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CDC TMO
Volume 3
Question | Answer |
---|---|
1. What is a structure that establishes time standards for the supply of materiel from the date of the requisition to the time of posting of the acknowledgment of physical receipt to the requisitioner’s inventory record? | UMMIPS |
2. Who retains the authority to inspect all shipments for safety, unauthorized items, characteristic/serviceability, and to validate serial numbers when accessible? | Outbound cargo (OC) |
3. Who determines what substances or materials are capable of posing an unreasonable risk to health, safety, and property during transportation? | United Nations (UN) or Department of Transportation (DOT) |
4. What regulation shows the supply priority designators (PD) that correspond with the transportation PDs? | AFI 24-602 Volume 2 Cargo Movement |
5. What transportation priority is assigned to a supply priority designator (PD) 03 with a required delivery date of 444? | TP 1 |
6. Who will comply with the provisions in Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR), Part II, Appendix V, to determine valid transportation account codes (TAC) and funding responsibility? | Shippers |
7. If there is a funding discrepancy between the Department of Defense (DD) Form 1348–1A/DD Form 1149 and the Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS), what automated system will be used for validation of the transportation account code (TAC)? | Tracker Lite |
8. What converts the transportation account codes (TAC) and standard document numbers (SDN) to segmented lines of accounting (LOA) and ensures that TAC entries are valid, appropriate, and funded in Transportation Global Edit Table (TGET)? | Tracker Lite System |
9. In which block is the classification of the item established in the Department of Defense (DD) Form 1348–1A, Issue Release/Receipt Document? | Block 6 |
10. What do you select to populate the National Motor Freight Classification (NMFC) number in the Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS)? | F8 |
11. When routing shipments, outbound cargo (OC) personnel need to consider the transportation protective services, | route orders, tracking requirements, and mode and method selection |
12. The regulations that provide the guidelines for the minimum requirements for TPS for the movement of sensitive and classified material, including demilitarized and retrograde cargo, are DTR 4500.9-R, Chapter 205, and | AFI 24-602 Volume 2 Cargo Movement |
13. A written procedural checklist utilizing any MAJCOM-specific checklists for shipment and receipt of arms, ammunition and explosives (AA&E), classified (SECRET and CONFIDENTIAL), sensitive, controlled, and pilferable material will be established by th | Transportation officer (TO) |
14. The Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC) provides what tracking service to keep shippers and receivers informed of the location and status of loaded freight cars during movement from origin to destination? | Military Traffic Expediting Service (MTX) |
15. For shipment planning, how will outbound cargo (OC) select the mode/method? | Delivery requirements and physical characteristics |
16. All of the different movement modes that outbound cargo (OC) will encounter are | Air, public highway, rail, and vessel |
17. In the continental United States (CONUS), who is the single Water Clearance Authority (WCA) and controls the movement of export/import cargo through sea terminals? | Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC) |
18. What preparation of cargo movement is accomplished before the mode of transportation is selected? | Physical |
20. Who is the authorizing person when it comes to selecting a proper container for freight shipment? | Packing supervisor |
21. When special packaging instructions (SPI) containers are not available, outbound cargo (OC) uses what to acquire a container? | Reusable Container Worldwide Warehouse |
22. What type of inspection is done before outbound cargo (OC) can reuse a container for movement? | Visual |
23. Who should we contact for serviceability of a particular container in question? | Air Force Material Command |
24. What regulation is the prescribing directive for establishing and maintaining the Reusable Container Program? | AFI 24-602 Volume 2 Cargo Movement |
25. A minimum of how many trips is a long-life container designed to last? | 100 |
26. A short-life container should withstand a minimum of how many trips? | 10 |
27. Electrostatic discharge (ESD) can cause damage at as low as | 30 volts |
28. What is the main form of sealing used for closing an electronic sensitive device sleeve? | Heat |
29. What is the maximum temperature to seal an electronic sensitive device package? | 525 F |
30. What is the minimum dwell time to obtain a good seal? | 1/2 second |
31. How many types of loads are there? | 3 types |
32. What is a Type 2 load? | average |
33. Which type of load is developed from items of moderately concentrated weight that are packed directly into the shipping container and that provide partial support to all of the container panels? | type 2, average |
34. What is the most common type of container for small parcel packaging? | single wall |
35. What is the only fiberboard box approved for type 3 loads? | triple wall |
36. When an item is 10 feet or more in length, or is a relatively large item with a balance point other than its center and moving by air, you must | mark the center of balance |
37. What is the primary advantage of wooden boxes over fiberboard containers? | Strength |
38. Which hardwood group has the greatest nail-holding power of all the wood groups, but is easy to split? | IV |
39. Where does the strength from a crate come from? | structural framework |
40. What type wood must be permanently marked with an International Standards for Phytosanitary Measures (ISPM) 15 marking if it is used for the wood packaging material (WPM) program? | Debarked |
41. Who has the primary responsibility at the installation/activity for the management of all containers and equipment including chassis system assets? | Transportation Officer (TO) |
42. What must we ensure is consistent with the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)? | Health and Safety standards |
43. What type of saw is used primarily for ripping cuts (cutting with the grain), but also can be set up for crosscutting (i.e., cutting against the grain)? | Table |
44. What saw is primarily used for crosscutting and has a carriage that is swingable in any direction, which makes this saw adaptable to crosscutting and ripping? | Radial |
45. Which saw is capable of cutting 2-inch depths by raising or lowering the motor on the saw base? | Portable Circular |
46. What type of hammer must you use when working with explosives and flammables? | Brass |
47. What publication establishes lockout/tagout (LOTO) procedures and training? | Air Force Manual 91-203 Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire and Health Standards |
48. When are inspections conducted for lockout/tagout (LOTO)? | Annually |
49. Why would outbound cargo (OC) personnel block and brace an irregularly shaped item? | Distribute Weight |
50. What will be done within a container to prevent the item from shifting from side to side or front to back? | Block |
51. When a portion of a common nail protruding through the wood is bent over and hammered in, the nail is considered to be | Clinched |
52. Which military standard (MIL-STD) governs marking and labeling lists? | 129 |
53. In what step will outbound cargo (OC) select tools, reports, and printed products when preparing an automated military shipping label. | Step 2 |
54. In what block will outbound cargo (OC) enter the transportation priority when preparing the manual military shipping label? | Block 6 |
55. What are the two most common governing directives for hazardous materials? | The 49 code of Federal Regulations (CFR) and AFMAN 24-204, Preparing Hazardous Materials for Military Air Shipments |
56. What information on the safety data sheet (SDS) is most useful to outbound cargo (OC) personnel? | Transportation Data |
57. The publication that provides instructions for the preparation of hazardous material (HAZMAT) for movement aboard international vessels is the | International Maritime Dangerous Goods (IMDG) code |
58. At what step of preparing hazardous material (HAZMAT) will outbound cargo (OC) utilize 49 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), Part 172.101, to determine if material is hazardous and the appropriate hazard classification? | Step 2 |
59. Where does outbound cargo (OC) display hazard placards on a truck? | Front, rear, and both sides |
60. What is the primary action taken to minimize the impact of chemical contamination on operations? | Contamination avoidance |
61. Who must account for areas that would require chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) equipment such as shelters, alternate locations, country container authority (CCA), and logistics for detecting contamination on cargo? | CBRN planners |
62. What are the instructions needed by transportation component commands or theater commanders for all export and import of transportation protective service (TPS) shipments for minimum security standards? | Routing |
63. The Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC) operations center is available to obtain any type of Department of Defense (DOD) safety or security advice on a | 24-hour basis |
64. What process involves the transportation officer (TO) awaiting positive acknowledgement from the recipient before the shipment of arms, ammunition, and explosives occurs? | Intent to ship |
65. For a shipment of arms, ammunition, and explosives, when does outbound cargo (OC) release the shipment in the Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS)? | Shipment departs |
66. In what block of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 1907, Signature and Tally Record, will outbound cargo (OC) personnel enter the name of transportation service provider (TSP)? | Block 12 |
67. What is required in block 16 of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 1907, Signature and Tally Record? | Signatures of both drivers |
68. What regulation dictates that outbound cargo (OC) will have an area for containerizing and packing oversized materiel that cannot be handled in the unit packing area? | AFI 24-602 Volume 2 Cargo Movement |
69. Before using tie downs, what should outbound cargo (OC) inspect on their metal parts? | Improper operation, corrosion, crack or distortion |
70. In what step of tie-down procedures does outbound cargo (OC) personnel start ratcheting (raising and lowering handle)? | Step 3 |
71. When loading/unloading, outbound cargo (OC) will first ensure the | Equipment is suitable for its intended purpose, and reject it if it is unsuitable |
72. What is defined as the apportioning of weight within any vessel that carries the load? | Weight distribution |
73. Who may allow the transportation service provider (TSP) to substitute suitable equipment? | Transportation officer (TO) |
74. When the equipment furnished differs from the equipment ordered, outbound cargo (OC) should | Annotate the bill of lading (BL) |
75. What is proper packaging, loading, and securing of cargo in or on a transport unit called? | Cargo protection |
76. Who is responsible for the use of reasonable safeguards? | Shipper |
77. The size of the nails used for blocking and bracing is determined by the | thickness of the lumber used |
78. What type of force is caused by the centrifugal forces (i.e., forces which move from the center outward) of curves and corners? | Lateral |
79. What regulation has tables that indicate the minimum requirements for placarding motor vehicles and rail cars and lists exceptions to placarding? | The 49 Code of Federal regulations |
80. Who must securely attach placards to both ends and sides of cars they accept for transportation? | Shipper |
81. How often are transportation officers (TO) required to update their Transportation Facilities Guide (TFG) records for secure holding areas? | Semi-annually |
82. If critical operational changes are made, such as changes in operating hours or installation closures, when will the Transportation Facilities Guide (TFG) be updated? | Immediately |
83. What regulation gives guidance regarding the accountability, application, issuance, preparation, and distribution of freight commercial bills of lading (CBL), and for instructions for the procurement of transportation from commercial TSP? | Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) part 2 Cargo Movement |
84. What provides the clearance authorities, ports, receivers, and other interested transportation personnel with advance notice of shipments and the information necessary to process the shipments through the Defense Travel System (DTS)? | Transportation control and movement document |
85. When creating a manual Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD) how does outbound cargo (OC) get the total cube of the shipment? | L x W x H divided by 1728 |
86. Who will maintain outbound documentation files that substantiate proof of shipment and the release of cargo from their installation? | Transportation Officer (TO) |
87. What is an agreement by which the local finance office allots a specified amount of government-appropriated funds for obligation of moving cargo? | Obligation authority (OA) |
88. Obligation authority (OA) obligations to be paid at a future date to commercial carriers on performance of their services are in the form of | estimated freight charges |
89. What publication outlines procedures for supporting contracting officers responsible for processing purchase requests? | AFI 24-602 Volume 2 Cargo Movement |
90. What directs procurement contracting officers (PCO) to obtain the transportation officer’s (TO) advice and assistance concerning solicitations, awards, administration, modification, and termination of contracts? | Federal Acquisition Regulation |
91. The regulation that gives guidance to outbound cargo (OC) for tracing shipments is | DTR part II Cargo Movement |
92. What provides an overview of the Air Force’s (AF) force presentation and the planning policies, processes, and systems used to support the joint planning process? | Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) |
93. What plan identifies the specific forces, functional support, and resources required to execute the plan and provide closure estimates for their flow into the theater? | Operational plan |
94. What does an operational plan identify? | Specific forces, functional support, and resources required to execute the plan |
95. What is the database portion of an operation plan in the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) to carry out deployments in phases? | Time phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) |
96. What is designed to integrate incoming units into a mission/combat-capable force as soon as possible with the flexibility to stage and move units forward? | Reception Process |
97. Which deployment work center is responsible for the direction and supervision of deployment operations? | Deployment Control Center (DCC) |
98. Who validates paperwork for accuracy and passes information to load planners and inputs data into Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS)? | Cargo Manifestation and documentation |
99. Who serves as the installation’s focal point for monitoring all personnel processing activities to include eligibility screening, pre-deployment briefings, orders preparation, and production? | Personnel deployment function |
100. When do air carriers of the United States (US) airline industry who are members of the Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) provide aircraft and crews to support the Department of Defense (DOD)? | In emergencies when requirements exceed available military aircraft |
19. What system determines if cargo requires clearance into an air or water terminal? | Defense transportation system |