Save
Busy. Please wait.
Log in with Clever
or

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
Sign up using Clever
or

Username is available taken
show password


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
Your email address is only used to allow you to reset your password. See our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.


Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
focusNode
Didn't know it?
click below
 
Knew it?
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

ID Exam 3 F

Ramsinghani FQs/Sulfonamides/Trimethoprim/Miscellaneous Abx

QuestionAnswer
Bacteria uses Type II Topoisomerase to aid in DNA synthesis and replication. But there are 2 types. What are they? DNA gyrase (relieves supercoils); Topoisomerase IV (Decatenation)
As explained by Ramsinghani (Type II Topoisomerase) Cuts the DNA on 1 strand (when 2 strands are separating to replicate) the protein in front get more tightly wound up so the strand tension needs to be released (DNA gyrase); Topoisomerase IV will separate the 2 DNA daughter strands called Decatenation)
How do FQ’s (Fluoroquinolones) have selective toxicity? Mammalian topoisomerase II has LOWER binding affinity to FQ than bacterial Topoisomerase II
Give me a generalized view of FQ’s? They are bactericidal, have broad spectrum (G+ and G-); they are synthetic abx (they are not obtained from any microbial fermentation); They are concentration dependent abx (AIC-MIC)
What is the MOA of FQ’s? FQ’s inhibit DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, thereby inhibit DNA replication
The use of FQ’s in G - bacteria would primarily inhibit ___ _______ DNA gyrase
The use of FQ’s in G + bacteria would primarily inhibit _________ __ Topoisomerase IV
FQ use is indicated for? Common uro-genital, respiratory, and GI infections caused by E. Coli, K, pneumoniae, C. Jejuni, P. Aeruginosa, Enterobacter, Salmonella, and Shigella sp. -also used in tuberculosis as 2nd line
What are the likely mechanisms of bacterial resistance to FQ’s? Mutation in bacterial topoisomerase; insufficient accumulation of FQ in bacterial
Mechanism of Bacterial resistance can be: 1. Alteration of Target by Enterobacteriacae, S. Aureus—>(DNA gyrase: mutation in gyrA and gyrB genes; topoisomerase IV: mutation in part and parE genes 2. Insufficient accumulation of drug: Reduced permeability (enterobacterales, P. Aeruginosa); Enhanced efflux (E. Coli, P. Aeruginosa)
FQ structure and SAR in the class: 1. Carboxy-4 pyridone nucleus--> Pharmacophore 2. Substitution at C2 interferes w/ gyrase - DNA complexation 3. C6-F group increases abx activity (increased cell penetration due to lipophilicity **C-3 (containing CO2H) and C-4 (containing a ketone) will be where FQ bind DNA gyrase to the drug
SAR's to know in the FQ structures--> Ofloxacin and Levofloxacin are isomers. Ofloxacin (racemate)--> has an equal mix of R and S isomers); Levofloxacin--> S isomer
What are the brand names to our FQ's: Ciprofloxacin; Levofloxacin; Moxifloxacin; Delafloxacin Cipro; Levaquin; Avelox; Baxdela
Tell me about the FQ antibacterial spectrum: Ciprofloxacin and Ofloxacin? G -, atypical; covers P. Aeruginosa
Tell me about the FQ antibacterial spectrum: Levofloxacin? G +, G -, atypical; covers S. Pneumoniae, P. Aeuginosa
Tell me about the FQ antibacterial spectrum: Moxifloxacin? G +, G -, atypical; Does not cover P. Aeruginosa
Tell me about the FQ antibacterial spectrum: Delafloxacin? G +, G -, atypical, anaerobes *Most broad spectrum FQ; covers P. Aeruginosa, MRSA, S. Pneumoniae
Tell me about FQ's PK: A: good oral absorption, Excellent BA; IV;PO; comes in ophthalmic, otic formations; D: large Vd (well distributed into all tissues and body fluids, moderate PPB; M: partially to less active compounds (**CYP enzymes generally not involved) E: mostly renal t1/2 life varies 3-12h
Tell me about Moxifloxacin: Distribution--> tissue concentration exceeds plasma concentration making it a very potent FQ; Elimination--> via Hepatic
What will be the NET charge on Ciprofloxacin at Physiologic pH? NH+ (pKa 8.68) and COO- (pKa 5.76) --> Zero
The net zero charge on Ciprofloxacin can cause: poor excretion of FQ leading to crystalluria. To prevent--> ensure adequate hydration and dose adjust for GFR **Ramsinghani note--> many FQ's will exist in the Zwitter ionic form therefore less soluble
Other PC (physiochemical properties) seen in ciprofloxacin--> **can form chelation with di,trivalent metal ions seen at Oxole groups separate oral administration of FQ and metal ion containing meds or foods
ADR's to keep in mind with FQ's: -GI (N/V/D (most common)) -Photosensitivity/Phototoxicity (Fluro groups) -Cardiotoxicity: Prolonged QT interval
What are the BOXED WARNINGS for FQ's? Tendonitis, tendon rupture; peripheral neuropathy; CNS effects; Exacerbation of myasthenia gravis
FQ's should be avoided in pregnant, nursing mothers due to? risk of severe metabolic acidosis, hemolyhtic anemia in 1st trimester; and erosion of load bearing joints
Avoid FQ's in what pt populations? pts with myasthenia gravis
What Drug interactions can occur with FQ? QT interval prolonging drugs (CI due to additive effect); Sulfonylureas/insulin (can cause dysglycemia (hypo/hyper)); Antacids, di-, trivalent metal ions; Corticosteroids
Key points about FQ's include: MOA: DNA gyrase, Topo IV; selective toxicity (difference in binding affinity to target; bacterial resistance: mutation in genes (gyrA, gyrB, parC, par E); influx/efflux; Bacterial coverage--> BROAD; can cause crystalluria, chelation; ADR: Tendonitis; DI: QT-prolonging drugs
Tell me about the Selective toxicity of Sulfonamides: Humans are unable to synthesize folic acid--> must obtain from diet; Bacteria MUST synthesize its own folic acid (cannot absorb from human diet)
The following is true of folic acid as a nutrient--> Essential for humans, not for bacteria
What is the MOA of Sulfonamides? 1. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase--> competitive inhibition (*no formation of Tetrahydrofolic acid in bacteria) 2. Attachment to pteridine ring--> false metabolite
Sulfonamide has a pKa of 10.4. Which form will predominate at urine pH of 6? unionized form
Which form of sulfonamide is likely to cause crystalluria? unionized form
Sulfonamides mimic what structure? PABA
Sulfonamides in the presence of pH 6-8 and a pKa of 10.4--> will not have substitution at N1 since drug is unionized
Sulfonamides in the presence of pH at 6-8 and a pKa of 5 (Sulfisoxazole)--> has substitution at N1 w/ electron withdrawing group (heterocyclic ring) and stabilizes the ionic form **reduces risk of crystalluria
SAR of Sulfonamides--> The sulfonamides are SYNTHETIC ANTIBACTERIAL 1. unsubstituted -NH2 group PARA to sulfonamide moiety (1.e N4) 2. alteration of benzene ring--> unfavorable 3. N1 (next to sulfone) can be substituted w/ electron withdrawing group--> increases abx activity; reduces crystalluria
Clinically relevant Sulfonamides--> Sulfacetamide (Sulamyd) Therapeutic use--> management of local opthalmic infections i.e. conjunctivitis
Clinically relevant Sulfonamides--> Silver Sulfadiazine (Silvadene) Therapeutic use--> Burn therapy
Clinically relevant Sulfonamides--> Sulfamethoxazole (Gantanol) Therapeutic use--> **used in combination w/ Trimethoprim for tx of UTI
Tell me about Sulfonamides PK properties: A: good oral absorption except sulfasalazine (IV:PO ratio is 1:1) D: well distributed in tissues and body fluids (Sulfadiazine and sulfisoxazole in CSF); all cross placenta; PPB varies; M: N4-acetylation or glucoronudation in liver (inactive metabolites) E: urine (major) unchanged + metabolites); 1/2 life varies
Poor metabolizers of NAT will have ________ plasma concentration of sulfonamides increased
What drug interactions can occur with Sulfonamides? Warfarin, phenytoin, oral hypoglycemic agents, methotrexate (drug effects may be increased); inhibtion of CYP2C9 and/or displacement from PPB
What ADR's should i be aware of with Sulfonamides? Hypersensitivity: drug fever, rash, photosensitivity; Steven Johnson's syndrome (<1%)
Sulfamethoxazole can break down into Hydroxylamine and N-Nitroso metabolite. Can these cause a sulfa allergy? These can undergo rxns that can form toxic metabolites *if the amino groups are substituted--> no formation of toxic metabolites; *If they are unsubstituted such as with a NH2 in sulfamethoxazole or a 1-sided bond to a amino group--> can get the toxic formations.
A sulfa allergy can take the form of: Delayed rxn (Type IV) with s/sx of drug fever, rash, SJS, or TENS; Abx sulfonamides (about 5% of pts will experience toxic metabolites); there is an increased risk in pts that are slow acetylators; and there is a risk of cross-reactivity
Can a pt get a sulfa allergy from Furosemide? It has substitution of the amino group at C4--> not able to form toxic metabolites b/c the amino group is substituted (very low risk of causing sulfa allergies)
Other ADR's to consider in Sulfonamides are the ________ disturbances. What are these? Hematopoeitic; (Hemolytic or aplastic anemia, granulocytopenia, thrombocytopenia); may provoke hemolytic rxn inG6PD-DEFICIENT pts.
Another serious ADR of sulfonamides in newborns is? Kernicterus; CI in newborns (<2 months), late pregnancy, breastfeeding women
RBC rely on PPP to get its NADPH (cofactor). RBC use the enzyme _______________________ to get its NADPH. NADPH reduces the glutothione. why do we need it in the reduced phase? glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase; need it in the reduced form to "take care of our oxidative damage." RBC would be susceptible to oxidative damage leading to hemolytic anemia
Sulfa drugs can displace _______, which is a byproduct of RBC when they decay bilirubin
When RBC decay, they release bilirubin and that conjugates with the Plasma protein and is given out in the feces. In newborns--> hepatic function takes 6-8 weeks to develop. in these newborns, if sulfa drugs are given, it can displace the bilirubin from the plasma proteins and can enter the brain causing serious brain damage (cerebral palsy)
What is the antibacterial spectrum of Sulfonamides? G +, G -, Bacteriostatic; Poor activity against ANAEROBES
MOR of Sulfonamides? Resistance is common: 1. Alteration of enzyme dihydropteroate; 2. Overproduction of PABA
What is the MOA of Trimethoprim? inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) that is necessary to convert folic acid to tetrahydrofolate
What is the selective toxicity of Trimethoprim? inhibits bacterial DHFR at 100,000x lower conc. than mammalian enzyme
What are the PK properties of Trimethoprim? A: good oral absorption; D: widely distributed (middle ear, prostatic fluid, vaginal fluid, bile, CSF; M: partially metabolized in liver; E: urine (60-80% unchanged); 1/2 life: 8-14h
Tell me about the TMP-SMX combination: 1:5 ratio; used primarily for tx of UTI; Combination is synergistic; Minimizes bacterial resistance (UTI, otitis media, MRSA); ADR: Hyperkalemia, Rash
Sulfonamide attacks b/w Pteridine + PABA blocking the conversion to---> Dihydropteroate
Trimethoprim attacks b/w Dihydrofolic acid blocking the conversion to ---> Tetrahydrofolic acid
MOR of TMP-SMX can occur via: -Alteration of target (Dihydropteroate synthase (causes resistance to the sulfa component); Dihydrofolate reductase (causes resistance to Trimethoprim) -Overproduction of PABA
Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid/Macrodantin) is a _______ ____ Miscellaneous antibiotic
What is the MOA of Nitrofurantoin? likely multi-targeted (production of a reactive reduced nitrofurantoin intermediate--> making it very reactive causing interference in a lot of bacterial processes
Nitrofurantoin can cause interference in bacteria due to its reactive reduced intermediate. What can it interfere with? protein synthesis; metabolism; DNA synthesis and gene expression
Resistance to Nitrofurantoin is ____ rare
The main use of Nitrofurantoin is for the tx of: acute uncomplicated cystitis (lower UTI)
PK properties about Nitrofurantoin include: A: well absorbed, oral BA increased w/ food by 40%; D: limited; M: inactive metabolites E: urine (1/2 life 20-60 min)
What are the ADR's of Nitrofurantoin? Nausea; macrocrystalline product is better tolerated; food increases absorption, decreases nausea; can cause pulmonary toxicity (acute or chronic); Drug-induced liver injury (DILI); Hemolytic anemia (G6PD)
What Drug interactions should I be concerned with while taking Nitrofurantoin? avoid combination w/ Magnesium trisilicate: reduced absorption and excretion (AVOID)
What is the MOA of Fosfomycin (Monurol)? Can resistance occur? inhibits cell wall synthesis; Yes: decreased influx (mut GlpT and UhpT)
Fosfomycin (Monurol) drug properties? contains a phosphate; bactericidal, and has broad spectrum
PK properties of Fosfomycin (Monurol)? A: oral BA: 30% D: well distributed, no PPB M: unknown E: urine + fecal t1/2 life--> 2-4h
Fosfomycin (Monurol) is indicated for the use of? Resistance can be seen in what species? For acute uncomplicated cystitis (due to resistance, its mostly for limited infections; E. Coli and E. Faecalis
ADR of Fosfomycin (Monurol) is? Diarrhea
What is the MOA of metronidazole? disruption of DNA, RNA structure and function (inhibition of protein synthesis, cell death)
How is metronidazole metabolized? -Reduction activation (becomes Hydroxyethyl oxamic acid) and -Reductive inactivation (becomes 2-Aminometronidazole) -Metabolized in host
How is Metronidazole metabolized in the host? --> so instead of the CH3, you have a Hydroxylation to the Methyl hydroxy group and that is an active metabolite -by converting to 2-hydroxymethyl metronidazole metabolite (Active metabolite)
Resistance of Metronidazole is due to: decreased drug influx; decreased reductive activation of drug; increase in DNA repair
What is Metronidazole used for? Bacterial vaginosis (vaginal gel); amebiasis (bacterial infection) comes in: systemic (oral) and IV); activity against Bacteriodes species and C. Diff
PK propeties of Metronidazole consist of? A: well absorbed D: well-distributed M: Hepatic (2-hydroxymetronidazole (active)--> 30-60%, and others; E: urine (20% unchanged + metabolites)
ADR's of Metronidazole consist of? What are its contraindications? Nausea, Vaginitis, HA, metallic taste; CI: alcohol, disulfuram (this is not seen with the gel)
Metronidazole can cross the _______; hold breastfeeding w/oral and IV dosage forms placenta--> low risk (but risk of cleft lip in FIRST TRIMESTER
Key points to remember about our Sulfonamides/Trimethoprim and our miscellaneous antibiotics: -Sulfonamides: selective toxicity; MOA; Bacterial resistance; heterocyclic substiution on N1, Crystalluria, hemolytic anemia, sulfa allergy; displacement of other drugs from PPB; -TMP/SMX combo--> is synergistic (1:5) -Nitrofurantoin/fosfomycin: use is for acute uncomplicated cystitis -Metronidazole for bacterial vaginosis
Created by: Xander635
Popular Pharmacology sets

 

 



Voices

Use these flashcards to help memorize information. Look at the large card and try to recall what is on the other side. Then click the card to flip it. If you knew the answer, click the green Know box. Otherwise, click the red Don't know box.

When you've placed seven or more cards in the Don't know box, click "retry" to try those cards again.

If you've accidentally put the card in the wrong box, just click on the card to take it out of the box.

You can also use your keyboard to move the cards as follows:

If you are logged in to your account, this website will remember which cards you know and don't know so that they are in the same box the next time you log in.

When you need a break, try one of the other activities listed below the flashcards like Matching, Snowman, or Hungry Bug. Although it may feel like you're playing a game, your brain is still making more connections with the information to help you out.

To see how well you know the information, try the Quiz or Test activity.

Pass complete!
"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries:
restart all cards