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Yuseira Jimenez

Physiology Weeks 1-6

QuestionAnswer
The concept that information may flow ahead to another process to trigger a change in anticipation of an event that will flow is called Feed-forward
The impact of effector activity on sensors may be positive or negative. Therefore, homeostatic control mechanisms are categorized as Organs that are directly influenced by physiological variables or mechanisms
Which of the following is a basic component of every feedback control loop? Sensory mechanism, integrating center, effector, feedback
Extrinsic control usually involves which mode of regulation Nervous, Endocrine
Events that lead to an immune response to an infection or the formation of a blood clot are examples of Positive feedback
The normal reading or range is called the Set point
Because negative feedback control systems oppose changes that are opposite in direction to the initial disturbance, they are Slowed or maintained in the homeostatic range
Processed for maintaining or restoring homeostasis are known as Homeostatic control mechanisms
The body naturally changes some set points to different values at different times of the day. These daily cycles are called Circadian cycles
What term describes a signal traveling toward a particular center or point of reference Afferent
Which level of control operated at the cell level, often using genes and enzymes to regulate cell function Intracellular regulation
The relatively constant state maintained by the body is known as Homeostasis
Many complex processes of the body are coordinated at many levels. These include Intracellular, intrinsic, extrinsic
To accomplish self-regulation, a highly complex and integrated communication control system or network is required. This type of network is called a Feedback control loop
Local control or ____, intrinsic mechanisms often make use of chemical signals Autoregulation
Effectors can be described as Organs that directly influence controlled physiological variables
The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of ____ feedback Positive
If the secretion of oxytocin during childbirth operated as a negative-feedback control loop, what effect would it have on uterine contractions? Oxytocin would inhibit uterine conractions
Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein envelope are called: Viruses
Epidemiology is the study of the ____ of diseases in human populations Occurrence, distribution, transmission
Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? Reproductive
Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease? Environment, stress, lifestyle
Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease? Prion
Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? Effector mechanism, Transmitter, Sensor, Integrating center Transmitter
The normal reading or range of normal is called the: Set point
Pathogenesis can be defined as: The course of disease development
Shivering to try to raise your body temp back to normal would be an example of: The body trying to maintain homeostasis, a negative-feedback mechanism
Intrinsic control: Is sometimes called autoregulation
Positive-feedback control systems: Accelerate a change
The body’s thermostat is located in the: Hypothalamus
Of the pathogenic organisms, which of the following are the most complex? Tapeworms
Negative-feedback control systems: Oppose a change
Homeostasis can be best described as: A state of relative constancy
When two amino acids are joined, a peptide bone is formed and an H+ ion is released. True or False False
The most important monosaccharide is Glucose
ATP Is the form of energy that cells generally use
The lipid that is often referred to as a tissue hormone is Protaglandin
The base pairing of DNA molecules is, ____ is bound it ____. Adenine; thymine
Proteins are polymers of Amino acids
A saturated fatty acid is one in which All available bonds of it hydrocabon chain are filled
DNA and RNA are important because They contain information molecules
Which of the following is polymer of glucose that is sometimes referred to as a animal starch? Disaccharide, Polysaccharide, Monosaccharide, Glycogen Glycogen
A triglyceride is composed of a glycerol molecule and three of the same type of fatty acid. True or False False
RNA and DNA have the same pyrimidine bases but different purine bases. True or False False
The carbon-containing molecules formed by living things are often called Organic molecules
What determines how a protein performs? Shape
Chaperone proteins assist in the proper folding of other proteins so they can have the correct functional shape. True or False True
Which of these is not a lipid. Fat, Steroid, Cholesterol, Polysaccharide Polysaccharide
A very large molecule composed of subunits of sugar, a nitrogen base, and phosphate bond is a Nucleic acid
What term is often used to describe certain arrangements of atoms attached to the carbon core of many organic molecule? Functional group
Which term means “water loving” and applies to the phospholipid head? Hydrophilic
Any large molecule made up of many identical small molecules is called a(n) Polymer
Unsaturated fats: Will kink or bend because of the double bonds between the caron atoms
The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are: Steroids
Which lipid is part of vitamin D Steroids
Amino acids frequently become joined by: Peptide bonds
Humans can synthesize 13 of 21 basic amino acids; the remaining 8, which must be included in the diet, are called: Essential amino acids
Peptide bonds join together molecules of: Amino acids
The element that is present in all proteins but not in carbohydrates Nitrogen
Which level or protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids? Primary
They type of lipoprotein associated with “bad” cholesterol and the production of atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels is: LDL
DNA: Is a double-helix strand of nucleotides
What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids Degree of saturation
The term glycoprotein, a combination of two words, tells you that the compound is made of ___, with___ being the dominant component Carbohydrate and protein; protein
Prostaglandins and steroids share which of the following characteristics Both have a ring structure in their molecule
The basic building blocks of fats are: Fatty acids and glycerol
All of the following substances are organic except: Lipids, Electrolytes, Carbohydrates, Proteins Electrolytes
Which lipid acts as a “tissue hormone”? Prostaglandin
Which of the following is not one of the major groups of organic substances in the human body? Salts
A molecule or other agent that alters enzyme function by changing its shape is called Allosteric effector
Meiosis is called “reduction division” because The number of chromosomes is reduced by half
RNA makes proteins by Translation
Which of the following is an active transport process? Endocytosis
Transcription can best be described as the Synthesis of mRNA
Replication of DNA occurs in which phase of interphase S phase
Diffusion moves Down a concentration gradient
In the DNA molecule, a sequence of three base pairs forms a Codon
In the electron transport system, the final electron acceptor is Oxygen
The two processes of protein synthesis are Transcription and translation
The total number of 46 chromosomes per cell is referred to as ____ number Diploid
Meiotic division occurs in Primitive sex cells
Osmosis can be defined as the net movement of water molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration
Proteins that act as catalysts are called Enzymes
The component that distinguishes one nucleotide from another is the Nitrogen base
Mitosis is subdivided into four phases, including all of the following except Karyophase
Which of the following phases is not correctly matched with its description Anaphase - mitosis is complete
A chemical that reduces the amount of activation energy needed to start a chemical reaction is a Catalyst
If red blood cells containing 10% solute are places in a solution containing 10% solute, what will happen? Water will move into and out of the cells at a equal rate
Diffusion can be defined as The net movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration
The cell process in which microorganisms or other large particles are engulfed is called Phagocytosis
Water pressure that develops in a solution as a result of osmosis into that solution is called ____ pressure Osmotic
In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes move to the opposite ends of the cells along the spindle fibers? Anaphase
Facilitated diffusion is not an active transport process because it Does not depend on cell energy
Red blood cells are placed in an unknown solution. After 45 minutes, the cells are examined and determined to have decreased in size. The unknown solution is Hypertonic
Which of the following is not a characteristic of meiosis Two haploid gametes
The result of meiosis is Four daughter cells that are haploid
Normal mitosis results in Cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell
Glycolysis occurs in what part of the cell Cytoplasm
If oxygen is available, the pyruvate molecules formed by glycolysis are prepared to enter the next phase of aerobic cellular respiration, called the Citric acid cycle
Which is true about the sodium and potassium pump? Three sodium ions are taken out of the cell
An individual's entire set of DNA can be referred to as a: Genome
When the chromosomes align themselves across the equator of the spindle fibers, it is characteristics of which phase of mitosis? Metaphase
The site of transcription is within the nucleus, whereas the site of translation is in the cytoplasm. True or False True
Extensive weight training causes the muscle cells to: Hypertrophy
The physical process by which water and solute move through a membrane when a hydrostatic pressure gradient exists across the membrane is the process of: Filtration
Diffusion of particles through the membrane by means of a carrier molecule is called: Facilitated diffusion
During which stage of mitosis do the centrioles move to the opposite poles of the cell? Prophase
Term that is synonymous with tumor Neoplasm
Which is not true about the sodium and potassium pump? Sodium moves into cell and potassium moves out of the cell
Which of the following is not true of diffusion? Uses cellular energy
Materials can be moved from a low concentration to a high concentration through: Active transport
A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than a red blood cell would be Hypertonic
The small water channels in the cell membrane are called Aquaporins
The correct order of the phases of mitosis is Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase PMAT
Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans is referred to as Haploid
Transcription can be best describes as the Synthesis of mRNA
If a sequence of nitrogen bases in nucleic acid were A-U-C-G-A, which of the following would be true about the nucleic acid? It contains ribose sugar
A membrane carrier structure attracts a solute to a binding site, changes shape, and releases the solute on the other side of the cell membrane. This describes the process of: Carrier-mediated transport
Which cells of the skin act as a type of antigen-presenting cells in the skin? Dendritic cells
Which cells of the skin are filled with a tough, fibrous protein and account for most of the epidermal cells of the skin? Keratinocytes
Which skin layer contains closely packed, clear cells that contain a gel-like substance called eleidin? Stratum Lucidum
Apocrine sweat glands are not found in the: Soles of the feet, or hands
The nail body forms at the nail root, which has a matrix of proliferating cells from the ____ that enables the nail to grow continuously Stratum basale
Fingernail growth is the result of the mitosis of the cells in the stratum: Germinativum
Which skin layer is called the barrier area? Stratum corneum
In which skin layer does the process of keratinization begin? Stratum granulosum
The hair papilla consists of ____ tissue Dermal
Which of the following epithelial functions is a primary activity of glandular epithelium? Secretion
Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the Bones
Does smooth muscle have intercalated disks? No
Which of the following is not a proteoglycan found in the matrix of connective tissue Collagen
Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? Connective
Which type of connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temp by producing heat? Brown fat
Which vitamins are absorbed through the skin? A,D,K
Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the stratum Basale
Connective tissue forms from the stem cell tissue called Mesenchyme
A tissue is A group of similar cells that perform a common function
What structure is formed by the union of the basal and reticular lamina Basement membrane
The hypodermis Connects the dermis to underlying tissues
Which cells form the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood? Astrocytes
Which cells help destroy pathogens and damaged tissue in the brain? Microglia
Basement membrane is composed of molecules made by ___ tissue Connective and Epithelial
Are epithelial tissues important in communication and control? True or False. False
The papillary layer of the dermis Produces the ridges that makes fingerprints
Which is not a function of connective tissue? Transport, Support, Defense, Communication Communication
The external portion of the bone is known as Cortical bone
Bones grow due to activity in the Epiphyseal plates
Why is cartilage slow to heal Because it is semi-solid and flexible and has no or limited blood supply
Where would you find fibrous cartilage Pubic symphysis and interverbal discs
The axial structure: Provides framework for muscles that anchor and stabilize the appendicular bones
Adipocytes, found in the yellow bone marrow, stores and releases ___ and ___ for energy Fat and triglycerides
Which of the following provide flexibility and smooth surfaces for movement Cartilage
The fontanelles of an infant's skull consists of Fibrous membrane
The ulna articulates proximally with the Humerus
Calcification of the organic bone matrix occurs when Complex calcium salts are deposited in the matrix
Small cells that synthesize and secrete a specialized organic matrix are Osteoblasts
The cells responsible for active erosion on the bone minerals are called Osteoclasts
Bones act as a reservoir for which minerals Calcium and phosphorus
Blood calcium levels involve secretion of which two hormones Parathyroid and Calcitonin
Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes begin to divide and secrete Additional matrix
A condition that is caused by an abnormally increased roundness in the thoracic curvature is Kyphosis
The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are ER and Golgi apparatus
The energy required for muscular contraction is obtained by hydrolysis of ATP
Muscle tone is maintained by Negative feedback mechanisms
The muscle's ability to stretch or extend and to return to its resting length is called Extensibility
Synovial joints are Freely movable
An example of a uniaxial joint is the Elbow
Synarthortic joints are Immovable
The contractile unit of a muscle cell is the Sarcomere
If a structural classification is used, joints are named according to the type of ___ tissue that joins the bones together Connective
The joint present during the growth years between the epiphyses of a long bone and its diaphysis is the Synchrondrosis
Which structure allows the electrical signals to travel along the sarcolemma and move deeper into the cell Transverse tubule
The more muscle fibers contracting at the same time, the stronger the contraction of the entire muscle. The number of muscle fibers contracting depends on how many motor units are Recruited
A contraction in which muscle length remains the same but muscle tension increases is called an Isometric contraction
Which type of movement occurs between the carpal and tarsal bones and between the articular facets of adjoining spinal vertebrae Gliding
Anaerobic respiration results in the formation of an incompletely catabolized molecule called Lactate
Three phases of the twitch contraction are the Latent period, Contraction phase, and relaxation phase
The four kinds of protein that make up myofilaments are myosin, actin, ____, and ____ Tropomyosin, troponin
Joints joined by fibrocartilage are called Symphyses
Which of the following is not among the structures that characterize synovial joints? Tendons
Some synovial joints contain a closed pillow-like structure called a Bursa
According to the sliding filament therory Actin moves past myosin
The minimal level of stimulation required to cause a fiber to contract is called the Threshold stimulus
Which joint allows for a unique movement called opposition Saddle
Cross-bridges are also called Myosin heads
After it is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, the calcium combines with which protein? Troponin
The lactate produced by anaerobic respiration is converted back to glucose in the Liver
Which structure functions to temporarily store calcium ions Sarcoplasmic reticulum
The chief function of the T-tubules is to Allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell
The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is that The SR begins actively pumping calcium back into its sacs
Thick myofilaments extend the length of the A-band
During which phase of the twitch contraction is there a triggering of the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm Latent period
The ability of muscles cells to respond to nerve stimuli is called Irritability
A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length change is called a ____ contraction Isotonic
The type of movement possible at a synovial joint depends on the Shape of the articulating surfaces of the bones
Created by: yuseira
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