucosal immunity is: | IgA |
| The most abundant circulating immunoglobulin is | IgG |
| Antibodies are produced by: | B lymphocytes |
| Activation of the complement system can lead to what? | cell lysis, stimulation of inflammation, opsonization |
| An antigen-antibody reaction that reults in the formation of insoluble particles is: | precipitation |
| It is recommended by the AAFP that feline vaccines be given in the distal limb because | in the event of a local sarcoma the limb can be amputated. |
| Initial puppy and kitten examinations may identify problems present at birth these are known as | congenital defects |
| According to the American Association of Feline Practitioners (AAFP) a cat is considered in which age group when it is 11 to 14 years old? | Senior |
| The initial visit to a veterinary practice for a healthy puppy or kitten typically occurs at ____ weeks of age | 6 to 8 |
| There are at least ______ strains of Feline Calicivirus (FCV) | 40 |
| The following are signs of Feline Herpes virus: | drooling, sneezing, congestion |
| After the initial visit, puppies and kittens are examined at _____ -week intervals until approximately 16 weeks of age. | 3 to 4 |
| FIV-negative cats who receive the FIV vaccine will | test positive on the antibody-based FIV screening test |
| What does the feline core combination vaccination FVRCP stand for? | Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis, Calcivirus, and Panleukopenia |
| The vaccine for which of the following feline diseases is not recommended? | Feline infectious peritonitis |
| Where does the American Association of Feline Practitioners (AAFP) currently recommend that feline leukemia vaccine be administered in cats? | Subcutaneously below the left stifle |
| Cats do not clear FIV from system and all eventually become ill, but it can take: | months to years |
| What are four core feline vaccines? | Feline Herpes Virus Type 1 (FHV-1), Feline Calci Virus (FCV), Feline Panleukopenia Virus (FPV), Rabies |
| Before bringing a new cat or kittens into a household with other cats, the animal should be screened using blood tests for which two contagious diseases even if they appear healthy? | FIV and FeLV |
| The rabies virus attacks the: | nervous system |
| The rabies vaccine is administered into the right hind. True or False | True |
| The only way to test for rabies is: | Assay brain tissue |
| Skunks, Foxes, Raccoons, and Bats are natural reservoirs for Rabies. True or False | True |
| Rabies will survive for up to 2 hours in dried saliva and 24-48 hours in the nervous tissue at room temperature. True or False | True |
| What is the treatment ordered for unvaccinated dogs or cats that have been infected with rabies: | Euthanasia |
| Which of the following statements is correct regarding the tissues/secretions that transmit rabies: | Rabies virus is transmitted via saliva, salivary glands, and nervous system tissue |
| Which of the following diseases is part of the Canine Infectious Respiratory Disease (CIRD) complex? | Canine adenovirus type 1 |
| Which of the following results in artificially acquired passive immunity? | Antivenom |
| The CAV-1 vaccine is found to cause "blue eye" and renal dysfunction as adverse side effects. True or False | True |
| An immunization against a bacterial agent | Bacterin |
| Any changes from the state of health disrupting hemostasis | Disease |
| A disease that is present in the community at all times | Endemic |
| The period of time from when the pathogen enters the body until signs of disease occur | Incubation period |
| Relieving clinical signs/symptoms without curing disease | Palliative |
| Infectious agent or microorganism | Pathogen |
| Estimate of the likely outcome of disease | Prognosis |
| Infection where clinical signs cannot be observed | subclinical or inapparent infection |
| The lack of immunity or vulnerability to disease | susceptibility |
| Disease that affects a number of organs/tissues or body systems | systemic disease |
| List three of the top five dog breeds which are more susceptible to parvo? | Pit Bulls, Rottweilers, Dobermans, German Shepards, Labs |
| Which of the following is an adverse vaccine reaction generally unique to cats? | sarcoma formation |
| Which of the following is an example of a zoonotic disease? | Leptospirosis |
| Diagnosis for FIP is based on clinical signs and fluid analysis. The fluid will be ______ in color with a high total protein. | Yellow |
| A vaccine that consists of a weakened version of a pathogen, which will induce an immune response but is attenuated enough so that it will not cause disease, is known as which of the following? | Modified-live |
| Which of the following are associated with the humoral immune response? | Antibodies |
| Which of the following is a waterborne protozoan that causes gastrointestinal disease in people and can be quite serious in immunosuppressed individuals? | Giardia spp. |
| Highly vascularized connective tissue that is only produced after extensive tissue damage is | Granulation tissue |
| Rheumatoid arthritis and equine viral arteritis are examples of which type of hypersensitivity reaction? | Type III |
| Which inflammatory cells are a stage in the development of tissue macrophages? | monocytes |
| FHV-1 and FCV vaccines are available in the following forms: | subcutaneous and intranasal |
| Name the types of inflammatory exudates: | Serous, Fibrinous, Purulent, Suppurative, Hemorrhagic, Mucopurulent, Eosinophilic, Nonsuppurative, and Caseous |
| The molecule to which an antibody attaches is called | antigen |
| An infection where the individual does not show signs of disease, unless under stressful conditions | latent infection |
| Noninfectious vaccines are able to cause disease. True or False | False |
| Chest radiographs should routinely be performed on which of the following types of cats? | Cats that are not on heartworm prophylaxis |
| An allergic reaction such as hives following a bee sting is an example of which type of hypersensitivity? | Type I |
| A vaccine that consists of a live, nonpathogenic virus into which the gene for a pathogen-related antigen has been inserted is which of the following? | Recombinant |
| Information handouts are not helpful for educating owners. True or False | False |
| The study of the occurrences of disease and the risk factors that cause disease in a population is known as | epidemiology |
| When children eat soil or vegetables that have been contaminated with feces that contain Toxocara eggs, they are at risk of getting which of the following? | visceral larva migrans |
| Which of the following is caused by a rhabdovirus? | Rabies |
| A diagnosis that is limited to an anatomic description of a lesion is known as which of the following? | Morphologic diagnosis |
| A puppy can be reinfected with Parvo once it recovered because the virus can live in the home environment for a year or more. True or False | False |
| How long does it take for toxoplasma to become infective? | a few days |
| An adverse reaction to a blood transfusion is which type of hypersensitivity? | Type II |
| An abscess usually contains which type of exudate? | Purulent |
| Which term best describes the “study of disease”? | Pathology |
| Intelligent, Furious or "Excitatory", and Paralytic or "Dumb" are all stages of rabies virus infection. True or False | False |
| A pathognomonic sign is | a hallmark sign or one that is unique to a particular disease |
| A disease that has maintained a certain level over time in a given geographic area is | enzootic |
| Why should you strongly urge owners to vaccinate their kittens for FELV? | The virus has no cure |
| Which of the following are nonliving pathogens? | viruses |
| What is an example of a fibrinous inflammatory exudate? | Scab |
| Wellness visits are recommended every 3 to 4 weeks until 16 weeks old. True or False | True |
| The subcutaneous Infectious Tracheobronchitis vaccine is considered to be effective 48 - 72 hours after giving. True or False | False |
| Why should vaccines be administered as low on the leg as possible? | Sarcomas can develop at the area of injection. If amputation is needed, then only the leg/part of the leg would be lost, and the animal can make a full recovery. |
| How long does the neonate have to consume colostrum from its mother? | within 24 hours of birth |
| Treatment of this disease is aimed at correcting hydration and electrolyte imbalances as well as preventing bacterial translocation from the intestines: | Parvovirus |
| Which of the following is an injury in which the epithelium is removed from the tissue surface? | Abrasion |
| Some vaccines are that are considered core in some clinics may be considered non core in other clinics. True or False | True |
| Babesiosis is passed by which of the following? | Ticks |
| Which of the following zoonotic diseases is transmitted primarily by the bite or saliva of an infected animal? | Rabies |
| A group of enzymes that act in sequential fashion, leading to disruption of tissue or bacterial cell membranes and resulting in the cell's destruction, is known as | complement |
| What is herd immunity? | When the majority of a population is vaccinated against a particular pathogen. |
| Obesity from overfeeding and lack of exercise is considered which type of disease factor? | Environmental factor |
| Movement of bacteria across the intestinal lining to the lymphatics or peripheral blood circulation is | bacterial translocation |
| Name the hypersensitivity reactions I - IV: | I:Immediate, II:Cytotoxic, III:Immune complex, IV: Delayed |
| The CAV-2 vaccine is generally given, as it protects the animal from both strands of the Canine Adenovirus Type 1 and 2. True or False | True |
| Which of the following are considered examples of parasites? | Single-celled protozoans |
| FIP presents with 2 forms; what are these forms? | Dry and Wet |
| Vaccines are available for Salmonella. True or False | False |
| Strangles is caused by the bacterium: | Streptococcusequi |
| Horses with equine influenza often have a fever in excess of 106° F. True or False | True |
| Mortality from Tetanus is usually 100%. True or False | False |
| Strangles is transmitted by | Contact with nasal discharge from an infected horse |
| Equine viral arteritis is not spread by mosquitos. True or False | True |
| At how many hours old should you test a foals IgG? | 12 hours |
| Which illness in equids is also referred to as "sleeping sickness"? | Encephalomyelitis |
| How often should a typical horse have its hooves trimmed? | Every 6 to 8 weeks |
| Miniature ponies receive the same vaccines as a regular sized horse. True or False | True |
| Equine Encephalomyelitis is maintained in nature by birds and animal reservoirs and are transmitted to horses by biting insects. True or False | True |
| Equine Influenza is not very contagious and hard to transmit to other horses. True or False | False |
| Why are tetanus toxoids administered annually to horses? | The causative agent is ubiquitous in the soil |
| Because immunity for Equine Herpesvirus (EHV) is short-lived, high risk animals should be vaccinated every________ | 6 months |
| Which of the following is the scientific name for the “barber’s pole” worm? | Haemonchus placei |
| The regressive form of atrophic rhinitis is permanent. True or False | False |
| Active immunity occurs in the body when | the immune system develops antibodies to antigens |
| For which of the following diseases in sheep and goats is a vaccine not available? | Toxoplasmosis |
| Brucellosis causes abortion in the first trimester. True or False | False |
| Which of the following is true regarding vaccination against Bang’s disease in cattle? | This vaccine is targeted for young heifers |
| Why are cattle vaccines administered only in the neck region? | preserves carcass merit |
| For which of the following diseases are mummification and stillbirth the only indications that a herd is infected? | Porcine Parvovirus |
| Which of the following parasites causes inflammation of the liver? | Fasciola hepatica |
| Which of the following diseases usually is seen in feedlot lambs consuming high-concentrate diets? | Clostridium Perfringens Infection Type D (Enterotoxemia) |
| Which of the following diseases is reportable and zoonotic? | Brucellosis |
| For which of the following viral diseases is a vaccine not available? | Foot and mouth disease |
| Which of the following is the correct definition of disinfection? | Destruction of vegetative forms of bacteria on inanimate or nonliving objects |
| Which form of sanitation destroys ALL organisms? | Sterilization |
| Which type of animal is especially sensitive to excessive light? | Albino rats |
| Which is the most common major failure of most animal enclosures? | They do not allow sufficient room for normal movement |
| The newest disinfectant products available use AHP technology. What does AHP stand for? | Accelerated Hydrogen Peroxide |
| What is the difference between antiseptics and disinfectants? | Antiseptics are chemicals that kill bacteria on living things. Disinfectants are stronger chemicals that destroy bacteria on objects or non-living things. |
| Why is Chlorohex recommended for the scrubbing of a catheter site? | It is an antiseptic that kills viruses, bacteria (gram positive and gram negative), and fungus. It produces less tissue irritation. It has long (up to 24 hours) residual activity if left in contact with the site. |
| What cattle vaccination is reported to USDA; marked with orange ear tag and tattoo in right ear? | Brucellosis |
| What scale is used to check for anemia in goats and sheep? | FAMACHA based on eyelid color |
| Why don't pigs in modern production systems get regularly dewormings? | They may never be outdoors |
| Haemonchus contortus (barber’s pole worm) belongs to the phylum _______(1)____ and produces what type of egg? (2) | Nematoda; Strongyle egg |
| How would you supplement inefficient IgG? | You can supplement by stomach tube or bottle with donor colostrum |
| Name the 4 Core vaccines for equine patients. | Tetanus, Rabies, West Nile Virus, EEE/WEE (Eastern and Western Encephalomyelitis) |
| What are the recommendations if a healthy dog that is unvaccinated for rabies bites you? | The dog should be observed for 10 days and rabies vaccinations should be brought up to date after the 10 day period |
| An unvaccinated cat is bitten by what is determined to be a rabid skunk. What should be done with the cat? | It would be euthanized immediately, or if the owner is unwilling to euthanize, the local health department would require the cat to be under strict quarantine for four months. |
| What is the best thing that can be done to prevent rabies? | Vaccinate |
| How long does rabies virus survive in nervous system tissue of a deceased animal? | 24-48 hours |
| List the 3 stages of rabies in the order they occur. | 1. Prodromal phase 2. Excitative/Furious phase 3. Paralytic/Dumb stage |
| List the components that comprise the innate immune system. | physical barriers (skin, epithelial and mucous membrane surfaces, mucus), phagocytes (neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells, mast cells), natural killer cells, cytokines |
| Define antigen. | A substance that causes your immune system to produce antibodies against it. The body does not recognize it. Examples include bacteria and viruses. |
| List the signs of inflammation | Pain, heat, redness, swelling, loss of function |
| Describe the events that comprise the inflammatory response. | Vasodilation, Edema (swelling), Pain/loss of function, Clot formation |
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Smgregory235
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