Save
Busy. Please wait.
Log in with Clever
or

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
Sign up using Clever
or

Username is available taken
show password


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
Your email address is only used to allow you to reset your password. See our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.


Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
focusNode
Didn't know it?
click below
 
Knew it?
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

Beth Take

Physiology Week 1-6

QuestionAnswer
What is sometimes called Intrinsic control? Autoregulation
What is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease? Prion
Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? Reproductive
Negative-feedback control systems: Oppose a change
Pathogenesis can be defined as: The course of disease development
What does positive-feedback control systems do? Accelerate a change
The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback. Positive
The term that literally means self-immunity is: Autoimmunity
Of the pathogenic organisms, what are the most complex? Tapeworms
The basic components in a feedback control loop are: Effector mechanism Sensor Integrating center
Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations. Occurrence Distribution Transmission
What might put one at risk for developing a given disease? Environment Stress Lifestyle
The normal reading or range of normal is called the: Set point
Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of: The body trying to maintain homeostasis A negative-feedback mechanism
What do negative-feedback mechanisms do? Minimize changes in blood glucose levels, Maintain homeostasis, Are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature
If the secretion of oxytocin during childbirth operated as a negative-feedback control loop, what effect would it have on uterine contractions? Oxytocin would inhibit uterine contractions
Homeostasis can best be described as: A state of relative constancy
The body’s thermostat is located in the: Hypothalamus
Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein envelope are called: Viruses
What is the basic component of every feedback control loop? Sensor mechanism, integrating center, effector, feedback.
The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure? Secondary
The type of lipoprotein associated with “bad” cholesterol and the production of atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels is: Low-density Lipoprotein (LDL)
Sometimes referred to as animal starch, _____ is the main polysaccharide in the body. Glycogen
The term glycoprotein, a combination of two words, tells you that the compound is made of _____, with _____ being the dominant component. Carbohydrate and Protein; Protein
Which lipid acts as a “tissue hormone”? Prostaglandin
What lipid is part of vitamin D? Steroids
What do triglycerides and phospholipids contain? Glycerol and Fatty acids
RNA contains: Contains ribose sugar Contains adenine It is composed of smaller molecules called nucleotides
Peptide bonds join together molecules of: Amino acids
What level of protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids? Primary
What energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule contain a nucleotide? FAD NAD ATP
A structural lipid found in the cell membrane is a: Phospholipid and Steroid
Prostaglandins and steroids share what characteristics? Both have a ring structure in their molecule
Amino acids frequently become joined by: Peptide bonds
The basic building blocks of fats are: Fatty acids and glycerol
The roles played by proteins can be divided into what categories? Structural and functional
The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called: Dehydration synthesis
If one side of a DNA molecule is CTAGGCTG, the other side would be: GATCCGAC
The element that is present in all proteins but not in carbohydrates is: Nitrogen
What is DNA? A double-helix strand of nucleotides
When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide? Maltose
The amino group in an amino acid is: NH3+
What will Unsaturated fats do? Will kink or bend because of the double bonds between the carbon atoms
What substances are organic? Lipids Carbohydrates Proteins
Humans can synthesize 13 of 21 basic amino acids; the remaining 8, which must be included in the diet, are called: Essential amino acids
What are carbohydrates? They include substances commonly called sugars. They are the body’s primary source of energy. They are a part of both DNA and RNA.
What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids? Degree of saturation
A _____ is a functional group that is temporarily unattached and is highly reactive because of unpaired electrons. Free radical
The major groups of organic substances in the human body are: Proteins Lipids Nucleic acids
The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are: Steroids
A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than a red blood cell would be: Hypertonic
Examples of passive transport are: Filtration Osmosis Dialysis
NaCl would move through the cell membrane in which direction? Both into and out of the cell
What do Sodium and potassium pumps do? It uses cellular energy. Sodium moves into the cell and potassium moves out of the cell. It can move substances against their concentration gradient.
The correct order of the phases of mitosis is: Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
Materials can be moved from a low concentration to a high concentration through: Active Transport
The small water channels in the cell membrane are called: Aquaporins
What is true about the sodium and potassium pump? Three sodium ions are taken out of the cell
What does RNA not contain? Deoxyribose sugar
The physical process by which water and solute move through a membrane when a hydrostatic pressure gradient exists across the membrane is the process of: Filtration
If a sequence of nitrogen bases in nucleic acid were A-U-C-G-A, which of the following would be true about the nucleic acid? It contains ribose sugar
The pairing of bases of a strand of DNA is obligatory. If a strand of DNA were composed of the base sequence of ATCG, what would be the obligatory sequence of its opposing base pairs? TAGC
Two solutions of different concentrations of glucose are separated by a membrane that allows both glucose and water to pass through. When dynamic equilibrium is reached, there will be: An even exchange of material across the membrane
T/F: The site of transcription is within the nucleus, whereas the site of translation is in the cytoplasm. True
Extensive weight training causes the muscle cells to: Hypertrophy
A sequence of three bases forms a(n): Codon
Water will move through the cell membrane by: Osmosis
Phagocytosis is an example of: Endocytosis
An individual’s entire set of DNA can be referred to as a: Genome
When the chromosomes align themselves across the equator of the spindle fibers, it is characteristic of what phase of mitosis? Metaphase
Diffusion of particles through a membrane by means of a carrier molecule is called: Facilitated diffusion
Where can diffusion occur? In living and nonliving cells. May occur both into and out of the cell.
The result of meiosis is: Primitive sex cells become mature gametes The cells become haploid Meiosis occurs in two steps.
The synonymous of tumor is: Neoplasm
Transcription can be best described as the: Synthesis of mRNA
Diffusion requires: A concentration gradient.
A membrane carrier structure attracts a solute to a binding site, changes shape, and releases the solute on the other side of the cell membrane. This describes the process of: Carrier-mediated transport
A DNA molecule is characterized by: Double helix shape Obligatory base pairing Phosphate groups
Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans is referred to as: Haploid
During which stage of mitosis do the centrioles move to the opposite poles of the cell? Prophase
What structure is formed by the union of the basal and reticular lamina? Basement membrane
What are the characteristics of connective tissue? Protects the body from foreign invaders Supports the body Transports substances throughout the body
A tissue is: A group of similar cells that perform a common function
T/F: Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways. True
In what area of the body would you expect to find an especially thick stratum corneum? Sole of the foot.
Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the: Stratum Basale
What tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? Connective
The functions of adipose tissue are: Insulates to conserve body heat Supports and protects the kidneys Stores excess food
The proteoglycan found in the matrix of connective tissue are: Glucosamine & Hyaluronic acid
What are the characteristics of muscle tissue? Cells are specialized to contract Produces movement for the body Generates heat for the body
Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called: Mesenchyme
What epithelial functions is the primary activity of glandular epithelium? Secretion
The functions of epithelial tissue are: Absorption Secretion Protection
Basement membrane is composed of molecules made by _____ tissue. Connective & Epithelial
What does the hypodermis do? Connects the dermis to underlying tissues
What are the functions of the skin? Defense against disease organisms Regulation of body temperature Excretion of water and salts. Synthesis of vitamin D
What cell forms the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood? Astrocytes
The area referred to as true skin is the: Dermis
Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the: Bone
What epithelial function is the primary activity of glandular epithelium? Secretion
Which cells help destroy pathogens and damaged tissue in the brain? Microglia
What type of connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temperature by producing heat? Brown fat
What are the characteristics of epithelial tissue? Forms glands that secrete substances into and out of the body. Covers and protects body surfaces. Lines the interior of body cavities.
What cells electrically insulate axons to increase the speed of conduction? Oligodendrocytes & Schwann cells
The type of tissue that contains cells called neurons is called: Nervous
Areolar tissue usually contains which types of cells in the greatest number? Fibroblasts
What are the characteristics of skeletal muscles? Being attached to bone Having striations Having voluntary or “willed” muscles
What are the functions of connective tissue? Transport Support Defense
What are the characteristics of smooth muscles? Having one nucleus per cell Composing the walls of the viscera Usually not being under voluntary control
What type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate? Epithelial
T/F: Before childbirth, the symphysis pubis softens. True
Until bone growth in length is complete, a layer of the cartilage, known as the _____, remains between the epiphysis and diaphysis. Epiphyseal plate
The primary functions performed by bones are: Mineral storage Protection Hematopoiesis
The humerus articulates proximally with the: Scapula
The primary ossification center of a long bone is located: In the diaphysis
As the activity of osteoblasts increases, the: Amount of calcium in bone increases. Level of calcium in the blood decreases.
If the cribriform plate is damaged, there is a chance of: Infectious materials passing from the nose to the brain.
The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the: Thumb
One similarity between the structures of the foot and hand is the equivalent degrees of movement of both the thumb and the big toe. False
Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes begin to divide and secrete: Additional matrix
Small cells that synthesize and secrete a specialized organic matrix are: Osteoblasts
The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are: Endoplasmic Reticulum and Golgi Apparatus
Hematopoiesis is carried out in the: Red bone marrow
Young children’s bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone. False
What is not a characteristic of the epiphyses? Cylindrical in shape
In bone growth, the medullary cavity is enlarged because of the activity of: Osteoclasts
A person with a fractured patella would expect discomfort in the: Knee
The cells responsible for active erosion of bone minerals are called: Osteoclasts
Because of how the clavicle articulates with the scapula, all shoulder movements involve the sternoclavicular joint. True
The functions of bone are: Support, Protection, Mineral Storage, Hematopoiesis
After the age of 50, the density of bone: Decreases slowly because of a shift in the remodeling activity.
Which structures are unique to the fetal skull and provide additional space for molding the head shape as the baby passes through the birth canal? Fontanels
Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of _____ years. 35 and 40
An open fracture is also known as a compound fracture. True
Bones act as a reservoir for which of the following minerals? Calcium & Phosphorus
Bones grow in diameter by the combined action of which two of the three bone cell types? Osteoblasts and Osteoclasts
Calcification of the organic bone matrix occurs when: Complex calcium salts are deposited in the matrix.
In intramembranous ossification, the process of appositional growth refers to the: Addition of an outside layer of osseous tissue on flat bones.
The humerus articulates proximally with the clavicle. False
Blood calcium levels involve secretion of which two hormones? Parathyroid and Calcitonin
An example of a hinge joint is the: Interphalangeal joints
The major functions of muscles are: Movement, Heat Production, Posture
The opposite of eversion is: Inversion
The largest and most frequently injured joint is the: Knee
The substance that attracts oxygen in the myoglobin molecule is: Iron
Aerobic respiration produces: Produces the maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule.
Most body movements are _____ contractions. Isotonic
The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is that: The sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sacs.
The type of movement possible at a synovial joint depends on the: Shape of the articulating surfaces of the bones.
Skeletal muscles are innervated by: Somatic motor neurons
Kicking a football is accomplished by knee: Extension
The type of movement that occurs when the head is dropped to the shoulder, then to the chest, to the other shoulder, and toward the back is: Circumduction
Characteristics of smooth muscles are: No Striations. No T-tubules. The Sarcoplasmic Reticula are loosely organized.
During what phase of the twitch contraction is there a triggering of the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm? Latent period
The opposite of dorsiflexion is: Plantar flexion
After it is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, the calcium combines with which protein? Troponin
Glucose can be stored in the muscle as: Glycogen
Moving a body part away from the medial plane of the body is called: Abduction
Moving a part of the body forward is: Protraction
A gliding joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. Multiaxial
Heat production: The body temperature set point is established by the hypothalamus. Shivering will increase body temperature. Body temperature functions on a negative-feedback mechanism.
What type of muscle does not have T-tubules? Smooth
Stretching the foot down and back and pointing the toe is called: Plantar flexion
End-product of the breakdown of ATP: An inorganic phosphate. Energy that can be used in muscle contraction. ADP
Painful muscle contractions or involuntary twitches are called: Cramps
The ion necessary for cross-bridging is: Calcium
A condyloid joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. Biaxial.
What joint allows for a unique movement called opposition? Saddle
What type of joint joins the two pubic bones together? Symphysis
What are the most movable joints in the body? Synovial
In the structure called a triad, the T-tubule is sandwiched between: Sacs of sarcoplasmic reticulum
What protein found in myofilaments contains the cross-bridges? Myosin
The ability of muscle cells to respond to nerve stimuli is called: Irritability
In terms of function, which is considered an immovable joint? Synarthrosis
Rotator cuff surgery is performed quite commonly on professional baseball players, especially pitchers. Evidently, the throwing motion places enormous stress on the: Shoulder
The following statement is not true of motor units: The more muscle fibers stimulated by a motor neuron, the more precise the movements of that muscle can be.
Tilting the foot upward, decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg, is called: Dorsiflexion
What joint allows for the most movement? Ball and Socket
Characteristics of an isometric contraction are: The muscle does not shorten. It can produce work by tightening to resist a force. The tension produced by the myosin cross-bridges cannot overcome the load placed on the muscle.
A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes is called a(n) _____ contraction. Isotonic
What type of muscle is responsible for peristalsis? Single-unit smooth
The purpose of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction is to: Replenish energy supply
Attempting to pick up an object too heavy to lift would result in which type of muscle contraction? Isometric
Physiological muscle fatigue may be caused by: A relative lack of ATP. High levels of lactate. Failure of the sodium-potassium pumps.
What structure functions to temporarily store calcium ions? Sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Created by: BethPromise99
Popular Physiology sets

 

 



Voices

Use these flashcards to help memorize information. Look at the large card and try to recall what is on the other side. Then click the card to flip it. If you knew the answer, click the green Know box. Otherwise, click the red Don't know box.

When you've placed seven or more cards in the Don't know box, click "retry" to try those cards again.

If you've accidentally put the card in the wrong box, just click on the card to take it out of the box.

You can also use your keyboard to move the cards as follows:

If you are logged in to your account, this website will remember which cards you know and don't know so that they are in the same box the next time you log in.

When you need a break, try one of the other activities listed below the flashcards like Matching, Snowman, or Hungry Bug. Although it may feel like you're playing a game, your brain is still making more connections with the information to help you out.

To see how well you know the information, try the Quiz or Test activity.

Pass complete!
"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries:
restart all cards