Save
Upgrade to remove ads
Busy. Please wait.
Log in with Clever
or

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
Sign up using Clever
or

Username is available taken
show password


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
Your email address is only used to allow you to reset your password. See our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.


Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
focusNode
Didn't know it?
click below
 
Knew it?
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

A&p study guide #1

QuestionAnswer
3. Histology could be defined as a study of cella
4. What is the highest level of structural organization you would expect a blood vessel to be? organ
5. An increased rate of breathing as a result of an increased buildup of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream would be an example of what life function metabolism
6. Normal body temperature is ________ degrees centigrade. 37
7. If you consider your home air conditioner in terms of homeostasis then the wall thermostat would be the: control center
8. The purpose of negative feedback is: to prevent sudden and severe changes within the body
9. ________ is the specific name for hip/ groin/ thigh/ leg/ forearm/arm/front of elbow/calf/ shoulder blade/ breastbone/ cheek/ chin/ eye/ chest/ armpit/ neck/ etc. regional
10. An oblique cut is one that: diagonally
11. The heart lies in the ________ cavity. pericardial
12. ________ cavities are spaces between bones Synovial
13. A structure that is composed of two or more tissues would be: Organ
14. Your appendix would lie in which quadrant? right lower
15. Your stomach would lie in which quadrant? upper left
16. List and explain the functional characteristics of life? maintaining bounderies, movement, responsiveness, digestion, metabolism, excretion,reproduction,gfrowth
17. The single most abundant chemical substance of the body, accounting for 60 to 80% of body weight, is: water
18. The posterior side of the patella would be called Popliteal
19. Compare and contrast negative and positive feedback mechanisms? In negative feedback systems, the output shuts off the original stimulus. In positive feedback systems, the output enhances or exaggerates the original stimulus. Both bring about equilibrium
20. Describe the anatomical position Body erect, feet slightly apart, palms facing forward, thumbs point away from body
21. A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be: Child birth or the regulation of blood clotting
22. A parasagittal plane is: Sagittal planes offset from the midline
23. A frontal plane is: (or Coronal) divides the body into anterior and posterior parts
24. Which organs or structures would be found in the left iliac region? Initial part of sigmoid colon
25. The parietal pleura would represent a serous membrane which _______________ lines the walls of the thoracic cavity.
26. Distinguish between functional systems and organ systems.
27. List and describe the subdivisions (topics) contained within the study of anatomy. • Regional- all structures in one part of the body (such as the abdomen or leg)• Systemic- gross anatomy of the body studied by system• Surface- study of internal structures as they relate to the overlying skin
28. Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains _________________ equilibrium
29. The lungs are located in which cavities: • Pleural cavities
30. Describe the structure and function of serous membranes. • The walls of the ventral body cavity and the outer surfaces of the organs it contains are by a thin double-layered membrane, called the serosa or serous membrane
31. List the components of the hierarchy of structural organizatim from simplest to most complex: • Chemical• Cellular• Tissue• Organ• Organ System• Organismal
32. List the functional characteristics of humans or other complex life forms? • Maintaining boundaries• Movement• Responsiveness• Digestion• Metabolism• Excretion• Reproduction• Growth
33. List the components of the dorsal cavity? •Cranial cavity- within the skull encases the brain•Vertebral cavity- within vertebral column and encases the spinal cord
34. The spleen is located in which abdominopelvic quadrant? left upper
35. Describe the process of homeostatic imbalance?
36. The term pollex refers to the: thub
37. The dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the spinal cord and brain.
38. One of the functional characteristics of life is irritability. This refers to: •Responsiveness- ability to sense changes in the environment and respond to them.
39. Survival needs of the body include: • Nutrients- chemical substances used for energy and cell building• Oxygen- needed for metabolic reactions• Water- provides the necessary environment for chemical reactions• Maintaining normal body temperature- necessary for chemical reactions to oc
40. The pancreas and liver work together to maintain homeostasis through: controling blood sugar levels
41. The anatomical position is used: •To provide an standard reference point.
42.A horizontal section through the body is called: • Transverse section (Cross section)
43. A vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right, is called: • Sagittal
44. A vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior, is called: • Frontal or Coronal
45. Which body cavity contains the pleural and pericardial cavities? • Thoracic cavity
46. ________ consist of similar cells that have a common function. tissues
47. The ________ system secretes hormones that regulate growth processes and nutrient usage by body cells. Endocrine system
48. ________ is a term that describes the back of the elbow. Orecranal
49. ________ is a term that describes the heel region Calcaneal
50. The elbow is ________ to the wrist superior
51. The ________ cavity contains tiny bones that transmit sound vibrations to the organ of hearing in the inner ear. Middle ear
52. ________ is explained by chemical and physical principles and is concerned with the function of specific organs or organic systems. Physiology
53. ________ is a dynamic equilibrium of your internal environment. Homeostasis
54. The ________ cavity contains the bladder, some reproductive organs, and the rectum. Pelvic
55. ________ peritoneum is the serous membrane that covers the intestines. Visceral
56. ________ physiology concerns urine production and kidney function. Renal
57. ________ is a broad term that covers all chemical reactions that occur within the body cells. Physiology
58. What is the function of the serous membranes? •To protect organs from bones
59. Fully describe the anatomical position for the human body. • Body erect, feet slightly apart, palms facing forward, thumbs point away from body
60. Gross anatomy refers to: • The study of large body structures visible to the naked eye
61. Can lungs carry out excretory functions? Explain. • The lungs release the waste product, carbon dioxide, by exhalation
62. The higher we go in the mountains the greater the atmospheric pressure which causes a loss of oxygen. Comment on this statement. • Lungs depend on appropriate atmospheric pressure. At high altitudes, where atmospheric pressure is lower and the air is thin, gas exchange may be inadequate to support cellular metabolism
63. Why is anatomical terminology necessary? • To prevent misunderstanding, anatomists use universally accepted terms to identify body structures precisely and with a minimum of words.
64. Be able to identify the components of a G protein-linked receptor system as shown in Fig 3.16
65. Be able to identify the components of the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure as shown in fig 3.3
66. Describe the generation of a membrane potential? • A negative membrane potential is established when the movement of K+ out of the cell equals K+ movement into the cell.• 1. K+ diffuse down their steep concentration gradient (out of the cell) via leakage channels. Loss of K+ results in a negative char
67. Transcytosis is: • moving substances into, across, and then out of a cell
68. Calcium ions are stored (in the cell): lysosomes
69. The RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the "factory" site for protein formation is the: Transfer RNA (tRNA)
70. A red blood cell placed in pure water would: • In a hypertonic solution the cells take in water by osmosis and become bloated and burst
71. The plasma membrane (cell membrane) is: • Membrane, composed of phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins, that encloses cell contents; outer limiting cell membrane
72. Describe the functions of the plasma membrane? • Separates intracellular fluids from extracellular fluids• Plays a dynamic role in cellular activity• Glycocalyx is a glycoprotein area abutting the cell that provides highly specific biological markers by which cells recognize one another
73. Fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells are cillia
74. Describe the process of diffusion? What factors affect the rate of diffusion? • Molecules are constantly moving colliding and ricocheting off one another, changing direction with each hit.• Diffusion is the tendency of molecules to spread evenly• Molecule size and temperature
75. List and describe the different cell junctions • Tight Junction- impermeable junction that encircles a cell• Desmosome- anchoring junction scattered along the sides of cells• Gap Junction- a nexus that allows chemical substances to pass between cells
76. If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is impermeable, what could happen? • It will shrivel up and shrink as its water exits the cell to try an equalize the solute outside
77. What are subcellular structures? existing inside a cell, or relating to the component parts of cells
78. Once solid material is phagocytized and taken into a vacuole describe what happens? • The phagosome fuses with the lysosome and its contents are digest
79. Describe the function of microtubules • Determine the overall shape of the cell and distribution of organelles• Braces and strengthens the cell surface• Attach to CAMs and function in endocytosis and exocytosis
80. List the functions of a plasma membrane protein. • Transport • Enzymatic Activity• Receptors for signal transduction• Intercellular adhesion• Cell-cell recognition• Attachment to cytoskeleton and extracellular matrix
81. Describe the functions of RNA? • Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries genetic information from DNA in the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm.• Transfer RNA (tRNA) bound to amino acids base pair with the codons of mRNA at the ribosomes to begin the process of protein synthesis• Ribos
82. Describe the constituents of a plasma membrane? • Differ in the kind and amount of lipids they contain• Glycolipids are found only in the outer membrane surface• 20 % of all membrane lipid is cholesterol
83. Mitosis is: nuclear division
84. The electron microscope has revealed that one of the components within the cell consists of microtubules arranged to form a hollow tube. This structure is a: Tubulin
85. Compare and contrast inclusions and organelles • Organelles are the metabolic machinery of the cell. Each type of organelle has a specific job for the cell. (synthesize proteins)• Inclusions are chemical substances that may or may not be resent, depending on the cell. (store nutrients) • Organelle
86. Cholesterol is used in the cell membrane to: • It helps to stiffen the membrane, making it less soft.• It also helps the membrane to remain relatively fluid (as in "fluid mosaic model").• It also provides (ib lipid rafts) a suitable molecular environment for certain membrane proteins.• It make
87. If the nucleotide or base sequence of the DNA strand used as a template for messenger RNA synthesis is ACGTT, then the sequence of bases in the corresponding mRNA would be: UGCAA
88. Describe the structure and function of Phospholipids: • Chief component of cell membranes • Helps with lipids move in plasma• A phospholipid molecule consists of a hydrophilic polar head group and a hydrophobic tail.
89. Passive membrane transport processes include: • Simple Diffusion- movement of O2 through membrane• Facilitated Diffusion- movement of glucose into cells• Osmosis- Movement of H2O in & out of cells• Filtration- formation of kidney filtrate
90. Describe the glycocalyx. • Layer of glycoprotein on cell membrane that determines blood type and also helps with adhesion of cells.
91. Describe the structure and function of Mitochondria: • Double membrane structure with shelflike cristae • Provide most of the cell’s ATP via aerobic cellular respiration• Contain their own DNA and RNA
92. Ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, and the Golgi apparatus functionally act in sequence to synthesize and modify proteins for what purposes?
92. Ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, and the Golgi apparatus functionally act in sequence to synthesize and modify proteins for what purposes? • Membranous sacs in cytoplasm containing powerful oxidase enzymes that use molecular oxygen to detox harmful substances
• Membranous sacs in cytoplasm containing powerful oxidase enzymes that use molecular oxygen to detox harmful substances • K+ in the cell
95. List the concepts of the cell theory? • Cell is basic unit of life• Activity of organism depends on its cells• Biochemical activities denote relative number of subcellular structures• Continuance of life through cells
96. Cells are composed mainly of which elements • Carbon• Hydrogen• Oxygen • Nitrogen
97. Describe the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane structure?
98. Describe the intracellular chemical signals known as "second messengers"? • G-proteins
99. The main component of the cytosol is: • Water
100. What are Lysosomes? • Membranous sac that contains digestive enzymes in order to break down food
101. The endomembrane system is: • System of organelles that work together to produce store and export biomolecules. And degrade harmful substances
102. The functions of centrioles include: • Organize mitotic spindle• Base for ciia and flagella
103. A gene can best be defined as: • Segment of DNA which contains instructions for creating one polypeptide chain
104. Extracellular matrix is: • Non-living material in connective tissue, consisting of ground substance and fibers that separate cells
105. Crenation is an example of: • Hypertonic solution
106. List the ways hormones may enter cells • Simple diffusion• Facilitated diffusion• Osmosis• Filtration
107. If a tRNA had an AGC anticodon, it could attach to a(n) ________ mRNA codon. UCG
108. The RNA that has an anticodon and attaches to a specific amino acid is ________ RNA. Ribosomail
109. Water may move through membrane pores constructed by transmembrane proteins called ________. aquaporins (AQP)
110. ________ is the division of the cytoplasm. Cytokinesis
111. The metabolic or growth phase of a cell life cycle is called ________. Interphase
112. In order for the DNA molecule to get "short and fat" to become a chromosome, it must first wrap around small molecules called ________.
113. ________ are hollow tubes made of spherical protein subunits called tubulins. Microtubules
114. Aerobic cellular respiration occurs in the ________. mitochondria
115. Two very important second messengers used in the G protein-linked receptor mechanism are cyclic AMP and ________. Ionic Calcium
116. The most common extracellular ion is ________.
117. The process of discharging particles from inside a cell to the outside is called ________. exocytosis
118. A red blood cell would swell if its surrounding solution were ________. Hypotonic
119. A ________ is a channel between cells. Gap Junction
120. Describe two important functions of the Golgi apparatus. • Modifying package protein• Ship package protein out of the cell
121. Why can we say that a cell without a nucleus will ultimately die? • Nucleus contains DNA and the cell would not be able to reproduce itself without it
122. What forces maintain a steady state "resting" membrane potential?
123. Briefly describe the glycocalyx and its functions. • Fuzzy, sticky carbohydrate ridge area of cell surface• Allows cells to recognize each other and attracts certain nutrients
124. Explain the term genetic code. What does it code for? What are the letters of the code? • Rules by which base sequences are transmitted into amino acids• Codes for amino acids• A,T,C, and G
125. Why are free radicals so dangerous to cells, and how are they dealt with by the body? • They are highly reactive chemical that can scramble biological molecules• Oxidases convert them to hydroxide (which is also dangerous)• Then hydroxide is converted to water by catalayse enzymes
126. In all living cells hydrostatic and osmotic pressures exist. Define these pressures and explain how they are used in the concept of tonicity of the cell. • Osmotic pressure is the pressure that must be applied to a solution to prevent the inward flow of water across a semipermeable membrane.• Hydrostatic pressure is pressure of a fluid system• Tonicity is a measure of the ability of a solution to cause
127. What is the common route of entry for flu viruses into a cell?
128. Which organelles have their own DNA? • Mitochodria• Rough ER• Nucleus
129. How are the products of free ribosomes different from membrane-bound ribosomes? • Free ribosomes synthesize soluble proteins• Membrane-bound ribosomes synthesize proteins to be incorporated into membranes
130. How are peroxisomes different from lysosomes? • Peroxisomes are membranous sacs in cytoplasm containing powerful oxidase enzymes that use molecular oxygen to detox harmful substances• Lysosomes are membranous sacs that contains digestive enzymes in order to break down food
131. Briefly name the subphases of interphase and tell what they do. • G1 (gap 1)- metabolic activity and vigorous growth• S (Synthetic)- DNA replication• G2 (gap 2)- preparation for division
132. List and describe the phases of mitosis. • Prophase- asters are seen as chromatin condenses into chromosomes. Nucleoli disappear. Centriole pairs separate and the mitotic spindle is formed.• Metaphase- chromosomes cluster in the middle of the cell with their centromeres aligned at the exact ce
133. Be able to identify tissue types based upon drawings like the figures in Chapter 4
134. What is not found in the matrix of cartilage but is in bone? • Blood Vessels
135. The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength to absorb shock is because they possess: fibrocartilage, which contains thick collagen fibers
136. The presence of lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels would indicate: Bone (Osseous Tissue)
137. Hyaline cartilage is different from elastic or fibrocartilage because: • Fibers are not visible with normal stains
138. What is a basement membrane. • Extracellular material consisting of a basal lamina secreted by epithelial cells and a reticular lamina secreted by underlying connective tissue cells.
139. Which organelles would be of most importance to goblet cells and other glandular epithelium? • Golgi bodies
140. Sweat glands exhibit a glandular type called: Exocrine Glands
141. Simple columnar epithelium of the digestive tract is characterized by: • Dense microvilli on the apical surface of absorptive cells• Goblet cells that secrete a protective lubricating mucus • It lines the digestive tract from the stomach through the rectum
142. Describe pseudostratified cuboidal epithelium: • Single layer of cells with different heights;• Nuclei are seen at different layers• Function in secretion and propulsion of mucus• Present in the urinary bladder, ureters, and part of the urethra
143. A single-celled layer of epithelium that forms the lining of serous membranes is: Simple Squamous Epithelium
144. Describe the structure and function of connective tissue? • Function: Binding and support, protection, insulation, and transportation.• Structure: Ground substance- unstructured material that fils the space between cells; Fibers- collagen,elastic, or reticular; Cells- fibroblasts, chondroblast, osteoblasts, a
145. Matrix is composed of
146. List the cell types likely to be seen in areolar connective tissue • Fibroblasts• Mast cells• Macrophages
147. The tissue type that arises from all three embryonic germ layers is: Epithelial Tissue
148. The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is: Collagen Fiber
149. Organized groups of cells (plus their intercellular substances) that have a common purpose form a(n):
150. The shape of the external ear is maintained by: elastic cartilage
151. Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which tissue?
152. Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as: Endocrine Glands
153. Describe the structure and function of epithelia? Be able to distinguish the different types of empithelial tissues.
154. Describe the structure and function of Chondroblasts: • In cartilage • Produces new matrix until skeleton stops growing
155. ________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane. Pseudostratified columnar
156. A multilayered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as: Stratified Squamous
157. Describe an epithelial membrane: • Simple: absorb, filtrate secrete (single layer)• Stratified: protect (multi-layered)
158. Multicellular exocrine glands can be classified:
159. Describe the mode of secretion of exocrine glands? • Merocrine glands: secrete by exocytosis• Holocrine glands: swell and rupture
160. List the different types of connective tissue? • Loose and dense
161. What are glycosaminoglycans? • Large negatively charged polysaccharides that stick of off core protein like a toothbrush
162. The first step in tissue repair involves: inflammation
163. Describe the structure and function of multicellular exocrine glands. • They have a duct and secretory unit• Secretes
164. The three main components of connective tissue are: • Ground substance• Fibers• Cells
165. Compare and contrast the connective tissue fibers • Colligen are very strong• Elastic stretch and recoil• Recticular are short and fine (tiny collagen)
166. Describe the cells of connective tissue. • Fibroblast: in connective tissue proper• Chondroblast: in cartilage• Osteoblast: in bone• Hematopoyetic stem cell: in blood
167. Describe the process of tissue repair. • Inflammation• Restoration of blood supply• Regeneration
168. Describe the structure and function of adipose tissue. • Round fat cells with nucleus pushed to the side• Store fat and act as a food reserve
169. ________ are commonly found wedged between simple columnar epithelial cells. Goblet Cells
170. A large round cell with a peripheral nucleus describes a(n): Adipocyte
171. What would be a substance you would expect to find expelled from a compound alveolar gland? • Breast milk
172. Mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in ________ connective tissue. all
173. ________ tissue forms the framework for the lamina propria of mucous membranes. Areolar
174. Osteocytes exist in a tiny void called a ________. lacunae
175. Cardiac muscle tissue is single nucleated, has intercalated discs, and is ________. striated
176. ________ muscle cells are multinucleated. Skeletal
177. ________ live in the lacuna of cartilage. Chondrocytes
178. The uppermost layer of skin is composed of ________. Stratified Squamous
179. Kidney tubules are composed of ________ epithelium. Simple Cubodial
180. Multiple rows of epithelia in which the cells are about the same size from the basement membrane to the lumen would be ________ epithelia. Simple Columnar
181. All epithelial tissue rests upon a ________. cavity or body surface
182. The salivary glands are a good example of a ________ exocrine gland. Merocrine
183. Macrophage-like cells are found in many different tissues, and may have specific names that reflect their location or specializations. What is the one functional characteristic common to all macrophage-like cells? • Eat a substance
184. List the events of tissue repair in proper order according to sequence of occurrence. The initial event should be the injury. • Injury• Inflammation• Organization and return of blood flow • Regeneration
185. Since mature adipocytes do not divide, how can adults gain weight? • Adipocytes keep absorbing more fat and swelling to larger sizes
186. Tendon tears or breaks are difficult to repair both physiologically and surgically. Why? • Because tendons don’t naturally regenerate
187. How is epithelial tissue the opposite of connective tissue?
188. What is a simple method of telling the difference between stratified squamous epithelium and transitional epithelium? • The difference is that transitional will change appearance, some will be cubes and some columns, but they have the ability to constantly change
189. How is blood unique among connective tissues? • Doesn’t connect anything or provide mechanical support
190. Be able to identify components of a hair follicle as shown in fig 5.5
191. Be able to identify components of skin structure as shown in fig 5.1
192. A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order? • (stratum) Corneleum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
193. Describe the major regions of a hair shaft • Root is in skin• Medulla- the middle of the shaft and has large cells and air spaces• Cortex- area past medulla composed of dead cells
194. Acne is a disorder associated with: Sabacaous Glands
195. Describe the dermis:
196. Which muscles attached to the hair follicles cause goose bumps? • Arrector pili
197. If a splinter penetrated the skin into the third epidermal layer of the sole of the foot, which cells would be damaged? • Stratum granulosum
198. Which cutaneous receptors are specialized for the reception of touch or light pressure? • Hair follicle receptor
199. What are Melanocytes: • Spider-shaped cell that produces melanin
200. Explain why hair appears the way it does and what causes variation in the appearance of hair (ie why is my hair grey and why is it sometimes wavy if I don’t blowdry?) • Based on the hair shaft
201. Sudoriferous glands vary in distribution over the surface of the body. Describe the distribution and function of sudoriferous glands? • All over skin except nipples and certain parts of genitals• Pupose is to sweat
202. Although the integument is a covering, it is by no means simple, describe its functions • Protection• Tempartature regulation• Cutaneous sensation• Metabolic activity• Blood storage • Excretion
203. The function of the root hair plexus is to: • Wrap around bulb, and be touch sensor
204. The ________ gland is a modified sudoriferous gland that secretes wax. Ceruminus
205. Nutrients reach the surface of the skin (epidermis) through the process of: sweating
206. The reason the hypodermis acts as a shock absorber is that: its composed of adipose cells
207. The epidermis is responsible for protecting the body against invasion of bacteria and other foreign agents primarily because it is composed of: Langerhan’s Cells
208. Keratinocytes are the most important of the epidermal cells because: : they produce keratin, a protein used in protecting skin.
209. Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage because the role of the keratinocytes is to: produce Keratin
210. The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which layer is responsible for cell division and replacement? • Basale
211. The integumentary system is protected by our immune system through the action of cells that arise from bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis. Which cells serve this immune function? • Langerhan’s Cells
212. Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. What protects us against excessive water loss through the skin? • Glycolipids and Stratocornem
213. The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which cell types are likely to be found in the dermis? • Fibroblast• Microphages• Mast cells• White blood cells
214. The dermis has two major layers; which layer constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin? • Reticular layers
215. Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis has been stretched and/or torn? • The appearance of silvery-white scars
216. The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The superior surface has structures called: Dermal Papille
217. How do the body's natural defenses protect the skin from the effects of UV damage? • Melonin provides chemical barrier
218. Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Describe the changes which would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addison's disease? • Bronze-metalic look
219. A Langerhans' cell is a: • Phagocyte from marrow that ingest foreign substances
220. The most important factors influencing hair growth are: • Nutrition and hormones
222. Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. They are _______? Hard Keratin (modified epidermis)
223. The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is: 99% water and most of the remaining NaCl
224. Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem not to be useful in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body? • Axillary and Anogenital
225. The sebaceous glands are simple alveolar glands that secrete a substance known as sebum. The secretion of sebum is stimulated by • Adrogens (hormone)
226. In addition to protection (physical and chemical barrier), the skin serves other functions. Describe these functions • Body temp regulation• Blood storage• Metabolic functions that synthesize vitamin D• Cutaneous sensation (touch)• Excretion of waste
227. Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How would a physician estimate the volume of fluid lost in a severely burned patient? • Rule of nines
228. What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn? • Dehydration
229. Male pattern baldness has a genetic switch that turns on in response to: delayed action in gene
230. Eyebrow hairs are always shorter than hairs on your head because: hair follicles only active 3 or 4 months a year
231. Cradle cap in infants is called ________. Seborrhea
232. The white crescent portion of the nail is called the ________. Lunula
233. The layer of the epidermis immediately under the stratum lucidum is the stratum ________. granulosum
234. The ________ is a small muscle located in the dermis that causes goose bumps. Arrector Pili
235. A summertime golden bronze tan may not be a tan at all; especially if the skin appears almost metallic bronze, it may be the result of ________ disease. Addison
236. The coarse hair of the eyebrows and scalp is called ________ hair. terminal
237. ________ burns injure the epidermis and the upper regions of the dermis. Second-degree
238. ________ are pigment-producing cells in the epidermis. Melanocytes
239. The only place you will find stratum ________ is in the skin that covers the palms, fingertips, and soles of the feet. lucidum
240. The dermis is composed of the reticular and ________ layers. pappilary
241. There are several reasons other than genetics for hair loss. Identify some of these other factors. • Chemicals or protein lacking diets
242. In addition to the synthesis of vitamin D, keratinocytes are able to carry out some other biologically important functions. Name at least two of these other functions. • Make up skin and produce keratin
243. How are burns classified? Give an example. • First, second, or third degree and its based on level of skin penitration
244. What are vellus hairs? • Body hairs of females and children that are pale and fine
245. Balding men have tried all kinds of remedies, including hair transplants, to restore their lost locks. Explain the cause of male pattern baldness. • Genetically determined where genes turn switch on, turning hair follicles into DHT
246. Billions of consumer dollars are spent for deodorants and antiperspirants each year. Explain the production of body odors frequently associated with axillary skin. • Odorless until it combines with decaying or decomposed organic molecules
247. What complications might be anticipated from the loss of large areas of skin surfaces? • Loss of bodily fluids and proteins causing dehydration
248. What are six of the functions of the epidermis? • Protection• Temperature regulation• Cutaneous sensations• Metabolic functions• Blood storage• Excretion
249. Name the layers of the epidermis in order from the surface down. • Cornium• (Ludicum) • Granulosum• Spinosum• Basale
250. What are the functions of the papillary layer of the skin? • They hold blood vessels• Have capillary roots• House nerve endings and touch receptors
251. Why would the papillary layer of the dermis be composed of areolar tissue while the reticular layer is composed of dense irregular connective tissue? • A network of fibers and small blood vessels• Makes up 80% of dermis
252. If eccrine sweat glands produce dermicidin, why produce a fluid with a pH of 4-6? `
253. Name the four kinds of sudoriferous glands. • Approcrine• Eccrine• Curminous • Mammary
254. Why is skin not considered a heat barrier for the body? • Because skin adjust to external temperature and doesn’t block it out
255. Why is profuse sweating on a hot day good, and yet a potential problem? Helps to keep the body cool but sweating too much can cause dehydration
Created by: jlw
 

 



Voices

Use these flashcards to help memorize information. Look at the large card and try to recall what is on the other side. Then click the card to flip it. If you knew the answer, click the green Know box. Otherwise, click the red Don't know box.

When you've placed seven or more cards in the Don't know box, click "retry" to try those cards again.

If you've accidentally put the card in the wrong box, just click on the card to take it out of the box.

You can also use your keyboard to move the cards as follows:

If you are logged in to your account, this website will remember which cards you know and don't know so that they are in the same box the next time you log in.

When you need a break, try one of the other activities listed below the flashcards like Matching, Snowman, or Hungry Bug. Although it may feel like you're playing a game, your brain is still making more connections with the information to help you out.

To see how well you know the information, try the Quiz or Test activity.

Pass complete!
"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries:
restart all cards