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Beth Take
Physiology Week 1-6
Question | Answer |
---|---|
What is sometimes called Intrinsic control? | Autoregulation |
What is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease? | Prion |
Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? | Reproductive |
Negative-feedback control systems: | Oppose a change |
Pathogenesis can be defined as: | The course of disease development |
What does positive-feedback control systems do? | Accelerate a change |
The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback. | Positive |
The term that literally means self-immunity is: | Autoimmunity |
Of the pathogenic organisms, what are the most complex? | Tapeworms |
The basic components in a feedback control loop are: | Effector mechanism Sensor Integrating center |
Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations. | Occurrence Distribution Transmission |
What might put one at risk for developing a given disease? | Environment Stress Lifestyle |
The normal reading or range of normal is called the: | Set point |
Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of: | The body trying to maintain homeostasis A negative-feedback mechanism |
What do negative-feedback mechanisms do? | Minimize changes in blood glucose levels, Maintain homeostasis, Are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature |
If the secretion of oxytocin during childbirth operated as a negative-feedback control loop, what effect would it have on uterine contractions? | Oxytocin would inhibit uterine contractions |
Homeostasis can best be described as: | A state of relative constancy |
The body’s thermostat is located in the: | Hypothalamus |
Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein envelope are called: | Viruses |
What is the basic component of every feedback control loop? | Sensor mechanism, integrating center, effector, feedback. |
The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure? | Secondary |
The type of lipoprotein associated with “bad” cholesterol and the production of atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels is: | Low-density Lipoprotein (LDL) |
Sometimes referred to as animal starch, _____ is the main polysaccharide in the body. | Glycogen |
The term glycoprotein, a combination of two words, tells you that the compound is made of _____, with _____ being the dominant component. | Carbohydrate and Protein; Protein |
Which lipid acts as a “tissue hormone”? | Prostaglandin |
What lipid is part of vitamin D? | Steroids |
What do triglycerides and phospholipids contain? | Glycerol and Fatty acids |
RNA contains: | Contains ribose sugar Contains adenine It is composed of smaller molecules called nucleotides |
Peptide bonds join together molecules of: | Amino acids |
What level of protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids? | Primary |
What energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule contain a nucleotide? | FAD NAD ATP |
A structural lipid found in the cell membrane is a: | Phospholipid and Steroid |
Prostaglandins and steroids share what characteristics? | Both have a ring structure in their molecule |
Amino acids frequently become joined by: | Peptide bonds |
The basic building blocks of fats are: | Fatty acids and glycerol |
The roles played by proteins can be divided into what categories? | Structural and functional |
The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called: | Dehydration synthesis |
If one side of a DNA molecule is CTAGGCTG, the other side would be: | GATCCGAC |
The element that is present in all proteins but not in carbohydrates is: | Nitrogen |
What is DNA? | A double-helix strand of nucleotides |
When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide? | Maltose |
The amino group in an amino acid is: | NH3+ |
What will Unsaturated fats do? | Will kink or bend because of the double bonds between the carbon atoms |
What substances are organic? | Lipids Carbohydrates Proteins |
Humans can synthesize 13 of 21 basic amino acids; the remaining 8, which must be included in the diet, are called: | Essential amino acids |
What are carbohydrates? | They include substances commonly called sugars. They are the body’s primary source of energy. They are a part of both DNA and RNA. |
What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids? | Degree of saturation |
A _____ is a functional group that is temporarily unattached and is highly reactive because of unpaired electrons. | Free radical |
The major groups of organic substances in the human body are: | Proteins Lipids Nucleic acids |
The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are: | Steroids |
A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than a red blood cell would be: | Hypertonic |
Examples of passive transport are: | Filtration Osmosis Dialysis |
NaCl would move through the cell membrane in which direction? | Both into and out of the cell |
What do Sodium and potassium pumps do? | It uses cellular energy. Sodium moves into the cell and potassium moves out of the cell. It can move substances against their concentration gradient. |
The correct order of the phases of mitosis is: | Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase |
Materials can be moved from a low concentration to a high concentration through: | Active Transport |
The small water channels in the cell membrane are called: | Aquaporins |
What is true about the sodium and potassium pump? | Three sodium ions are taken out of the cell |
What does RNA not contain? | Deoxyribose sugar |
The physical process by which water and solute move through a membrane when a hydrostatic pressure gradient exists across the membrane is the process of: | Filtration |
If a sequence of nitrogen bases in nucleic acid were A-U-C-G-A, which of the following would be true about the nucleic acid? | It contains ribose sugar |
The pairing of bases of a strand of DNA is obligatory. If a strand of DNA were composed of the base sequence of ATCG, what would be the obligatory sequence of its opposing base pairs? | TAGC |
Two solutions of different concentrations of glucose are separated by a membrane that allows both glucose and water to pass through. When dynamic equilibrium is reached, there will be: | An even exchange of material across the membrane |
T/F: The site of transcription is within the nucleus, whereas the site of translation is in the cytoplasm. | True |
Extensive weight training causes the muscle cells to: | Hypertrophy |
A sequence of three bases forms a(n): | Codon |
Water will move through the cell membrane by: | Osmosis |
Phagocytosis is an example of: | Endocytosis |
An individual’s entire set of DNA can be referred to as a: | Genome |
When the chromosomes align themselves across the equator of the spindle fibers, it is characteristic of what phase of mitosis? | Metaphase |
Diffusion of particles through a membrane by means of a carrier molecule is called: | Facilitated diffusion |
Where can diffusion occur? | In living and nonliving cells. May occur both into and out of the cell. |
The result of meiosis is: | Primitive sex cells become mature gametes The cells become haploid Meiosis occurs in two steps. |
The synonymous of tumor is: | Neoplasm |
Transcription can be best described as the: | Synthesis of mRNA |
Diffusion requires: | A concentration gradient. |
A membrane carrier structure attracts a solute to a binding site, changes shape, and releases the solute on the other side of the cell membrane. This describes the process of: | Carrier-mediated transport |
A DNA molecule is characterized by: | Double helix shape Obligatory base pairing Phosphate groups |
Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans is referred to as: | Haploid |
During which stage of mitosis do the centrioles move to the opposite poles of the cell? | Prophase |
What structure is formed by the union of the basal and reticular lamina? | Basement membrane |
What are the characteristics of connective tissue? | Protects the body from foreign invaders Supports the body Transports substances throughout the body |
A tissue is: | A group of similar cells that perform a common function |
T/F: Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways. | True |
In what area of the body would you expect to find an especially thick stratum corneum? | Sole of the foot. |
Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the: | Stratum Basale |
What tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? | Connective |
The functions of adipose tissue are: | Insulates to conserve body heat Supports and protects the kidneys Stores excess food |
The proteoglycan found in the matrix of connective tissue are: | Glucosamine & Hyaluronic acid |
What are the characteristics of muscle tissue? | Cells are specialized to contract Produces movement for the body Generates heat for the body |
Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called: | Mesenchyme |
What epithelial functions is the primary activity of glandular epithelium? | Secretion |
The functions of epithelial tissue are: | Absorption Secretion Protection |
Basement membrane is composed of molecules made by _____ tissue. | Connective & Epithelial |
What does the hypodermis do? | Connects the dermis to underlying tissues |
What are the functions of the skin? | Defense against disease organisms Regulation of body temperature Excretion of water and salts. Synthesis of vitamin D |
What cell forms the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood? | Astrocytes |
The area referred to as true skin is the: | Dermis |
Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the: | Bone |
What epithelial function is the primary activity of glandular epithelium? | Secretion |
Which cells help destroy pathogens and damaged tissue in the brain? | Microglia |
What type of connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temperature by producing heat? | Brown fat |
What are the characteristics of epithelial tissue? | Forms glands that secrete substances into and out of the body. Covers and protects body surfaces. Lines the interior of body cavities. |
What cells electrically insulate axons to increase the speed of conduction? | Oligodendrocytes & Schwann cells |
The type of tissue that contains cells called neurons is called: | Nervous |
Areolar tissue usually contains which types of cells in the greatest number? | Fibroblasts |
What are the characteristics of skeletal muscles? | Being attached to bone Having striations Having voluntary or “willed” muscles |
What are the functions of connective tissue? | Transport Support Defense |
What are the characteristics of smooth muscles? | Having one nucleus per cell Composing the walls of the viscera Usually not being under voluntary control |
What type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate? | Epithelial |
T/F: Before childbirth, the symphysis pubis softens. | True |
Until bone growth in length is complete, a layer of the cartilage, known as the _____, remains between the epiphysis and diaphysis. | Epiphyseal plate |
The primary functions performed by bones are: | Mineral storage Protection Hematopoiesis |
The humerus articulates proximally with the: | Scapula |
The primary ossification center of a long bone is located: | In the diaphysis |
As the activity of osteoblasts increases, the: | Amount of calcium in bone increases. Level of calcium in the blood decreases. |
If the cribriform plate is damaged, there is a chance of: | Infectious materials passing from the nose to the brain. |
The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the: | Thumb |
One similarity between the structures of the foot and hand is the equivalent degrees of movement of both the thumb and the big toe. | False |
Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes begin to divide and secrete: | Additional matrix |
Small cells that synthesize and secrete a specialized organic matrix are: | Osteoblasts |
The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are: | Endoplasmic Reticulum and Golgi Apparatus |
Hematopoiesis is carried out in the: | Red bone marrow |
Young children’s bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone. | False |
What is not a characteristic of the epiphyses? | Cylindrical in shape |
In bone growth, the medullary cavity is enlarged because of the activity of: | Osteoclasts |
A person with a fractured patella would expect discomfort in the: | Knee |
The cells responsible for active erosion of bone minerals are called: | Osteoclasts |
Because of how the clavicle articulates with the scapula, all shoulder movements involve the sternoclavicular joint. | True |
The functions of bone are: | Support, Protection, Mineral Storage, Hematopoiesis |
After the age of 50, the density of bone: | Decreases slowly because of a shift in the remodeling activity. |
Which structures are unique to the fetal skull and provide additional space for molding the head shape as the baby passes through the birth canal? | Fontanels |
Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of _____ years. | 35 and 40 |
An open fracture is also known as a compound fracture. | True |
Bones act as a reservoir for which of the following minerals? | Calcium & Phosphorus |
Bones grow in diameter by the combined action of which two of the three bone cell types? | Osteoblasts and Osteoclasts |
Calcification of the organic bone matrix occurs when: | Complex calcium salts are deposited in the matrix. |
In intramembranous ossification, the process of appositional growth refers to the: | Addition of an outside layer of osseous tissue on flat bones. |
The humerus articulates proximally with the clavicle. | False |
Blood calcium levels involve secretion of which two hormones? | Parathyroid and Calcitonin |
An example of a hinge joint is the: | Interphalangeal joints |
The major functions of muscles are: | Movement, Heat Production, Posture |
The opposite of eversion is: | Inversion |
The largest and most frequently injured joint is the: | Knee |
The substance that attracts oxygen in the myoglobin molecule is: | Iron |
Aerobic respiration produces: | Produces the maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule. |
Most body movements are _____ contractions. | Isotonic |
The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is that: | The sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sacs. |
The type of movement possible at a synovial joint depends on the: | Shape of the articulating surfaces of the bones. |
Skeletal muscles are innervated by: | Somatic motor neurons |
Kicking a football is accomplished by knee: | Extension |
The type of movement that occurs when the head is dropped to the shoulder, then to the chest, to the other shoulder, and toward the back is: | Circumduction |
Characteristics of smooth muscles are: | No Striations. No T-tubules. The Sarcoplasmic Reticula are loosely organized. |
During what phase of the twitch contraction is there a triggering of the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm? | Latent period |
The opposite of dorsiflexion is: | Plantar flexion |
After it is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, the calcium combines with which protein? | Troponin |
Glucose can be stored in the muscle as: | Glycogen |
Moving a body part away from the medial plane of the body is called: | Abduction |
Moving a part of the body forward is: | Protraction |
A gliding joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. | Multiaxial |
Heat production: | The body temperature set point is established by the hypothalamus. Shivering will increase body temperature. Body temperature functions on a negative-feedback mechanism. |
What type of muscle does not have T-tubules? | Smooth |
Stretching the foot down and back and pointing the toe is called: | Plantar flexion |
End-product of the breakdown of ATP: | An inorganic phosphate. Energy that can be used in muscle contraction. ADP |
Painful muscle contractions or involuntary twitches are called: | Cramps |
The ion necessary for cross-bridging is: | Calcium |
A condyloid joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. | Biaxial. |
What joint allows for a unique movement called opposition? | Saddle |
What type of joint joins the two pubic bones together? | Symphysis |
What are the most movable joints in the body? | Synovial |
In the structure called a triad, the T-tubule is sandwiched between: | Sacs of sarcoplasmic reticulum |
What protein found in myofilaments contains the cross-bridges? | Myosin |
The ability of muscle cells to respond to nerve stimuli is called: | Irritability |
In terms of function, which is considered an immovable joint? | Synarthrosis |
Rotator cuff surgery is performed quite commonly on professional baseball players, especially pitchers. Evidently, the throwing motion places enormous stress on the: | Shoulder |
The following statement is not true of motor units: | The more muscle fibers stimulated by a motor neuron, the more precise the movements of that muscle can be. |
Tilting the foot upward, decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg, is called: | Dorsiflexion |
What joint allows for the most movement? | Ball and Socket |
Characteristics of an isometric contraction are: | The muscle does not shorten. It can produce work by tightening to resist a force. The tension produced by the myosin cross-bridges cannot overcome the load placed on the muscle. |
A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes is called a(n) _____ contraction. | Isotonic |
What type of muscle is responsible for peristalsis? | Single-unit smooth |
The purpose of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction is to: | Replenish energy supply |
Attempting to pick up an object too heavy to lift would result in which type of muscle contraction? | Isometric |
Physiological muscle fatigue may be caused by: | A relative lack of ATP. High levels of lactate. Failure of the sodium-potassium pumps. |
What structure functions to temporarily store calcium ions? | Sarcoplasmic reticulum. |