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Nutrition

Question	Answer
Simple carbohydrates are commonly referred to as	Sugar
What are the four monosaccharides?	Glucose galactose, fructose, ribose
Maltos is a key component in which product	Alcohol
Beside its molecular make up what makes sucrose different from maltose and lactose	It’s sweeter
glycogen is	A storage form of glucose for animal and human
What is the technical name for complex carbohydrate?	Polysaccharide
The food and nutrition board of medicine has recently proposed three distinction for defining fiber. What are they?	Dietary fiber, functional fiber, and total fiber
Pectins are	Soluble fibers used to thicken jam and yogurt
What happens when our intestinal bacteria try to break down resistant starch	Butyrate is produce which could help reduce risk for cancer
Carbohydrates are used primarily for	Energy
Carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth with	Salivary amylase
Ketoacidosis can result from	Prolong, low carbohydrate intake
The body can make its own glucose through a process, known as	Gluconeogenesis
The liver converts all monosaccharides into	Glucose
The AMDR for carbohydrate is	45-65%
sweeteners, such as sucrose, fructose, honey and brown sugar, are referred to as	Nutritive sweeteners
The RDA for carbohydrate is based on how much glucose is utilized by	The brain
What substance or nutrient does the acceptable daily intake refer?	Amount of sweeteners
For which sweetener has there been no ADI set?	Saccharin
What two hormones assist the body in maintaining blood sugar levels?	Insulin and glucagon
Insulin is secreted by the	Beta cells of the pancreas
What is the difference between type one and type two diabetes	With type one diabetes, you don’t produce enough insulin with type two you are resistant to insulin
Which of the following can affect how quickly the body absorbs carbohydrate	Food preparation, fat, and fiber content
What is the glycemic index?	A numeric value that indicates the potential of food to increase blood glucose and insulin
The amount of carbohydrate, a food contains multiplied by the glycemic index of that food is called the	Glycemic load
Fats belong to a larger group of substances called	Lipid
What unique features distinguishes, lipid from other substance?	They are insoluble in water
Chain length refers to	The amount of carbon in a fatty acid strand
What does trans imply?	Hydrogen atoms are attached on diagonally opposite side of the double carbon bond.
Essential fatty acid are required to make eicosanoids What do they do?	They help regulate key physiological functions
Why do we need fat?	It’s a primary source of energy it make our food taste good it provide us with the central building blocks
Dietary fat enables the transport of what	Vitamins
Dietary high in what type of fat can lead to a disease	Saturated and trans fats
———-strongly stimulate the breakdown of stored fat	Adrenaline
Fat, help maintain cell function, which of the following type of lipid is a critical part of every cell membrane	Phospholipid
What is a key storage organ that assist in fat digestion	Gallbladder
Because fat/lipid are not soluble in water, they require what type of carrier to travel in blood and lymph ?	A Lipoprotein
What is the primary storage side of extra energy for the average person?	Adipose cell
The lipoprotein the transport fat from a meat is called a	Chylomicron
Fatty acids shorter than what carbon length can travel in the blood, without having to be carried in chylomicron	14
The MDR for fat is	20 to 35%
The adequate intake for linoleic acid is—— per day for men and—— for women.	14-17; 11-12g
Research of shown that very-low -fat diets, lower than —- of energy from fat does not produce additional benefit over moderate fat diet	15%
Based on regulations set by the FDA and USDA, a chain of low fat for a single serving on a food label is defined as	3g or less of fat
To improve blood, lipid level, the recommendations are to decrease saturated fat to—-or less, dietary cholesterol to less than —- per day and trans fat to —-	7-10%; 300; as low as possible
Risk factor for cardiovascular disease include	Smoking Diabetes Hypertension Family history
What do HDL’s do?	Pick up cholesterol and return it to the liver
Diet high in fat, extra calories and – can increase production of VLDLS are therefore triglycerides	Simple sugars
Dietary recommendation to reduce the risk of heart disease, include reducing total dietary fat and saturated fat, along with increasing whole grains, so that fiber intake is —-/day	20 -30 grams
Healthy, lipid profile (blood cholesterol) should of the following values – total blood cholesterol——LDL cholesterol and – HDL cholesterol	Less than 200 MG/DL under 100 MG/DL over 40 MG/DL
What enzyme is responsible for removing-that fat from the chylomicron and allowing it to enter the cell	Lipoprotein lipase
Proteins are	Large complex molecule found in the cell of all living things
What is one key difference between protein and the other macronutrients?	Protein structure is determined by DNA
Amino acid are molecule composed of a central carbon atom connected to four other group, an acid group, hydrogen atom, a side chain, and an ——group	Amine
What is unique about an essential amino acid?	It must be obtained from the diet
The portion of the amino acid, that changes to give each amino acid its unique identity is the	Side chain
protein functions, most efficiently when	There are adequate calories from carbohydrate and fat in the diet
The function of proteins do not include	Use as the primary energy source
What kind of protein are found within the cell membrane that assist in fluid balance.	Transport proteins
During digestion where are proteins, broken apart by hydrochloric acid	The stomach
What are the enzymes that digestive protein in the small intestine	Protease
The RDA for protein for sedimentary people is	0.8 g per kilogram body weight.
What is the recommended percentage of of total energy intake that should come from protein	10 to 35%
I protein intake and be harmful because it can	Increase the risk of kidney disease
We can observe more than 90% of the amino acid inside soy protein sources, true or false	True
I have a specialized procedure referred to as — is used to determine a persons protein need	Nitrogen balance
A semi vegetarian is someone who	Typically exclude or limit meat
Doing protein synthesis, what is the term given to the amino acid in least supply?	Limiting amino acid
The most common reason, for being vegetarian, include	Ecological benefit, ethical reason, Health benefit
What is the main nutritional concern associated with a vegan diet?	The possibility of calcium iron, zinc, B12, and vitamin D deficiencies
Vegan need to consume—- from fortified food or supplement, because it is found naturally only in animal foods	Vitamin , B12
Balance, vegetarian diet may reduce the risk of what disease?	Type two diabetes heart disease and kidney disease
A peptide band is when	Two amino acids joined together
Gene expression is a term used to refer to the process of	Using a gene in a cell to make a protein
The DNA for making every protein in our bodies is contain in every cells nucleus ,true or false	True
The term only oligopeptide is used to identify a string of how many amino acid?	4 - 9
Which level of a proteins structure determine its function in the body?	Tertiary
What is one difference between the EAR and RDA	The EAR represent intake level for just half the healthy individual of a particular gender and age group.
Which of the following values is based on observation or experiment involving healthy people and is used when an RDA cannot be determined ?	Al
What is the EER?	It is the energy intake predicted to maintain energy balance.
The AMRD	Defines a range of micro nutrient intakes associated with reduce risk of chronic disease
Nutrients are	Chemical found in food that are critical do human growth and function
What is one major difference between vitamin and mineral ?	Mineral maintain their structure, no matter what environment they are in
What is nutrition?	The discipline that encompasses everything about food.
To disease directly caused by nutritional deficiencies are	Pellagra and scurvy
Which disease use attributed to a nutritional deficiency in 1914 by Dr. Joseph Goldberger	Pellagra
This standardize method used by research when looking at evidence is called	The scientific method
The first step in the scientific method is	Observation
Which is the correct order?	Observation, hypothesis experimental design
Observational study in for most of	Existing relationships
Which off the following is not among the key question to ask when evaluating media reports	When was the research done?
What is a nutrition quack?	Someone who promotes an unproven remedy for financial gain
The four characteristic of healthful diet are	Balance varied, adequate, moderate
An adequate diet as	The caloric adequacy to maintain health The nutrient adequacy to maintain health The fiber adequacy to maintain health
Variety refer to	Eating a lot of different food to optimize nutrients
There is no one way to eat that is healthful and acceptable to everyone. Why?	Cultural influence, personal preference, and unit needs
What factor may contribute to uncertainly about the influence of nutrition on human health?	Relative newness of nutrition as a science and the media.
My plate was created to promote a graphic representation of	The 2010 dietary guidelines for Americans
My plate was successfully designed to be	Interactive
There are – component food group represent in my plate	Five
What do empty calories represent	Calories the contain few or no nutrients.
My plate uses the term — to address recommended amounts to eat.	Ounce - equivalent
Which of the following would be highest in sodium?	3 oz of cured, roasted ham
A substance composed of molecules that move freely and conform to the shape of their container is known as a	fluid.
How much of an adult's body fluid is held within the walls of the cells?	two-thirds
What type of fluids are cerebrospinal fluid, mucus, and synovial fluid?	interstitial
Lean tissues are more than —— fluid by weight, compared to —— in fat tissues	70%; 10-20%
Fluids serve many critical functions, such as substance transport, protection and lubrication of tissues, and to name a few.	maintaining healthful blood volume
Mineral salts that are able to dissolve in water and form charged particles are called	electrolytes.
The primary positively charged intracellular/extracellular electrolytes are	potassium/sodium.
Of the four major minerals, which two are positively charged and which two negatively?	sodium/potassium (+), chloride/phosphorus (-)
Depolarization occurs when there is an influx of into the cell, causing the cell to become slightly less negatively charged.	sodium
Sodium and potassium play a key role in the generation of	electrical signals.
Where —- go, water will follow.	ions
The body's command center for regulating fluids is located in the	hypothalamus.
What two primary sources contribute the fluid we need each day?	dietary intake and metabolic water
Sensible water loss refers to	noticeable water loss.
The thirst mechanism stimulates your desire to drink fluids in response to increased salt in your blood or a decrease in	blood pressure and blood volume.
Eight glasses (8 oz) of fluid each day is the recommended amount for everyone. True or false?	False
High ——- consumption is linked to an increased risk of hypertension.	sodium
Which of the following would be highest in sodium?	3 oz of cured, roasted ham
Hyperkalemia is a term referring to	high blood potassium levels
Chloride is an important part of what?	stomach acid
Dehydration refers to	a serious health problem caused when fluid intake is less than output.
Drinking alcoholic beverages causes increased water loss because alcohol is a	diuretic.
A potentially fatal heat illness that athletes are vulnerable to is	heat stroke.
Dehydration is classified according to what terms?	percentage of weight loss exclusively due to loss of fluid
What causes hypertension in the majority of individuals?	The actual cause continues to be debated.
Typical symptoms of hypokalemia include	confusion and loss of appetite.
What are the six nutrients?	carbohydrates, water, fats, proteins, vitamins, and minerals
Which macronutrients are used primarily for energy?	carbohydrates and fats
My diet shows that I have consumed 2,200 calories and 65 grams of protein. How many calories are from protein?	260 caleries
Under the umbrella of DRIs, there are two smaller groups. What are they?	most nutrients, energy and macronutrients
The ingredients list is one of the five components that must be listed on food labels. How are the ingredients listed, and what must be included in this section?	in descending order by weight, and the presence of any of the eight most common food allergens
True or false? It would be appropriate to label the product on the right in the figure below as one that is high in fiber and that "could help reduce the risk of colon-rectal cancer.	b) False
How would MyPlate be best characterized?	It is an interactive, personalized guide available on the Internet to help you assess your diet and plan appropriate changes.
Why are there still many different food pyramids in use?	Food availability, dietary patterns, life stages, and lifestyles vary; therefore, one guideline does not fit all.
Foods containing —— have the highest satiety value.	protein
The bolus is swallowed and moved toward the stomach through the esophagus. Which factors play the major roles in moving food contents down the esophagus?	epiglottis placement, peristalsis, and gravity
The villi are composed of capillaries and a	lacteal
Once nutrients are absorbed from the small intestine, most of them go to the ——-/	liver
True or false? A food allergy is the same thing as a food intolerance.	False
What are simple sugars?	mono- and disaccharides
What do starch and glycogen have in common?	They are polysaccharides- one is the storage form of glucose for plants and the other for animals.
Most carbohydrate digestion takes place in the	small intestine.
How do insulin and glucagon act in opposing ways?	Insulin stimulates conversion of glycogen to glucose, and glucagon stimulates the conversion of glucose to glycogen.
True or false? Carbohydrates are considered nonessential nutrients that can make you fat.	False
Fatty acid chain length is important because	the chain length determines the method of fat digestion, its absorption, and how it functions within the body.
Which are more harmful to your health: saturated fats or trans fats?	Trans fats are more harmful than saturated fats
Which type of lipoprotein carries fat from a meal?	a chylomicron
Which risk factors are the most significant for cardiovascular disease risk?	overweight, smoking, family history, high cholesterol, high blood pressure
What does mutual supplementation refer to?	the process of combining two or more incomplete proteins
What do we mean when we say that proteins are excellent buffers?	They help maintain proper acid-base balance.
Two primary factors to consider when looking at protein quality are	quantity of essential amino acids and digestibility.
Do athletes need more protein than non-athletes, and if so, why?	Yes, because greater exercise increases the oxygen needs of tissues.
What is the difference between a vegetarian and a vegan?	Vegetarians eat flesh and animal products; vegans do not.
Body fluid is divided into two categories. They are	intracellular and extracellular.
True or false? Approximately 75% of an infant's body weight is water, whereas only about 50% of an elderly adult's body weight is water.	True
In addition to regular avenues of fluid loss, such as urine and sweat, which of the following also accounts for significant loss of fluid from our bodies?	extreme environmental temperatures, fever, blood donations, consuming diuretics
Dehydration is classified in terms of	percentage of weight loss that is exclusively due to the loss of fluid.
Muscle cramps are caused by	hypernatremia.
An inappropriate use of sports beverages is	throughout the day to prevent dehydration later.
For which, if any, of the conditions below would surgery be a recommended remedy?	morbid obesity
Obesity is characterized as having a BMI of	30 to 39.9.
Prescription weight-loss medications are most appropriate for	anyone with a BMI greater than or equal to 30.
True or false? Obese people have a depressed (lower) basal metabolic rate.	False
The three components of energy expenditure are	basal metabolic rate, thermic effect of food, and physical activity.
How could you best evaluate what constitutes a healthful weight?	One in which multiple factors are considered.
True or false? Many nutrient requirements for older adults are the same as for young and middle-aged adults.	True
True or false? People 65 and older currently represent the fastest growing U.S. population subgroup.	False
True or false? People 65 and older currently represent the fastest growing U.S. population subgroup.	False
The DRI values for boys and girls aged about 9-13 are	separated by gender.
What is a primary nutrition-related concern for toddlers?	allergies and overweight
True or false? Nutrient needs increase as a child progresses from infancy to toddlerhood.	True
True or false? The macronutrient needs for infants are about the same as those for adults.	False
Breastfeeding is most associated with a reduced risk for what (for babies) during childhood and adulthood?	allergies
What is unique about colostrum?	It is rich in protein and micronutrients.
True or false? A woman's energy (Caloric) needs increase significantly throughout pregnancy.	False
True or false? Weight gain during pregnancy should be equally distributed throughout the trimesters.	False
The aerobic breakdown of fats supports exercise of	out of balance.
The kinds of activities that would most benefit from carbohydrate loading are	d) endurance activities such as marathon running or cross-country skiing.
True or false? My nutrient needs change if I become more physically active.	False
We gain or lose weight when energy intake and expenditure are	Out of balance
What is lactic acid?	a by-product of glycolysis
What is the FITT principle?	It's used as a guide to achieve appropriate exercise overload.
True or false? Zinc lozenges help fight the common cold.	Not known
Iron deficiency passes through how many stages?	three
Which of the following nutrients play a critical role in maintaining blood health?	vitamin K, folate, iron, zine, and copper
True or false? Excess vitamin B results in nerve damage and lesions of the skin.	False
The amino acid tryptophan can be converted into which vitamin?	niacin
The primary role of B-vitamins is to	Act as coenzymes
True or false? Since hormone replacement therapy has been called into question as the single best option for treating osteoporosis, the only way to treat the disease is to eat right and exercise more.	False
Besides calcium, what other vitamins or minerals are instrumental to bone health?	phosphorus, magnesium, fluoride, and vitamins K and D
The term bioavailability refers to	the degree to which our bodies absorb and utilize a given nutrient.
Which of the following is not a function of calcium?	It activates vitamin D.
True or false? Bone health is assessed by use of a blood test to measure blood calcium.	False
Which bone type comprises the larger percentage of bone in the skeleton?	cortical
Which factors most increase cancer risk?	heredity, smoking, nutrition, ultraviolet radiation, infectious agents, and physical inactivity
Why might foods high in antioxidants be more Voice beneficial than supplements in reducing our risk for some diseases?	Foods provide fiber, certain nutrients, and phytochemicals, which supplements cannot.
A significant side effect of vitamin C deficiency is	tissue hemorrhage.
Which of the following nutrients have antioxidant functions?	vitamins A, C, E, selenium, and beta-carotene
True or false? Free radicals are a natural by-product Voice of our body functions, as are antioxidants.	False
Oxidation sometimes results in the formation of	free radicals.
Reduced production of what limits absorption of food sources of folic acid and B12?	intrinsic factor
Body fat peaks during what age range?	55-65
What is the leading cause of blindness in the elderly?	macular degeneration
True or false? Given that the thirst mechanism for older individuals changes, the Al for fluids is increased by ½ for individuals over 65.	False
In older women, what causes a sudden and dramatic loss of bone?	onset of menopause
What change occurs in the mouth, apart from taste, that has a great impact on nutritional status?	decrease in saliva
Taste perception declines with age. Which are the two "tastes" that are affected the most?	salt and bitter
Although vitamin A requirements are the same for adults of all ages, what changes contribute to concern regarding vitamin A intake in the elderly?	Absorption of vitamin A is more efficient, so there is a greater likelihood of toxicity.
Deficiency of which mineral may contribute to loss of odor perception?	zinc
Decline of which of the following senses has a significant effect on food intake and nutritional status?	all of the above
What two micronutrients are of particular concern with toddlers?	iron and calcium
Toddlers need what percentage of total Calories coming from fat?	slow and degenerate.
What behavior is associated with "the munchies"?	drug and alcohol use
Which of the following has been found to contribute to the development of acne in adolescents?	a. chocolate b. fried food c. fatty food d. none of the above (answer)
What is the most practical way to ensure proper growth of an adolescent?	Ensure that weight remains in proportion to height.
When does skeletal growth cease?	when closure of the epiphyseal plates occur
What is physically unique about puberty?	development of secondary sexual characteristics and capacity for reproduction
Nutrition-related concerns for children aged 9-13 are	body image issues, calcium, cavities, and overweight.
Using the CDC classification system, children are considered to be overweight if their BMI is	at or above the 85th percentile.
School lunches may not be as nutritious as they appear because	children may not consume the entire meal or may trade items with friends.
Key increases in requirements for the 9-13 age group have to do with	protein and Calories.
Minerals of concern for children aged 9-13 are	calcium, iron, and zinc.
What constitutes a "serving" of food for children in their toddler years through preschool?	1 tablespoon of food for each year of age
What mineral requirement is of concern in a toddler who doesn't eat red meat?	zinc
Given a toddler's small stomach capacity, ideally, toddlers should eat how often?	every 2 to 3 hours
Toddlers need what percentage of total Calories coming from fat?	30-40%
Pellagra is the deficiency disease of	Niacin
True or false? Proper nutrition for both partners, prior to conception, is instrumental in a healthy pregnancy outcome.	True
The embryo is most vulnerable to teratogens during what time period?	first trimester
What other substance(s), besides alcohol and illegal drugs, can interfere with embryonic development?	megadoses of vitamin supplements and certain herbs b. cigarette smoke c. a and b )answer ) d.none of the above
True or false? The blood supply of the mother and fetus is joined during the first trimester.	False
What is the recommended amount of weight gain during pregnancy?	variable, depending on prepregnancy weight and single or multiple births
In addition to the amount of weight gained during pregnancy, what else is important?	pattern of weight gain
The energy requirements of the second and third trimesters account for an additional Calories per day	350-450
What are the guidelines for macronutrient intake during pregnancy?	protein; 1 carbohydrates; no change in fat
Fetal iron demands increase in the third trimester. Why?	fetus stores iron in the liver for later use
Cures for morning sickness include	none of the above there is no cure.
What is the craving and consumption of non-food material during pregnancy called?	pica
Who has a greater risk of developing gestational diabetes?	all of the above
Management of preeclampsia focuses mainly on what?	blood pressure control
Due to the correlation of high intakes of caffeine and an increased risk of miscarriage, daily caffeine intake should be limited to how many cups of coffee per day?	no more than 2 cups
Within how many days is colostrum, first milk. replaced by mature milk?	2-4 days
What is the additional daily Calorie recommendation for breastfeeding women aged 19 and older?	300-400
Which hormone is responsible for milk synthesis?	prolactin
Prolactin and oxytocin, vital hormones in milk production and release, are produced where?	pituitary gland
DHA in breast milk is highest in women who regularly consume	fish.
The primary use of energy in the first year of life is to	support growth.
In addition to weight and length, what measurement is used to determine appropriate growth in an infant?	head circumference
The recommended Calorie intake for an infant is	40-50 kcal/lb.
True or false? Infants fed exclusively breast milk do not need "supplemental" water.	True
What micronutrients might need to be supplemented in infants in the first 6 months?	vitamin D and iron
Which of the following foods should not be offered to an infant?	honey, cookies, raisins, and cow's or goat's milk
genetic modification,	the DNA of an organism is altered to bring about changes in its seeds or offspring
Recombinant DNA technology	is a type of genetic modification in which DNA from different sources is combined
Genetic medication health risks	Allergies Cancer
Persistent organic pollutants (POPs):	chemicals released into the atmosphere from industry, agriculture, automobiles, and waste disposal
Supplements,	are a product containing ingredients like vitamins, minerals, herms, amino acids, or enzymes
The flash-freezing of sushi-grade tuna effectively kills
Which of the following is another name for ephedra, an ingredient associated with dangerous elevations in heart rate, blood pressure, and death?	b. ma huang
Weight-loss surgery is advised in healthy individuals who have a BMI of greater than or equal to	40 kg/m?.
True or false? Phenylpropanolamine (PPA) has not been used in dietary supplements marketed for weight loss since it was banned by the FDA in the year 2000.	False
What are some risks associated with being underweight?	a and b
What is the first line of defense in obesity treatment?	a low-energy diet and regular physical activity
True or false? Caffeine is a stimulant and is addictive.	True
Which two medications are available to the public by prescription for weight loss?	orlistat and lorcaserin
Very-low-fat diets contain what percentage of total Calories coming from fat?	less than 10%
If you decide to design your own diet plan, follow these jade Richardson four strategies: set realistic goals, and incorporate behavior modification techniques.	eat smaller portions of lower-fat foods; participate in regular physical activity
What do low-carbohydrate diets, such as the Carbohydrate Addict's Diet, Atkins, and others, claim about carbohydrates?	They cause insulin surges that lead to excessive fat storage.
What is the name given to a regimen that promotes quick weight loss, usually has a rigid menu that must be followed daily, and often labels foods "good" or "bad"?	fad diet
True or false? The macronutrient composition of the diet influences the storage of body fat.	True
Which of the following is/are social factors that might affect one's weight?	band c
Where is ghrelin synthesized?	stomach
Leptin is a	A protein that functions as a hormone that reduces food intake.
Which of the following physiologic factors does NOT affect body weight?	blood triglyceride levels
Genetic influences account for what percentage of our BMI?	50-90%
The primary determinant of our basal metabolic rate is	amount of lean body mass
What percentage of our daily energy output is a result of our BMR?	. 60-75%
True or false? Energy expenditure is the energy our bodies expend to maintain basic functions	False
Fluctuations in body weight are a result of	changes in energy intake and expenditure.
Which of the following is considered to be the most accurate in measuring body composition?	hydrostatic weighing (underwater)
Which fat distribution pattern puts one at greater risk for complications such as diabetes and heart disease?	apple-shaped fat patterning
Mortality rate increases significantly with a BMI over	30.
Which of the following does not describe a healthful body weight?	a weight that requires an hour of exercise every day to maintain
Which of the following does not describe a healthful body weight?	a weight that requires an hour of exercise every day to maintain
1-C metabolism refers to reactions requiring what vitamin?	folate
Iron-requiring enzymes are called	cytochromes.
Meat, fish, and poultry contain a special —————that enhances the absorption of non-heme iron.	meat factor
The most common areas of iron storage are	liver, bone marrow, spleen, and intestinal mucosa.
The best indicator of iron stores is	ferritin.
The oxygen-carrying protein in our blood. of which iron is a part, is called	hemoglobin.
Which nutrient is a component of ceruloplasmin?	copper
Good dietary sources of vitamin K are	green, leafy vegetables.
Which of the following dietary factors can inhibit zinc absorption?	high intakes of non-heme iron
Which vitamin is critical in bone health but is also vital in blood coagulation?	vitamin K
The fluid portion of the blood is called	plasma.
Which major mineral is used by the liver to help detoxify alcohol and various drugs?	sulfur
Which trace mineral assists in building cartilage?	manganese
What mineral enhances the ability of insulin to transport glucose?	chromium
Which mineral is the heaviest metal required for human nutrition but is responsible for only one function in the body?	iodine
Intrinsic factor is key for absorption of which vitamin?	cobalamin
Nucleotide synthesis, amino acid metabolism, and red blood cell synthesis are functions of which vitamin?	folate
Which of the following is NOT a function of vitamin B6?	fatty acid metabolism
As in the case of riboflavin, enriched or fortified breads, ready-to-eat cereals, and energy bars frequently provide—————-of the Daily Value for niacin.	25-100%
Pellagra is the deficiency disease of	niacin.
Which amino acid can be converted to niacin by the body?	tryptophan
Riboflavin is an important component of coenzymes that are involved in	oxidation-reduction reactions.
What causes giardiasis?	parasite
Yeasts and molds account for what percentage of foodborne illness, annually?	They are insignificant in terms of foodborne illness.
One of the most common and deadly toxins is	Clostridium botulinum.
Mycotoxins are produced by	fungi.
In potatoes, solanine is produced at the same time as the production of	chlorophyll.
Toxins can be categorized depending on	the type of cell they bind to.
What groups of people are most likely to be affected by foodborne illness?	a and b
When shopping for food, purchase refrigerated and frozen food	at the end of your shopping.
One of the easiest and most effective ways to prevent foodborne illness is to	wash your hands thoroughly before and after preparing foods
Cross-contamination refers to what?	not separating cooked foods and their juices from uncooked foods and their juices
True or false? Foods are generally no longer safe to consume after the "use by" date.	False
What is the standard rule for refrigerating leftovers?	within 2 hours of serving
Ancient methods of preserving foods include all but which of the following?	sealing
The canning process includes sorting the food to be cahned, washing it, parboiling to stop enzymatic processes and kill microbes, and what other steps?	filling, blanching, siphoning air out, sealing, and heating
Antioxidants are compounds that protect us from damage caused by	the loss of an electron during metabolism.
One of the most significant sites of free radical damage is	the cell membrane.
Our bodies produce antioxidants, just as they do free radicals. True or false?	False
Tocotrienol and tocopherol are two compounds known more commonly as	vitamin E.
Vitamin E is abundant in———-tissue and therefore specifically protects polyunsaturated fatty acids and other fatty components of our cells from being oxidized.	adipose
Vitamin E is destroyed by exposure to	heat and metals.
Much of the vitamin E that we consume comes from	vegetable oils
Tissue hemorrhage is a major symptom of a deficiency in which vitamin or mineral?	vitamin C
Since it is water soluble, where does vitamin C primarily act as an antioxidant?	extracellular fluid
Which of the following is considered to be a provitamin?	beta-carotene
What are the three forms of retinoids?	retinal, retinoic acid, and retinol
Which vitamin contributes to cell differentiation?	vitamin A
Which disorder/disease is associated with selenium deficiency?	Keshan disease
Where, in our bodies, is selenium contained?	amino acids
Because selenium is a major mineral, we need more than 100 mg/day. True or false?	False
What other minerals assist in antioxidant function?	copper and iron zinc and manganese
Selenocysteine is which form of selenium?	active
Cancer is a group of diseases that are characterized by cells that do what?	grow out of control
The three primary stages of cancer development are	initiation, promotion, and progression.
It has been proven that diets rich in antioxidants, such as whole fruits and vegetables, decrease cancer risk. True or false?	False
Blood vessel inflammation and the formation of clots, both promoted by free radicals, increase your risk for what?	cardiovascular disease
Vitamin A deficiency can result in irreversible blindness due to	hardening of the cornea.
Toxicity symptoms of which vitamin develop after consuming only three to four times the.RDA?	vitamin A
Besides our own physiological processes, what other factors can cause free-radical formation?	exposure to polluted air, smoke, and UV rays from sunlight
Atoms with unpaired electrons in their outermost shell that remain unpaired are	b and c.
The common name for the hunching of the spine seen in osteoporosis is	dowager's hump.
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoporosis?	chronic use of anti-inflammatory drugs
The two most common sites that are affected by osteoporosis are the	hip and vertebra of spinal column.
The term osteoporosis refers to what type of bone?	more porous
Fluoride combines with what two vitamins/minerals to form fluorohydroxyapatite?	calcium and phosphorus
Magnesium is a critical———-enzyme systems.	cofactor
To what do researchers attribute the link between soft drink consumption and poor bone health?	Soft drinks often take the place of milk or calcium-fortified alternatives.
The primary function of vitamin K is to serve as	coenzyme.
Vitamin D is unique for two reasons: (1) our bodies can synthesize vitamin D, and (2) it's	a hormone.
Phosphorus, in the form of phosphoric acid, is a major component of which beverage?	soft drinks
Vegetables colored————significantly to vitamin K intake.	green
The primary source of dietary vitamin D in the United States is	fortified milk.
The most cost-effective form of calcium is	calcium carbonate.
Which of the following are NOT good sources of calcium?	spinach and most fish
How much of dietary calcium is absorbed by infants and children versus healthy young adults?	60%+; 30%
What is the RDA for calcium for adults age 19 to 50 years?	1,000 mg/day
Along with PTH, what vitamin is essential in helping to maintain blood calcium levels?	vitamin D
In our bodies, 99% of the calcium is stored in our bones. Where is the other 1% stored?	blood and soft tissue
How is bone health assessed?	DXA scan
What is the name given to the process by which bone is broken down?	resorption
Our bones develop through a series of three processes. In correct order, these are bone	growth, modeling, and remodeling.
Osteoclasts are	cells that erode the surface of bones.
Which of the two bone types has a faster turnover rate?	trabecular
True or false? Osteoporosis can be cured through a variety of treatments.	False
Consuming too much phosphorus can cause high blood phosphorus levels, which can lead to what?	muscle spasms and convulsions
The primary role of the B-vitamins is to	act as coenzymes.
Vitamins and minerals are not direct sources of energy, yet they are needed to————-the macronutrients.	generate energy from
Thiamin, as part of TPP, plays a critical role in the breakdown of————-for energy.	glucose
Limitations of using BMI to determine weight and health risk are	all of the above.
Which of the following is usually used to describe any symptom or illness that arises from ingesting contaminated water or food?	a and b
True or false? Not all food contamination makes all people sick.	True
Which of the following government agencies does NOT help in regulating food safety?	ADA
Most cases of foodborne illness are caused by	the norovirus.
Two types of foodborne illness are common:	food infections and food intoxications.
According to the CDC, the majority of food infections are caused by	bacteria.
What bacteria is the leading cause of bacterial foodborne illness?	Salmonella
What can destroy the larvae of a helminth found in the host's tissue?	thoroughly heating
The canning process includes sorting the food to be canned, washing it, parboiling to stop enzymatic processes and kill microbes, and what other steps?	filling and sealing filling, blanching, siphoning air out, sealing, and heating
Aseptic packaging refers to	being sterilized in flash-heating and cooling processes and then packaged in a sterile container.
Which of the following is NOT a preservative?	humectants
True or false? Mercury, in nature, is due solely to the by-products of pulp and paper processing and burning of garbage and fossil fuels.	False
The flash-freezing of sushi-grade tuna effectively kills	parasites.

Created by: Stacy29

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