PHM 114 Week 6 Study Guide
Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in
each of the black spaces below before clicking
on it to display the answer.
Help!
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| The first step in compounding a prescription is: | Obtaining the formula or recipe
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| When the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act was introduced in 1938, about 50% of prescriptions in the US were compounded. Today that percentage is closer to: | 1%
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| What equipment is required to remove particulate mater from liquids? | Filter paper
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| What is used to mix liquids? | Glass mortal and pestle
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| What equipment is used for mixing creams and ointments? | ointment tile and spatula
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| To stir liquids by hand, which piece of equipment is used? | glass stirring rods
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| For geometric dilution, always start with: | smallest amount
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| The most appropriate dosage form depends on the drug being compounded and the : | patient: age, weight and route appropriate
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| What are the components of a good quality assurance program except; | Compounding reference
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| Which oral dosage form is extremely versatile and offers a broad range of dosage options for patients? | capsules
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| Tablets can be administered how? except | topically. by mouth, vaginally,
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| The most prescribed dosage form is the: | tablet
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| What dosage forms is not used as much anymore? | powders
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| What dosage forms is placed in the oral cavity to disintegrate over time? | Troches
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| Which dosage form is uniquely for topical application of such medications as local anesthetics, antivirals, and antibiotics? | medicated sticks
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| What are common suppository bases? except | palm butter
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| What dosage forms can have either a systemic effect or local effect, depending on the drug used? | suppository
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| Which of the following contains insoluble solid particles uniformly dispersed throughout the vehicle? | suspension
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| Which dosage form contains two immiscible liquids? | Emulation
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| Which of the following dosage forms must be shaken prior to administration? | Suspension
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| Common ointment bases include all of the following except: | cocoa butter
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| Which term refers to the process of reducing particle sizes to a fine powder? | Tritrating
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| An ointment that does not melt or soften at body temperature is called a: | paste
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| Which is a very viscous dosage form intended to be used as a protective covering over areas where it is applied? | paste
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| which of the following is NOT a commercially prepared cream base? | aquifer
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| Which of the following dosage forms must be sterile? | ophthalmic ointment
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| Which of the following is NOT a common ophthalmic dosage form? | Emulations
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| The eye generally tolerates a pH range of: | 3.5 to 8.5 or 4
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| What was recently revised to include new material about non-sterile compounded formulations? | USP 795
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| The generic name for Neo-Synephrine is: | pheylephrine HCI
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| The generic name for Tyzine is: | tetrahydrozoline HCI
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| The generic name for Privine is: | naphazoline HCI
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| Which of the following nasal decongestants is by prescription only? | tetrahydrozoline
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| Which of the following antihistamines does not cause drowsiness? | fexofedadine
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| Which of the following antihistamines will cause drowsiness? | cholorpheniramine
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| Which of the following drugs is a mast cell stabilizer? | Oromolyn Sodium
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| Mast cell stabilizers prevent mast cells from releasing | histamine
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| ________ is the genetic disease in which a defective gene causes the body to produce abnormally thick, sticky mucus. | cystic fibrosis
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| ________ is a chronic respiratory disease characterized by inflammation of the airways and tightening of the muscles around the airways. | asthma
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| ________ is characterized by the destruction of the alveoli. | emphysema
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| ________ is characterized by inflammation of the airways that lasts for long periods of time or keeps returning. | chronic bronchitis
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| About 80 to 90% of all COPD cases are related to: | cigarette smoking
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| ________ are asthma drugs that mimic epinephrine stimulation of the beta-2 receptors of the respiratory tract, directly relaxing smooth muscles | Broncodiulators
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| ________ work by blocking the effects of acctylcholine by competing for the ACH receptor site. Bronchoconstriction is prevented while airway passages dilate. | anticoagulants
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| Which substance is produced by the breakdown of hemoglobin and is not normally found in the urine? | billarubin
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| What type of exercise can be beneficial for someone with urinary incontinence? | Kegel
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| The average dose for Vesicare is: | 5 to 10 mg once daily
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| ________ can result from inflammation and swelling caused by infections in the pelvic area. | Urinary retention
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| UTI symptoms include the following except: | Pain in the lower right abdomen
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| One of the main organs of the digestive tract, the pharynx is more commonly called the: | throat
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| The windpipe, or ________ is closed off by the cpiglottis to allow food to be swallowed. | Tricia
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| Pepsin is the enzyme that chemically breaks down: | proteins
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| Bile stored in the gallbladder goes to the small intestine to break up large molecules of fats into small ones, a process called: | emulsification
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| Secreted bicarbonate raises the pH of the small intestine to about ________, the chemical environment in which pancreatic enzymes work best. | 5.5
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| The motility of the colon is considered to be: | unsynchronized
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| What condition is commonly called heartburn? | GERD
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| A dose of ________ of metoclopramide po qid 30 minutes as and phs is indicated for serious GERD | 10 to 15 mg
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| Antihistamines treat nausea and vomiting by: | competitive inhibition or blocking HL receptor sites
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| Peptic ulcers can be caused by extended NSAID use because NSAIDs block ________ reducing prostaglandin production | all COX enzymes
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| Helicobacter pylori is a ________ that causes approximately 90% of duodenal ulcers and 80% of gastric ulcers. | Bactium
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| In double-drug therapy for H.pylori infections, ________ and amoxicillin are given concurrently. | lansoprazole
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| The Tolerable UL is the highest value of a nutrient that is not likely to pose adverse effects in________ of the population. | 98%
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| Which of the following is considered "good" cholesterol? | HDL
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| Which of the following is NOT one of the vaccines considered most important for the elderly? | DPT
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| Which vaccination is recommended for people born after 1957 or in high-risk groups with no documentation of previous immunization? | MMR
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| Medication effects that occur because of a pre-existing disease or condition are called: | disease drug interactions
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| Drugs such as anti-anxiety agents or hypnotics may cause excessive adverse effects in the elderly because these patients are: | More sensitive to drugs that suppress the central nervous system
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| Which of the following is NOT a cause of anticholinergic effects? | SSRIs
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| Which of the following is NOT one of the problems associated with over-medication in the geriatric population? | increased salivation
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| Falls, which account for ________ of all Emergency Department visits, are a major negative effect of over-medication. | 10%
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| The pharmacy technician should alert the pharmacist if they notice a(n) ________ medication class. | duplication
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| The pharmacy technician should be sure to include any ________ in the patient's current profile. | OTCs
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| What is defined as a patient's refusal or inability to follow a prescribed drug regimen? | Non-compliance
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| The more ________ the drug regimen, the more likely it is that an elderly patient (or any patient) will be noncompliant. | complicated
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| Which of the following is NOT a reason for noncompliance in elderly patients? | When patients understand directions
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| Which of the following is NOT a way for pharmacy technicians to help ensure medication compliance in elderly patients? | maintain business like determiner, don't be to friendly
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| To help geriatric patients comply with their medication regimes, be sure to avoid ________ when discussing the patient's medication therapy. | Medical Jargon
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| What can would help elderly patients with compliance? | liquid dosage form
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| An adult lung contains how many alveoli? | 600 million
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| The ________ of the nose filter the air. | cilia
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| Colds are ________ infections. | viral
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| All of the following can be cold symptoms EXCEPT: | High-grade fever
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| All of the following are common flu symptoms EXCEPT | Normal energy level
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| Coughs likely begin with an irritation of ________ in the respiratory tract. | nerves
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| The most frequent causes of chronic cough in children are: | Asthma, sinusitis, and GERD
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| A postinfectious cough may persist for ________ week(s). | 3 or more
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| A persistent acute cough that lasts for 3 weeks or less is usually caused by the common cold but could indicate: | Pneumonia.
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| A chronic cough is one that lasts for ________ week(s) | 3 or more
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| Antibiotic treatment is needed for someone with: | Whooping cough.
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| Mucus is expelled in a: | Productive cough
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| A dry hacking cough is considered: | Non-productive
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| A(n) ________ is used to thin out mucus | decongestant
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| Which of the following is used to quiet or stop coughs? | Antitussive
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| Patients taking ________ drugs should not take products containing pseudoephedrine. | MAOI
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| Which of the following drugs is an essential chemical used in the manufacture of methamphetamine? | Pseudoephedrine
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| Topical decongestants act as: | Vasoconstrictors.
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| Dextromethorphan is found in all of the following EXCEPT: | Organidin NR®.
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| All of the following are trade names for guaifenesin EXCEPT: | Hycomine (C-III)®.
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| What is the mechanism of action of guaifenesin? | Thins mucus and lubricates the irritated respiratory tract
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| What is the mechanism of action of codeine in treating coughs? | Elevates the threshold for cough in the medulla oblongata
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| What is the mechanism of action of dextromethorphan in treating coughs? | Works on CNS to suppress cough centers in the medulla oblongata
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| The generic name for Afrin® is: | Oxymetazoline HCl.
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| The generic name for Neo-Synephrine® is: | Phenylephrine HCl.
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| The generic name for Tyzine® is | Tetrahydrozoline HCl
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| The generic name for Privine® is: | Naphazoline HCl
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| Which of the following nasal decongestants is by prescription only? | Tetrahydrozoline HCl
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| Which of the following antihistamines does not cause drowsiness? | Fexofenadine
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| Which of the following are NOT common dosage forms for nasal preparations? | Tablets
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| Which of the following would be used as a vehicle when compounding nasal preparations? | 0.9% sodium chloride
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| _______ compounding is now one of the fastest growing areas of pharmaceutical compounding. | Veterinary
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| Medication doses for animals are usually calculated on the basis of: | Milligrams per kilogram of body weight.
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| A chewable treat dosage form has a base of ground food product and ________ mixed with the active ingredient. | gelatin
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| Why are coloring and flavoring added to compounded medications? | Psychological effect
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| Which group of people may require greater amounts of flavor in compounded medication? | Elderly
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| Which group of people has the least experience of taste and therefore generally doesn’t require a strong flavor in compounded medication? | Infants
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| Which of the following would likely NOT be a preferred flavor for children? | Anise
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| For which group of people does the “bite” of a bitter flavor help cut the bitterness of a medication? | Adult patients
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| Which taste receptors are located approximately in the center of the tongue? | Sour only
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| How does the brain perceive taste? | As a composite sensation
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| Which flavor enhancer can be added along with almost any flavoring agent to stimulate and intensify the desired flavor without altering the flavor or adding its own taste? | Vanilla
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| Which of the following is one of the terms that means the process of reducing the particle size of a substance by grinding? | Comminuting
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| Which term refers to the inactive ingredients that are compounded with active ingredients to create the dosage form? | Excipient
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| Which of the following is NOT part of the dictionary definition of compounding? | To customize
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| Which resource provides an in-depth look at compounding and step-by-step procedures? | The Pharmacy Technician Series: Compounding
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| Pharmacy technicians must take great care with compounding ________ because even a small mistake could have devastating results for the patient. | calculations
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| What was recently revised to include new material about nonsterile compounded formulations? | USP 795
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| The Pharmacy Compounding Accreditation Board (PCAB) was founded when eight of the nation’s leading pharmacy organizations joined together to create a(n) ________ quality accreditation designation for the compounding industry. | voluntary
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| The goals of PCAB accreditation include all of the following EXCEPT: | Maintain quality of compounding operations.
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| Which of the following is used for continuous stirring? | Magnetic stir plate
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| In geometric dilution, each addition should ________ the amount until all ingredients are mixed in. | double
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| In step 4 of the compounding process, the pharmacy technician weighs each ingredient. What happens next? | The pharmacy technician has the pharmacist verify the measurements.
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| What is defined as a program of activities used to ensure that the procedures used in the preparation of compounded products meet specific standards? | Quality assurance
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| Which of the following is one of the reasons that SOPs are necessary? | Because there may be more than one way to do a particular task
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| Which of the following is NOT part of the standard format for SOPs? | A detailed step-by-step explanation that can be easily followed differently by individuals to obtain unique results
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| For ________ accreditation, pharmacy compounding SOPs must include those regarding cleaning, maintenance, calibration, and verification of each piece of equipment. | PCAB
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| What is a disadvantage of commercially made compressed tablets? | Only available in fixed dosage strengths and combinations
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| Which of the following is a powder medication that is taken internally? | BC Powder
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| Which medication form does NOT make use of molds? | Capsules
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| What equipment is used when the pharmacy technician needs to melt the base for a compounded medication? | Hotplate
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| Tongs are used to: | Pick up items that should not be handled.
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| Which of the following is NOT used for pharmacy-compounded creams and ointments? | Capsule machine
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| What is the purpose of a homogenizer? | Reducing particle size and evenly suspending liquids
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| The generic name for Detrol® is: | Tolterodine tartrate.
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| Blockage or obstruction of the urethra can cause: | Urinary retention.
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| ________ is an inflammation of the bladder caused in most cases by E. coli and staphylococcus. | Cystitis
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| ________ is an inflammation of the kidney and upper urinary tract that is usually caused by a bacterial infection of the bladder. | Pyelonephritis
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| ________ can be used to manage UTI symptoms of burning and itching urethras. | Phenazopyridine
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| ________ is pus or bacteria in the urine. | Pyuria
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| ________ is urine in the blood. | Uremia
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| Which of the following is a reference to the condition called kidney stones? | Urolithiais
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| All of the following substances help break down and dissolve solid wastes in the urine except: | Chloride.
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| Which of the following populations is most prone to kidney stones? | Caucasian males
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| All of the following conditions can contribute to the formation of kidney stones except: | Hyperkalemia.
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| Kidney failure can lead to all of the following EXCEPT: | UTIs.
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| Long-term complications for diabetics that can lead to renal failure include all of the following EXCEPT: | Hypoglycemia.
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| Which of the following populations has a high risk for developing end-stage renal disease? | Native Americans
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| Diabetics have a blood sugar goal of less than ________ mg/dl. | 126
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| The renal system includes two: | Ureters.
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| Each kidney is about the size of a(n): | Fist.
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| The right kidney is slightly lower than the left kidney because of the location of the: | Liver.
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| The specific gravity of urine ranges between: | 1.006 and 1.03
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| What is the average pH of urine? | 6
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| Which substance is produced by the breakdown of hemoglobin and is not normally found in the urine? | Bilirubin
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| What type of exercise can be beneficial for someone with urinary incontinence? | Kegel
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| The average dose for Vesicare® is: | 5-10 mg once daily.
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| ________ can result from inflammation and swelling caused by infections in the pelvic area. | Urinary retention
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| UTI symptoms include the following EXCEPT: | Pain in the lower-right abdomen.
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| ________ is indicated for burning and itching associated with UTI. | Phenazopyridine
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| When wastes are not completely dissolved in the urine, a microscopic, hard crystal called a(n) ________ remains in the kidney. | calculus
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| What childhood illness is a viral respiratory disease in which the trachea and larynx become inflamed? | Croup
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| What percentage of newborns develops jaundice within the first 2 to 4 days after birth? | 50%
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| What medication is sometimes prescribed to prevent both inflammation and clot formation in Kawasaki disease? | Aspirin
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| What illness may occur in pediatric patients when an underlying streptococcal infection is not treated properly, or when strep infections occur frequently? | Rheumatic fever
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| Approximately ________ of U.S. children age 6 to 18 are obese | 30%
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| Measures such as ________ and well-baby checkups help prevent many childhood illnesses. | immunizations
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| How many Americans are currently age 65 and older? | 40 million
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| By the year 2030, how many Americans are expected to be age 65 and older? | 70 million
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| Some experts report that ________ of all OTC products and _______ of prescription medications are consumed by the elderly. | 30%, 50%
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| Most human physiologic systems accrue impairment at a rate of ________ per decade after the age of 30. | 5% to 10%
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| As people age, their organs: | Decrease in size
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| Which of the following is NOT a factor in slower drug absorption in the geriatric patient? | Increased intestinal surface area
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| How does percentage of body water affect drug distribution in geriatric patients? | Drug levels are lowered because less water is available to distribute them throughout the body.
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| What effect does increased percentage of body fat have on lipid-soluble drugs in geriatric patients? | Drugs are diverted from the kidney and liver, slowing elimination of the drug from the body and causing the drug to have a longer half-life and possibly greater toxicity.
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| What term refers to persons over the age of 65? | Geriatric
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| The frequent occurrence of ________ in the elderly can affect metabolism and excretion. | kidney and liver disease
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| In an elderly person, the dosage amount taken by a younger adult can produce: | A greater pharmacological effect.
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| Which of the following pharmacokinetic components is NOT among those meaningfully affected by age? | Excretion
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| Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that geriatric patients might have inadequate nutrition? | Increased appetite
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| Proper nutrition is important to liver function and the ability to ________ drugs. | metabolize
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| What decreases in the body if protein intake is insufficient, allowing more unbound drug to remain in the patient's system? | Plasma protein
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| The deposit of uric acid in the joint synovial fluid of the big toes, knees, elbows and soft tissue causes: | Gout.
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| ________ is an inflammation of the bladder caused in most cases by E. coli and staphylococcus. | Cystitis
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| ________ is an inflammation of the kidney and upper urinary tract that is usually caused by a bacterial infection of the bladder. | Pyelonephritis
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| ________ can be used to manage UTI symptoms of burning and itching urethras. | Phenazopyridine
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| ________ is pus or bacteria in the urine. | Pyuria
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| ________ is urine in the blood. | Uremia
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| This drug is used only during the first 48 hours of an acute gout attack: | Colchicine
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| Gout is caused by an excess of ________ in the body. | uric acid
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| ________ is used as prophylactic therapy for gout, as it increases the excretion of uric acid. | Probenecid
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| Indocin® (indomethacin) is prescribed for: | Acute or chronic gout.
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| Which type of gout treatment decreases the production of uric acid in the blood? | Hypouricemic agents
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| When using the alligation grid, what goes in the center box? | The desired strength
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| Where on the alligation grid do we find the number of parts per ingredient? | Right-hand side
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| What kinds of numbers can be used within an alligation grid? | Positive numbers only
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| To use an alligation grid to prepare 120g of hydrocortisone using a 1% ointment and 2.5% ointment, what information is still required? | Desired strength
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| You need to prepare a 7.5% Dextrose solution using SWFI and D10W. What information do you still need to fill in the alligation grid? | Desired quantity
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| When alligating, the strength of the final product: | Falls between the strengths of each original product.
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| The two products used in alligating are called the: | Constituents.
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| A simple way to remember how to make an alligation grid is to remember that it looks like the game: | Tic-tac-toe.
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| The digestive system extends from the mouth to the: | Anus.
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| Rings of smooth muscle help to produce a wave of synchronized contractions called: | Peristalsis.
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| Which of the following is NOT included among the six main parts or organs of the digestive system? | Teeth
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| All of the following are among the six accessory organs of the digestive system EXCEPT the: | Pharynx.
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| Which of the following is not one of the parts of the stomach? | Chyme
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| Which of the following is not part of the small intestine? | Cecum
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| In which part of the small intestine is approximately 80% of the food chemically digested? | Duodenum
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| The ________ cells make and secrete hydrochloric acid in the stomach. | parietal
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| Which digestive organ makes and secretes bile? | Liver
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| All of the following are considered part of the large intestine EXCEPT the: | Ileum.
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| Emesis is commonly known as: | Vomiting
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| A sore on the inside wall of the stomach or intestine is called: | An ulcer.
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| NSAIDs work by blocking the effect of the enzyme: | Cyclooxygenase.
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| All of the following are factors that can cause ulcers EXCEPT: | Antibiotics.
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| Proton pump inhibitors block the ________ that turns on the H+ -ATPase system, causing a reduction in hydrochloric acid production. | enzyme
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| Which type of laxative causes colon fluid retention, increasing peristalsis? | Hyperosmotics
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| Which type of laxative works by stopping the colon from absorbing fecal water, softening the stool? | Emollients
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| The nutrient value that prevents deficiencies in 98% of the population is the: | Recommended dietary allowance.
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| The nutrient value that is estimated to meet the needs of 50% of the population is the: | Estimated average requirement.
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| All of the following are considered macronutrients EXCEPT: | Water.
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| What is the unit of measure used when referring to the energy needed to digest and utilize food? | Kilocalorie
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| The ADMR for carbohydrates is ________ of daily caloric intake | 45% to 65%
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| The ADMR for fats is ________ of daily caloric intake. | 20% to 35%
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| The ADMR for protein is ________ of daily caloric intake. | 10% to 35%
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| Carbohydrates' main function in the body is to: | Provide energy.
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| Lipids' main function in the body is to: | Insulate and protect organs.
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| What percentage of the body is composed of water? | 60%
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| How many different minerals are essential for nutrition? | 21
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| Which of the following minerals is needed to build bones and teeth? | Phosphorus
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| Which of the following minerals helps maintain proper muscle memory function? | Potassium
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| Vitamin B12 is also known as: | Cyanocobalamin.
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| Antihistamines treat nausea and vomiting by: | Competitive inhibition or by blocking H1 receptor sites.
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| Peptic ulcers can be caused by extended NSAID use because NSAIDs block ________, reducing prostaglandin production. | all COX enzymes
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| Helicobacter pylori is a ________ that causes approximately 90% of duodenal ulcers and 80% of gastric ulcers. | bacteriumbacterium
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