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5 -7 Path Exam

QuestionAnswer
1. Bill asks Ashley, the medical assistant, “What makes a tumor benign?” What is Ashley’s best response? A benign tumor is surrounded by a capsule and grows slowly.
2. Bill says to the medical assistant, “I understand what a benign tumor is, but what makes a tumor malignant?” What is the medical assistant’s best response? A malignant tumor can grow rapidly and has abnormal cells.
3. Which of the following stages of cancer is considered most successful for treatment? Localized
4. What sequence best describes how cancer cells evolve through states of growth? Hyperplasia, dysplasia, carcinoma in situ, metastasis
5. What is the main goal of complementary treatment for cancer? To strengthen the immune system and enhance traditional therapies
6. How or when is radiation therapy for cancer given? Externally or internally, systemically, and even during surgery
7. Dr. Streep orders a specific blood test related to Adrian’s colon cancer to determine if it has spread. What is the common term for this test? The tumor marker CEA
8. Dr. Streep needs to know if Adrian’s colon cancer has spread. Which test should Dr. Streep order? CEA test
9. If Sheryl’s breast tumor is identified as Tis, N0, and M0, what does that mean? Carcinoma in place, no lymph node involvement, and no metastasis
10. For what reason(s) might palliative surgery be performed? To sustain cancer clients and alleviate pain
11. The term neoplasm often is used interchangeably with what other term? Tumor
12. Cancers are graded by determining their degree of what? Anaplasia
13. One of the side effects of radiation is erythema. What does this mean? Red skin
14. How are cancer deaths described today? Declining for both men and women since 1998
15. What is the term for a malignant tumor of bone? Osteosarcoma
16. Hormonal therapy cancer treatment might be used for what type of cancer? Prostate
17. What is the name for solid tumors of epithelial tissue of external and internal body surfaces found in the breast, colon, liver, lung, prostate, and stomach? Carcinomas
18. What is the single most common cause of skin cancer? UVA rays
19. A combination of alcohol abuse and smoking greatly increases the incidences of what type of cancers? Mouth and respiratory organ cancer
20. What is it called when a powerful light source is used to cut through tissue or vaporize cancers of the cervix, larynx, liver, rectum, or skin? Laser surgery
21. Carol has squamous cell carcinoma on her nose. What is the procedure called to remove the cancer by shaving layers of skin until the skin is free of cancer? Mohs surgery
1. Parents are discussing their child’s diagnosis of cerebral palsy with their pediatrician. When they ask what causes this defect, what will the pediatrician most likely explain about the etiology of cerebral palsy? It is caused by CNS damage occurring before, during, or after birth.
2. If an infant begins projectile vomiting in the 2nd to 4th week after birth, what might a PCP suspect is the cause? Pyloric stenosis
3. Which of the following is an acyanotic heart defect where there is no mixing of poorly oxygenated blood with blood reentering the systemic circulation? Coarctation of the aorta
4. To confirm the presence of testes, the test will look for which hormone? Serum gonadotropin
5. What are the serious, often fatal respiratory complications of cystic fibrosis? Emphysema
6. Mark is explaining to his brother why his son, who has cerebral palsy, walks on his toes and crosses one foot in front of the other. This is known as what type of cerebral palsy? Spastic cerebral palsy that is characterized by hyperactive reflexes
7. The gynecologist has given Karla the good news—she is pregnant with her first baby. A discussion of how to have a healthy baby free of any congenital heart defects likely includes which of the following? Take a daily multivitamin that contains folic acid
8. Tetralogy of Fallot has four congenital heart defects. What is the classic symptom of this defect either at birth or within the first several months? Bluish discoloration of the skin or cyanosis
9. Wilson has Tourette syndrome. Since childhood, his classic symptoms have been the uncontrollable tics and shoulder shrugging. He has a family, a good job, and is able to function well. What complementary therapy does he find most helpful? Playing quiet-mind computer games and working crossword puzzles
10. What are the symptoms of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder? Hyperactive behavior, speech delays, flat nose, microcephaly
11. How does Laurene describe the symptoms she experiences during a sickle cell crisis? Intense pain felt in arms, legs, or abdomen
12. When hydrocephalus is suspected, what diagnostic procedures are likely performed? Measuring head circumference, CT scan, MRI
Ross had a sensitive digestive tract as an infant but seemed to develop fairly normally. In early adolescence, he began to have serious constipation and abdominal distention. After numerous tries at diet changes and home remedies, he saw a physician. Hirschsprung disease
14. Which of the following best describes cleft lip and cleft palate? Cleft lip exhibits clefts in the upper lip; a hole in the roof of the mouth is cleft palate.
15. Important client communication for cleft lip and cleft palate will include what information? The ESSR feeding method for feeding
Laticia brings her infant home from the birthing center in less than 12 hours. The birth was uncomplicated, but soon Laticia knows something is wrong. Her infant is unable to suck without coughing, choking, and turning blue. What might be the problem? Patent ductus arteriosus
17. Keith and Audrey are stunned and frightened when their son is born with omphalocele. They feel much better after the pediatrician assures them of what information? Surgery will correct the problem and they can expect complete recovery.
18. The nurses notice a characteristic musty odor to the newborn’s perspiration and urine due to a metabolite in which of the following diseases? Phenylketonuria
19. When the intestine does not turn properly prior to birth, becomes twisted, and blocks the duodenum, what is the condition called? Malrotation and volvulus
20. What is the most likely etiology of hip dysplasia? Incorrect position of fetus in uterus; otherwise unknown
1. What is the resource most used for the diagnosis of mental health disorders and disease? Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition
2. In the counselor’s first contact with Weldon, which of the following areas are quickly observable elements of a mental status examination? Appearance and motor activity
3. Which of the following statements is true? Children’s minds are not closed to traumatic events.
4. Which of the following statements is most common for elderly persons who suffer from depressive disorder? A widespread problem that often goes undiagnosed and frequently untreated
5. John’s PCP diagnosed him with persistent depressive disorder. What description would the PCP provide to John? This disorder involves long-term, chronic symptoms that keep a person from functioning well.
6. Ann was surprised to find that she experiences depression differently than her friend Fred. What is the difference between men and women with depressive disorder? Women’s depression is more likely related to hormonal cycles.
7. Which of the following is a common complementary medicine that has been used to treat depression but is contraindicated in a number of medical conditions? St. John’s wort
8. Julia, a client diagnosed with schizophrenia, is often seen in the community talking to herself and responding to internal voices. What symptom is Julia experiencing? Hallucinations
9. Anxiety disorders affect around 40 million adults in America. What are some common symptoms of anxiety disorders? Chest pain, exaggerated fear, gastrointestinal upset
10. What should a PCP do if a client needed counseling or psychotherapy? Refer to a mental health specialist
11. Lynn asks her primary care provider for proven effective complementary therapies for her heroin addiction. What is probably included? Acupuncture
12. Which of the following statements best describes intellectual disability? It is a condition of subaverage intellectual function with deficits in adaptive behavior.
13. In treating intellectual disability, what is the focus? To develop adaptive, communication, social, and motor skills
14. Eddie was told his son’s issues might be caused by the following: environmental and genetic factors, prenatal and perinatal complications, socioeconomic factors, and neurological factors. What disorder is likely being described? ADHD
15. Sarah has anorexia nervosa and is cautioned about the symptoms. What are they? Marked weight loss, clinical evidence of semistarvation, and amenorrhea
16. How is anorexia nervosa similar to bulimia nervosa? Both occur more commonly in youth than adults.
17. What mental health disorder is defined as “a sexual pain disorder”? Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder
18. When Sydney was diagnosed with erectile dysfunction, he was told that the cause was psychological. What percentage of erectile disorders is related to psychological causes? 50% to 60%
When trying to distinguish a female sexual interest/arousal disorder from a genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder, what sign or symptom exists in female sexual interest/arousal disorder that does not exist in genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder? A lack of vaginal lubrication and vasocongestive response
20. What is one problem with Julia’s bipolar symptoms when she is manic and has an enormous amount of energy? Julia’s thinking and judgment are affected.
21. Albert was diagnosed with a personality disorder and told his prognosis was good, but he was not offered any treatment. What treatments might be recommended? Moral recognition therapy (MRT)
22. Amanda is diagnosed with social phobia that is not covered by insurance. She wants to speak to those who control public funds for mental health. Who should she speak to? State and local representatives
23. If a PCP or a mental health professional utilized a mental status examination, what would they be assessing? Mental health disorder
24. When Mike returned home from war in Afghanistan, he was diagnosed with the most prevalent mental disorder affecting military personnel. What is that disorder? PTSD
25. Leslie was asking her PCP about bipolar disorder, and the PCP referred to it using another term. What is another term for bipolar disorder? Manic-depressive disorder
26. Mary was diagnosed with schizophrenia, and she has delusions and hallucinations. What other disorder may also have these symptoms? Hallucinogen dependence
Created by: KIMMYCO
 

 



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