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vet1305~
2nd half for final
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| what is the recommended time for urine to be evaluated | 30 mins or 3-4 hours |
| what can you do to differentiate between bile pigments and just oddly colored urine | shake urine and see if yellow foam forms |
| if you have a urine sample that smells sweet or slightly fruity what does this mean and indicate | glucosuria; ketoneurina; |
| what is the value for isothenuria | 1.008-1.012 |
| what is the most common instrument used to measure specific gravity called | refractometer |
| if you have a urine sample with a pH greater than 7 it is considered what | basic/alkaline |
| glucose is commonly detected in urine of healthy patients (true/false) | false |
| to detect bacteria what two diagnostics must be performed | bacterial culture; microscopic evaluation |
| when evaluating a urine sediment 10x is used to evaluate what | crystals and casts |
| when evaluating a urine sediment 40x is used to evaluate what | RBC's, WBC's, epithelial cells, sperm, and bacteria |
| what is the most common type of cast present in urine | granular |
| urinary stones are typically composed of what two crystals | calcium oxalate; struvite |
| the physical appearance of a concentrated urine sample will appear | dark yellow |
| the physical appearance of a dilute urine sample will appear | pale or colorless |
| the physical appearance of a urine sample with bilirubin will appear | amber |
| the physical appearance of a urine sample with blood will appear | red-clear |
| the physical appearance of a urine sample with myoglobin will appear | coffee colored |
| how many transparency choices are available when evaluating a urine sample | 4 |
| what are the four transparency choices | clear, hazy, cloudy, turbid |
| this transparency choice when evaluating the physical appearance of urine usually does not have much sediment | clear |
| this transparency choice when evaluating the physical appearance of urine will have some sediment present | hazy |
| this transparency choice when evaluating the physical appearance of urine will have significant sediment (if urine is held up to a lined paper the lines are visible) | cloudy |
| this transparency choice when evaluating the physical appearance of urine will have significant sediment (if urine is held up to a lined paper the lines are not visible) | turbid |
| this is the measure of density of a liquid compared with distilled water | specific gravity |
| what is the value for hyposthenuria | < 1.008 |
| what is the value for hypersthenuria | >1.012 |
| how do you approximate a specific gravity if the reading is off the scale | dilute the urine 1:2 with distilled water and adjust the results accordingly by multiplying the last two digits of the reading by two (ex diluted sample 1.030; adjusted sample is 1.060) |
| an increased __ occurs with dehydration, decreased water intake, acute renal disease, and shock | SG |
| this test assess body's acid-base balance; expresses the hydrogen ion concentration or the acidity of urine | urine pH |
| an abnormal level of proteins or protein metabolites in the urine | proteinuria |
| small amount of protein pass through the ___; but should be reabsorbed by the __ ___ | glomerulus; renal tubules |
| detectable levels of this in the urine depend on the glucose levels in the blood | glucosuria |
| false positives of glucosuria can be created by these drugs | sailcylates, ascorbic acid, penicillin |
| normal animals have a very small amount and are found in the blood; these are produced during metabolism and are important sources of energy; however excessive amounts are toxic to the body | ketones |
| excessive ketones in the body are toxic and can cause | central nervous system depression; acidosis |
| these are bilirubin and urobilinogen, rough determination can be to shake urine and see if yellow foam forms | bile pigments |
| these will be seen in urine with biliary obstruction, hepatic infections, toxicity, hemolytic anemia | bile pigments |
| this is associated with disease of the urogenital tract, can be detected by color, reagent strips, tablets, and microscopic evaluation | hematuria |
| sediment stain may give a false positive for this in urine | bacteria |
| false positives for this are common in urine of cats; false negatives for this in urine are common in dogs | leukocytes |
| microscopic evaluation of fresh urine is best evaluation method for this urine component | leukocytes |
| this urine component is formed in the GI tract by anaerobic bacteria breaking down conjugated bilirubin, small amounts can be seen in urine, but mostly seen in feces | urobilinogen |
| elevation of this urine component is usually due to liver or GI tract dysfunction or intravascular hemolysis | uribilinogen |
| evaluation of urine sediment should be done how | first on 10x then 40x; lower the condenser on the microscope |
| any amount more than 5-8 per field of this is considered abnormal when evaluating a urine sediment | WBC |
| excessive numbers of WBC's in the urine are referred to as | pyuria or leukocyturia |
| increased numbers of WBC's in the urine indicate | active inflammatory disease |
| these cells have a similar appearance to fat droplets; however fat droplets will float in and out of planes of focus while these do not | RBC's |
| this urine description is associated with trauma, calculi, infection, and benign or malignant neoplasia | hematuria |
| more than 5 of these cells per field is abnormal when reading a urine sediment | RBC's |
| what are the three types of epithelial cells usually found in urine sediment | squamous, transitional, renal |
| these are the largest cells found in urine sediment, typically not in catheter/cysto samples, presence is not significant, more common in cats | squamous epithelial cells |
| these vary in size/shape, increased number in urine sediment is associated with inflammation or cystitis | transitional epithelial cells |
| these are slightly larger than WBCs, round with large nucleus, increased number in urine sediment can indicate renal tubular disease | renal epithelial cells |
| these urine sediment finding dissolve in alkaline urine, and are indicative or renal tubular disease, inflammation, and degeneration | casts |
| it is normal to see a few of these type of casts in a urine sediment, they are clear, colorless, cylindrical, and indicate the mildest form of renal irritation | hyaline |
| these are epithelial casts, RBC casts, WBC casts, seen in acute nephritis and renal tubule degeneration | cellular |
| these are the most common type of casts found in urine sediment, seen in larger numbers with acute nephritis and kidney disease | granular casts |
| these type of casts will be seen in cats with renal disease and dogs with diabetes mellitus | fatty casts |
| these type of casts have a "brittle" appearance, indicate chronic to severe tubular degeneration, with conditions of extremely low passage rates | waxy casts |
| finding these in a urine sediment can be normal or abnormal, and influenced by pH, temperature, concentration, diet, and medication | crystals |
| this type of crystal is also known as triple phosphate, "coffin lid" colorless, can be associated with urase producing bacteria, uroliths | struvites |
| this type of crystal are seen in alkaline urine or acidic urine, they have a "thorn apple" appearance, commonly seen with liver disease or potal caval shunts | amorphous phosphates/urates |
| these type of crystals are found in horses, are shaped like dumbells, oval or wheel-like | calcium carbonate |
| these type of crystals come in two forms, dihydrate and monohydrate, they appear as a colorless envelope with an "x" form in the center | calcium oxalate |
| these type of crystals can indicate a metabolic defect | leucine/cystine/tyrosine |
| these are urinary stones that are typically composed of calcium oxalate and struvite crystals, most times they are sent out for laboratory analysis for better accuracy | uroliths |
| what is the normal life span of platelets | 10 days |
| these are the largest cell in the bone marrow, they release platelets in 5 days | megakaryocyte |
| this is blood factor I | fibrinogen |
| this is blood factor II | prothrombin |
| this is blood factor III | tissue thromboplastin |
| this is blood factor IV | calcium |
| this is blood factor VI | proconvertin |
| this is blood factor VII | hemophilla A, or classic hemophilla |
| this is blood factor IX | chirstmas factor or hemophilla B |
| this is blood factor X | stewart prower |
| this is blood factor XI | PTA- plasma thromboplastin antecedent |
| this disease is seen in swine and dogs(mostly g-sheps, golder retrievers, miniature schnauzers) factor VII deficiency causing abnormal platelet adhesiveness leading to abnormal bleeding | von willebrands disease |
| these specialized test are utilitzed for hypercalcemia | !Ca+, PTH |
| these specialized test are3 utilized for thyroid | t3/t4, tsh |
| these specialized tests are utilized for GI function | cobalamine, folate, TLI, PLI |
| these specialized test are utilized for coagulation panels | buccal mucosa bleeding time, PT/PTT, fibrinogen |
| this evaluates glomerular filtration and function, primary indicator of kidney function, end product of protein metabolism | BUN |
| the amount of protein ingested/absorbed, fever, corticosteroids, shock, dehydration, heart failure, renal insufficiency, urinary obstruction, will all create increase levels of what | BUN |
| liver disease, and the amount of protein ingested absorbed will cause decrease levels of what | BUN |
| this is the byproduct of muscle metabolism produced at a constant rate and filtered out almost entirely by the glomeruli, used to measure filtration rate of kidneys, primary indicator of kidney function | creatinine |
| increased levels of this are seen with lack of functional glomeruli, fluid and hydration levels (postrenal), urinary obstructions (postrenal) muscle degeneration, kidney disease, meds that impair kidney function | creatinine |
| bilirubinemia will cause a false increase in this | creatinine |
| decreased levels of this will be seen with liver disease, pregnancy, and protein starvation | creatinine |
| this is a cation that is 90% intracellular, normally filtered by the kidneys and then reabsorbed | potassium |
| low levels of this can indicate alkalosis, insulin therapy, excessive fluid loss, kidney failure | potassium |
| high levels of this can indicate hypoadrenocorticism, acidosis, late stage renal failure | potassium |
| 80% of this electrolyte is found in bone, remaining 20% functions to metabolize carbohydrates and are incorporated into nucleic acids | phosphorous |
| this electrolyte is used as a secondary indicator for kidney function, considered to be a mineral | phosphorous |
| excessive amount of this in the blood can indicate kidney failure, excessive vitamin D, hypoparathyroidism | phosphorous |
| low levels of this in blood are uncommon but can indicate hyperparathyroidism, malabsorption, diabetes mellitus | phosphorous |
| this is found in large amount in hepatocytes of dog/cat/primate, | alt |
| elevation of this can indicate liver cell damage, hyperthyroidism, drug side effects, chemical pollutants | alt |
| decrease levels of this in combination of cholesterol may indicate congested liver | alt |
| this is used in large animals to replace alt, it is unstable in blood samples and must be evaluated within 8 hours of obtaining the sample to be accurate | sdh |
| this is present in all tissues of the body, especially cardiac & skeletal muscle, and the liver | ast |
| horses have a high normal value of this than any other species | ast |
| this test evaluates liver damage, is a hepatic enzyme, and is large animal specific | sdh |
| this is an enzyme that assists with various chemical reactions, is present in almost all tissues, especially bone and liver | alk phos |
| this is the most common biochemical abnormality seen in clinically- normal animals, normal levels vary among different species | alk phos |
| elevations of this will be seen with liver disease, in young growing animals, with bone injury, with use of glucocorticoids and anticonvulsants (up to 2 weeks) and in dogs with certain forms of cancers | alk phos |
| this is a blood protein that is found in the liver, pancreas, and kidneys | ggt |
| elevations of this blood protein are usually due to liver disease, and sometimes medications | ggt |
| this is a blood protein produced by the liver that maintains hydrostatic pressure in blood | albumin |
| increased levels of this blood protein will indicate dehydration | albumin |
| decreased levels of this blood protein will indicate chronic liver dz, malnutrition, malabsorption, pregnancy, lactation, uncontrolled diabetes, trauma, nephritis, ascites, blood loss | albumin |
| these blood proteins are immunoglobulins and other serum proteins that can be individually assessed by electrophoresis | globulins |
| an increase in these blood proteins are seen with inflammation, infections, antigenic stimulation, neoplasia | globulins |
| a decrease in these blood proteins is seen with liver disease | globuins |
| these are formed in the liver, secreted into the bile duct, stored by the gallbladder between meals, secreted into the SI, resorbed in the ileum, filtered from the blood by the liver, recycled | bile acids |
| an increase in these are seen with decreased liver function bc the liver is not able to clear them from the blood | bile acids |
| a decrease in these will be seen with delayed gastric emptying, or ileal disease | bile acids |
| testing these is not part of a normal chem panel, requires a resting and a 2 hour post-prandial serum sample | bile acids |
| this is the end product of breakdown of hemoglobin, which is excreted by the liver, 2 forms conjugate/unconjugate- no longer important to differentiate | bilirubin |
| elevations of this will be seen with increased intravasular destruction of RBC's, liver disease, obstruction within the liver or bile duct, cholestasis | bilirubin |
| this measures the time it takes for blood to clot in vivo, it is non-specific for cause of coagulopathy | buccal mucosal bleeding time |
| this evaluates the extrinsic and common pathways, it is not affected by platelet numbers, requires a blue top tube | PT- prothrombine time |
| this measures the intrinsic and common pathways, not affected by platelet numbers, requires a blue top tube, | aPTT-activated partial thromboplastin time |
| this test the common pathway, is required for clot formation, not found in all serum but is found in all plasma | fibrinogen |
| this is rarely important in animals, rare cases of fat storage diseases will cause elevations, | cholesterol & triglycerides |
| this is produced in the pancreas, breaks down starches and glycogen, not valid in cats | amylase |
| this is produced in the pancreas, breaks down fats, not valid in cats | lipase |
| this is the most abundant extracellular cation, plays major role in distribution of water and maintaining osmotic pressure | sodium |
| this is interpreted with sodium, important for normal muscular function, respiration, cardiac function, nerve impulse transmission, and carbohydrate metabolism | potassium |
| high levels of this will be seen in acidotic animals, or with cellular danage or necrosis | potassium |
| low levels of this will be seen in animals that have inadequate intake, alkalosis, or fluid loss due to vomiting or diarrhea | potassium |
| this is the most abundant extracellular anion, plays important role in water/osmotic pressure and electrolyte balance, concentration is regulated by kidneys, have a close relationship with sodium | chloride |
| high levels of this will be seen with metabolic acidosis or renal tubular acidosis | chloride |
| low levels of this will be seen with excessive vomiting, anorexia, malnutrition, diabetes insipidus, or may accompany hypokalemia | chloride |
| this is considered a mineral, functions in teeth & bone, muscle function, heart beat, nerve transmission, blood clot formation | calcium |
| has an inverse relationship with phorphorous and is closely related to it, regulated by parathyroid hormone, calcitonin, and vitamin D, affected by serum albumin | calcium ++ |
| this is a cation found in all body tissue, closely related to calcium and phorphorous levels, inbalances in this and calcium can lead to muscle tetany in cattle and sheep, low levels affect potassium levels | magnesium |
| this is the initial test for assessment of thyroid function, can be low do to disease of the thyroid, a single low test does not rule out hypothyroidism, a high normal doesnt rule out hyperthyroidism, this is part of many senior wellness panels | t4 |
| non-protein bound t4, active form that can enter cells, useful to diagnose hypterthyroidism when t4 levels are high normal, variable usefullness in diagnosing hypothyroidism | free t4/ ft4 |
| thyroid stimulating hormone, low t4 with a high value of this is a highly specific diagnosis of hypothyroidism, not as accurate if t4 is normal | tsh |
| tests thyroids response to high levels of t3, useful when t4 or ft4 r borderline high, | t3 suppression test |
| vitamin b-12, can be low with small intestinal disease, can be supplemented if low but must be given parenterally | cobalamine |
| another b vitamin, decreased levels are consistent with small intestinal disease, elevations are consistent with bacterial overgrowth in canines only | folate |
| this is the test of choice to determine exocrine pancreatic insufficiency | TLI- serum trypsin like immunoreactivity |
| this is the common cause of malabsorption in dogs but is rare in cats | exocrine pancreatic insufficiency |
| this may result from chronic pancretitis, juvenile atrophy of pancreas, pancreatic hypoplasia | exocrine pancreatic insufficiency |
| this is the most sensitive and specific diagnostic test for pancreatitis currently available, only through texas A&M GI laboratory | PLI- serum pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity |
| this is the study of microbes, specifically bacteria; samples are collected by various methods; methods depend on type of lesion and location on animals body; aseptic technique is critical to achieving diagnostic quality results | microbiology |
| this type of media grows all types of bacteria and some fungi | nutritive |
| this type of media grows only certain types of bacteria, such as gram negative or gram positive types, or fungi | selective |
| this type of media contains elements that differentiate certain types of bacteria, such as lactose fermenters or hydrogen sulfide producers | differential |
| this is a basic type of media that is a semisolid | agar |
| this is a basic type of media that is a liquid | broth |
| this is a flat round container of agar | plate |
| this is a screw top container that contains broth or agar | tube |
| this is a tube of agar that has been allowed to gel at an angle | slant |
| this is a general nutritive medium for cultivation of fastidious microorganisms, used for the observation of bacterial hemolytic reactions; also referred to as blood agar plate | TSA- trypticase soy agar |
| this medium selects for gram negative organisms using crystal violet as a gram positive bacterial inhibitor; differentiates between lactose fermenters and non lactose fermenters; designed to inhibit growth of proteus spp bacteria | MAC- macconkey agar |
| this contains 5% sheeps blood and selects for gram positive organisms using colistin and naladixic acid | CAN- columbia colistin-nalidixic acid agar |
| this selects for pathogenic enteria gram negative bacteria and differentiates colonies on the basis of lactose fermentation; also differentiates H2S producing bacteria | SS- salmonella shigella agar |
| this is a general use medium specially formulated to give standardized results during antibiotic sensitivity testing; can be enriched with blood for more fastidious organisms | MH- mueller hinton agar |
| this is highly selective for use in microaerophilic envirnoments for the growth of campylobacter spp from fecal specimens; contains 5 antimicrobics and 10% sheeps blood | campy BAC- campylobacter agar |
| this is a general use broth that grows most bacterial organisms including anaerobes and some fungi; without indicator -135*C | THIO- thioglycollate broth |
| general use media that grows most bacteria, particularly fastidioius organisms, used primarily in blood cultures and sterility testing | TSB- trypticase soy broth |
| selective enrichment for salmonella and shigella used in fecal culturing | GN- gram negative broth |
| selective broth used in a microaerophillic environment to isolate campylobacter from fecal specimens; contains 5 antimicrobics | campy THIO- campylobacter thioglycollate |
| enriched broth used to bring bacteria to a certain turbidity level when performing diffusion antibiotic sensitivity testing | BHI- brain heart infusion |
| slanted medium used to identify bacteria that hydrolyse esculin, especially enterococci; positive reaction is indicated by ferric citrate, which reacts by producing a dark brown color | BE-bile esculin agar |
| sterile solution used for diluting gram-negative bacteria for API testing | NaCl 0.085% |
| semisolid medium used to demonstrate motility of bacteria | motility test medium |
| solid tubed medium, supplemented with gentamicin and chlortetracycline; used to isolate pathogenic fungi; differentiation is provided by phenol red | DTM- dermatophyte test medium |
| selective fungal medium that contains cyclohexamide and chloramphenicol to inhibit bacteria growth | mycosel agar |
| semisolid medium used to determine dextrose utilization in gram negative bacteria | oxidation fermentation medium with dextrose |
| media used for the cultivation and transport of nonfastidious organisms | NA- nutrient agar |
| used to determine urease production of bacteria; positive results are indicated by the presence of phenol red indicator | urea agar slant |
| this is a group of proteins in serum whose function includes enhancement of phagocytosis and virus neutralization | complement chemical barriers |
| this is a group of glycoproteins with antiviral properties | interferon |
| microorganisms associated with a particular body tissue that are normally present | normal flora |
| antibody formation is stimulated as a result of natural infection | natural active immunity |
| formation is stimulated as a result of vaccination with an antigen | artificial active immunity |
| antibodies are transferred to the newborn from an immune mother by placental transfer or from the mothers colostrum | passive natural immunity |
| antibodies are transferred by injection | passive artificial immunity |
| these bacteria are shaped like rods or cylinders | bacillus |
| these usually occur singly and can be divided into 3 categories loose, tight, and comma shaped | spiral |
| these bacteria are spherical shaped | coccus |
| in this category the bacterias morphologies range from cocci to rods | plemorphic |
| this is the outermost covering of many bacteria which consists of slimy or jelly-like material | capsule |
| this is composed of a base layer and an outside outer layer; give rigidity to the cell and helps maintain shape | cell wall |
| these bacteria are composed of lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins, but no teichoic acid | gram negative |
| these bacteria are composed of teichoic acids that contribute to the thick wall and of magnesium ribonucleic acid | gram positive |
| how many types of flagellar arrangements are there | 4 |
| this type of flagellar arrangement has a single flagellum at one pole | monotrichous |
| this type of flagellar arrangement has a tuft of flagellum at one pole | lophotrichous |
| this type of flagellar arrangement has a tuft of flagelllum at both poles | amphitrichous |
| this type of flagellar arrangement has flagella distributed all around the cell | peritrichous |
| bacteria that move toward or away from light | phototaxis |
| bacteria that move in response to chemicals | chemotaxis |
| the optimum pH for most pathogenic bacteria is between | 6.5-7.5 |
| bacteria that grown in the presence of free oxygen | aerobic |
| bacteria that grow in the absence of oxygen | anaerobic |
| bacteria that grown in the absence or the presence of free oxygen but must obtain oxygen from oxygen containing compounds such as inorganic sulfates | facultative anerobic bacteria |
| bacteria that grow best at levels of oxygen less than that contained in air | microaerophillic |
| bacteria that require 3-10% CO2 in the environment to initiate growth | capnophilic |
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