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Urinalysis
Synovial Fluid, Serous Fluid, Amniotic Fluid, and Fecal Analysis
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The functions of synovial fluid include: | Lubrication for the joints, Cushioning joints during jogging, and providing nutrients for cartilage. |
| The primary function of synoviocytes is to: | Secrete hyaluronic acid |
| Which of the following is a frequently performed test on synovial fluid? | WBC count, Crystal examination, and Gram stain |
| The procedure for collection of synovial fluid is called: | Arthrocentesis |
| Normal synovial fluid resembles: | Egg white |
| Powdered anticoagulants should not be used in tubes for synovial fluid testing because it interferes with: | crystal examination |
| Addition of a cloudy, yyellow synovial fluid to acetic acid produces a/an: | easily dispersed clot |
| To determine if a fluid is synovial fluid, it should be mixed with: | acetic acid |
| The highest WBC count can be expected to be seen with: | septic arthritis |
| When diluting a synovial fluid WBC count, all of the following are acceptable: | isotonic saline, hypotonic saline, and saline with saponin |
| The lowest percentage of neutrophils would be seen in: | noninflammatory arthritis |
| All of the following are abnormal when seen in synovial fluid: | RA cells, Reiter cells, and lipid droplets |
| Synovial fluid crystals that occur as a result of purine matabolism or chemotherapy for leukemia are: | monosodium urate |
| Synovial fluid crystals associated with inflammation in dialysis patients are: | calcium oxalate |
| Crystals associated with pseudogout are: | calcium pyrophosphate |
| Synovial fluid for cystal examination should be examined as a/an: | wet preparation |
| Crystals that have the ability to polarize light are: | corticosteroid, monosodium urate, calcium oxalate |
| In an examination of synovial fluid under compensated polarized light, rhombic-shaped crystals are observed. What color would these crystals be when aligned parallel to teh slow vibration? | blue |
| If crystals shaped like needles are aligned perpendicular to the slow vibration of compensated polarized light, what color are they? | blue |
| Negative birefringence occurs under compensated polarized light when: | slow light is less impeded than fast light and fast light runs against the molecular grain of the crystal |
| Synovial fluid cultures are often plated on chocolate agar to detect the presence of: | neisseria gonorrhoeae |
| The most frequently performed chemical test on synovial fluid is: | glucose |
| Serologic tests on patients' serum may be performed to detect antibodies causing arthritis for all of the following disorders: | Rheumatoid arthritis, Lupus erythematosus, and Lyme arthritis |
| Serologic testing of synovial fluid for fibrinogen and C-reactive protein is performed to: | Determine the amount of inflammation |
| The primary purpose of serous fluid is: | Lubrication of serous membranes |
| The membrane that lines the wall of a cavity is the | parietal |
| During normal production of serous fluid, the slight excess of fluid is | absorbed by the lymphatic system |
| Production of serous fluid is controlled by: | capillary oncotic pressure, capillary hydrostatic pressure, and capillary permeability |
| An increase in the amount of serous fluid is called an | effusion |
| Pleural fluid is collected by | thoracentesis |
| Fluid to serum protein and lactic dehydrogenase ratios are performed on serous fluids | to classify transudates and exudates |
| Which of the following requires the most additional testing? | exudate |
| An additional test performed on pleural fluid to classify the fluid as a transudate or exudate is the | fluid to cholesterol ratio |
| A milky appearing pleural fluid is indicative of | thoracic duct leakage and chronic inflammation |
| Which of the following best represents a hemothorax | Blood HCT: 30 and Fluid HCT: 20 |
| All of the following are normal cells seen in pleural fluid: | mesothelial cells, neutrophils, and lymphocytes |
| A differential observation of pleural fluid associated with tuberculosis is: | Decreased lymphocytes |
| All of the following are characteristics of malignant cell: | cytoplasmic molding, mucin containing vacuoles, and increased N:C ratio |
| A pleural fluid pH of 6.0 is indicative of: | esophageal rupture |
| A mesothelioma cell seen in pleural fluid indicates: | primary malignancy |
| Another name for a peritoneal effusion is: | Ascites |
| The test performed on peritoneal lavage fluid is | RBC count |
| The recommended test for determining if peritoneal fluid is a transudate or an exudate is the: | serum ascites albumin gradent |
| Given the following results, clasify this peritoneal fluid: serum albumin, 2.2 g/dL, serum protein, 6.0 g/dL, fluid albumin, 1.6 g/dL. | exudate |
| Differentiation between bacterial peritonitis and cirrhosis is done by performing an | absolute neutrophil count |
| Detection of the CA 125 tumor marker in peritoneal fluid is indicative of | ovarian cancer |
| Chemical tests primarily performed on peritoneal fluid include all of the following | glucose, alkaline phosphatase, and amylase |
| Cultures of peritoneal fluid are incubated | aerobically and anaerobically |
| Which of the following are functions of amniotic fluid | allow movement of the fetus, protect fetus from extreme temperature changes, and protective cushion fo rthe fetus |
| What is the primary cause of the normal increase in amniotic fluid as a pregnancy progresses | fetal urine |
| Which of the following are reasons for decreased amounts of amniotic fluid | increased fetal swallowing, membrane leakage, and urinary tract defects |
| Why might a cretinine level be requested on an amniotic fluid | defferentiate amniotic fluid from maternal urine |
| Amniotic fluid specimens are placed in amber colored tubes prior to sending them to the laboratory to prevent the destruction of | bilirubin |
| How are specimens for FLM testing delivered to and stored in the laboratory | delivered on ice and refrigerated or frozen |
| why are amniotic specimens for cytogenetic analysis incubated at 37C prior to analysis | to prolong fetal cell viability and integrity |
| filtration of amniotic fluid is required to avoid decreased values in the test results for | phospholipids |
| a significant rise in the OD of amniotic fluid at 450nm indicates the presence of which analyte | bilirubin |
| plotting the amniotic fluid OD on a Liley graph represents the severity of hemolytic disease of the newborn. A value that is plotted in zone II indicates what condition of the fetus? | moderately affected fetus that requires close monitoring. |
| The presence of a fetal neural tube disorder may be detected by | increased maternal serum alpha fetoprotein |
| True or False: An AFP MoM value greater than two times the median value is considered an indication of a neural tube disorder. | True |
| When severe HDN is pressent, which of the following tests on the amniotic fluid would the the physician order to determine whether the fetal lungs are mature enough to withstand a premature delivery | foam stability index, Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio, and Phophatidyl glycerol detection |
| The foam or shake test is a screening test for which amniotic fluid substance | Lecithin |
| True or False: Prior to 35 weeks' gestation, the normal L/S ratio is less than 1.6. | True |
| When performing an L/S ratio by thin layer chromatography, a mature fetal lung will show: | Lecithin twice as concentrated as sphingomyelin |
| True or False: Phosphatidyl glycerol is present with an L/S ration of 1.1. | True |
| A rapid test for FLM that does not require performance of thin layer chromatography is: | aminostat-FLM |
| Does the failure to produce bubbles in the foam stability index indicate increased or decreased lecithin | decreased |
| Microviscosity of amniotic fluid is measured by | fluorescence polarization |
| The presence of phosphatidyl glycerol in amniotic fluid fetal lung maturity tests must be confirmed when | the mother has maternal diabetes |
| True or False: an :/S ratio of 2.0 correlates with a surfactant/albumin ratio of 39 mg/g | false |
| a lamellar body count of 50,000 correlates with | OD at 650 nm of 0.150 and an L/S ration of 2.0 |
| which test for FLM is least affected by contamination with hemoglobin and meconium | amniostat-FLM |
| In what part of the digestive tract do pancreatic enzymes and bile salts contribute to digestion? | Small intestine |
| Where does the reabsorption of water take place in the primary digestive process? | large intestine |
| Which of the following tests are performed to detect osmotic diarrhea? | clinitest, fecal fats, and muscle fibers |
| The normal composition of feces includes all of the following: | bacteria, electrolytes, and water |
| What is the fecal test that requires a 3-day specimen? | Quantitative fecal fat testing |
| The normal brown color of the feces is produced by | urobilin |
| Diarrhea can result from all of the following: | addition of pathogenic organisms to the normal intestinal flora, disruption of the normal intestinal bacterial flora, and increased concentration of fecal electrolytes |
| Stools from persons with steatorrhea will contain excess amounts of | fat |
| Which of the following pairings of stool appearance and cause match | Black, tarry: blood; pale, frothy: steatorrhea; yellow gray: bile duct obstruction |
| Stool specimens that appear ribbon like are indicative of which condition? | intestinal constriction |
| A black tarry stool is indicative of | upper GI bleeding |
| Chemical screening tests performed on feces include all of the following | APT test, clinitest, and Trypsin digestion |
| Secretory diarrhea is caused by | Vibrio cholerae |
| The fecal osmotic gap is elevated in which disorder | osmotic diarrhea |
| Microscopic examination of stools provides preliminary information of as to the cause of diarrhea because: | neutrophils are present in conditions that affect the intestinal wall |
| True or False: The presence of fecal neutrophils would be expected with diarrhea caused by a rotavirus | false |
| large orange red droplets seen on direct microscopic examination of stools mixed with sudan III represent: | neutral fats |
| Microscopic examination of stools mixed with sudan III and glacial acetic acid and then heated will show small orange red droplets that represent | fatty acids, soaps, and neutral fats |
| when performing a microscopic stool examination for muscle fibers, the structures that should be counted | have two dimensional striations |
| a value of 85% fat retention would indicate | steatorrhea |
| which of the following tests would be indicative of steatorrhea | fecal elastase I, Sudan III, and Van de Kamer |
| Gum guaiac is preferred over ortho-tolidine for occult blood in mass screenin tests because | there is less interference from dietary hemoglobin |
| The term occult blood describes blood that | is not visibly apparent in the stool specimen |
| What is the recommended number of samples that should be tested to confirm a negative occult blood result | two samples taken from different parts of three stools |
| Which test is more sensitive to upper GI bleeding | Hemoquant |
| Annual testing for fecal occult blood has a high predictive value for the detection of | colorectal cancer |
| tests for the detection of occult blood rely on the | pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin |
| what is the significance of an APT test that remains pink after addition of sodium hydroxide? | fetal hemoglobin is present |
| In the Van de Kamer method for quantitative fecal fat determinations, fecal lipids are: | converted to fatty acids prior to titrating with sodium hydroxide |
| a patient whose stool exhibits increased fats, undigested muscle fibers, and the inability to digest gelatin may have | cystic fibrosis |
| a stool specimen collected from an infant with diarrhea has a pH of 5.0. This result correlates with a: | positive clinitest |
| Which of the following tests differentiates a malabsorption cause from a maldigestion cause in steatorrhea | D-xylose test |
Created by:
Meldon