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PHM 114 Week 6 Study
PHM 114 Week 6 Study Guide
Question | Answer |
---|---|
The first step in compounding a prescription is: | Obtaining the formula or recipe |
When the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act was introduced in 1938, about 50% of prescriptions in the US were compounded. Today that percentage is closer to: | 1% |
What equipment is required to remove particulate mater from liquids? | Filter paper |
What is used to mix liquids? | Glass mortal and pestle |
What equipment is used for mixing creams and ointments? | ointment tile and spatula |
To stir liquids by hand, which piece of equipment is used? | glass stirring rods |
For geometric dilution, always start with: | smallest amount |
The most appropriate dosage form depends on the drug being compounded and the : | patient: age, weight and route appropriate |
What are the components of a good quality assurance program except; | Compounding reference |
Which oral dosage form is extremely versatile and offers a broad range of dosage options for patients? | capsules |
Tablets can be administered how? except | topically. by mouth, vaginally, |
The most prescribed dosage form is the: | tablet |
What dosage forms is not used as much anymore? | powders |
What dosage forms is placed in the oral cavity to disintegrate over time? | Troches |
Which dosage form is uniquely for topical application of such medications as local anesthetics, antivirals, and antibiotics? | medicated sticks |
What are common suppository bases? except | palm butter |
What dosage forms can have either a systemic effect or local effect, depending on the drug used? | suppository |
Which of the following contains insoluble solid particles uniformly dispersed throughout the vehicle? | suspension |
Which dosage form contains two immiscible liquids? | Emulation |
Which of the following dosage forms must be shaken prior to administration? | Suspension |
Common ointment bases include all of the following except: | cocoa butter |
Which term refers to the process of reducing particle sizes to a fine powder? | Tritrating |
An ointment that does not melt or soften at body temperature is called a: | paste |
Which is a very viscous dosage form intended to be used as a protective covering over areas where it is applied? | paste |
which of the following is NOT a commercially prepared cream base? | aquifer |
Which of the following dosage forms must be sterile? | ophthalmic ointment |
Which of the following is NOT a common ophthalmic dosage form? | Emulations |
The eye generally tolerates a pH range of: | 3.5 to 8.5 or 4 |
What was recently revised to include new material about non-sterile compounded formulations? | USP 795 |
The generic name for Neo-Synephrine is: | pheylephrine HCI |
The generic name for Tyzine is: | tetrahydrozoline HCI |
The generic name for Privine is: | naphazoline HCI |
Which of the following nasal decongestants is by prescription only? | tetrahydrozoline |
Which of the following antihistamines does not cause drowsiness? | fexofedadine |
Which of the following antihistamines will cause drowsiness? | cholorpheniramine |
Which of the following drugs is a mast cell stabilizer? | Oromolyn Sodium |
Mast cell stabilizers prevent mast cells from releasing | histamine |
________ is the genetic disease in which a defective gene causes the body to produce abnormally thick, sticky mucus. | cystic fibrosis |
________ is a chronic respiratory disease characterized by inflammation of the airways and tightening of the muscles around the airways. | asthma |
________ is characterized by the destruction of the alveoli. | emphysema |
________ is characterized by inflammation of the airways that lasts for long periods of time or keeps returning. | chronic bronchitis |
About 80 to 90% of all COPD cases are related to: | cigarette smoking |
________ are asthma drugs that mimic epinephrine stimulation of the beta-2 receptors of the respiratory tract, directly relaxing smooth muscles | Broncodiulators |
________ work by blocking the effects of acctylcholine by competing for the ACH receptor site. Bronchoconstriction is prevented while airway passages dilate. | anticoagulants |
Which substance is produced by the breakdown of hemoglobin and is not normally found in the urine? | billarubin |
What type of exercise can be beneficial for someone with urinary incontinence? | Kegel |
The average dose for Vesicare is: | 5 to 10 mg once daily |
________ can result from inflammation and swelling caused by infections in the pelvic area. | Urinary retention |
UTI symptoms include the following except: | Pain in the lower right abdomen |
One of the main organs of the digestive tract, the pharynx is more commonly called the: | throat |
The windpipe, or ________ is closed off by the cpiglottis to allow food to be swallowed. | Tricia |
Pepsin is the enzyme that chemically breaks down: | proteins |
Bile stored in the gallbladder goes to the small intestine to break up large molecules of fats into small ones, a process called: | emulsification |
Secreted bicarbonate raises the pH of the small intestine to about ________, the chemical environment in which pancreatic enzymes work best. | 5.5 |
The motility of the colon is considered to be: | unsynchronized |
What condition is commonly called heartburn? | GERD |
A dose of ________ of metoclopramide po qid 30 minutes as and phs is indicated for serious GERD | 10 to 15 mg |
Antihistamines treat nausea and vomiting by: | competitive inhibition or blocking HL receptor sites |
Peptic ulcers can be caused by extended NSAID use because NSAIDs block ________ reducing prostaglandin production | all COX enzymes |
Helicobacter pylori is a ________ that causes approximately 90% of duodenal ulcers and 80% of gastric ulcers. | Bactium |
In double-drug therapy for H.pylori infections, ________ and amoxicillin are given concurrently. | lansoprazole |
The Tolerable UL is the highest value of a nutrient that is not likely to pose adverse effects in________ of the population. | 98% |
Which of the following is considered "good" cholesterol? | HDL |
Which of the following is NOT one of the vaccines considered most important for the elderly? | DPT |
Which vaccination is recommended for people born after 1957 or in high-risk groups with no documentation of previous immunization? | MMR |
Medication effects that occur because of a pre-existing disease or condition are called: | disease drug interactions |
Drugs such as anti-anxiety agents or hypnotics may cause excessive adverse effects in the elderly because these patients are: | More sensitive to drugs that suppress the central nervous system |
Which of the following is NOT a cause of anticholinergic effects? | SSRIs |
Which of the following is NOT one of the problems associated with over-medication in the geriatric population? | increased salivation |
Falls, which account for ________ of all Emergency Department visits, are a major negative effect of over-medication. | 10% |
The pharmacy technician should alert the pharmacist if they notice a(n) ________ medication class. | duplication |
The pharmacy technician should be sure to include any ________ in the patient's current profile. | OTCs |
What is defined as a patient's refusal or inability to follow a prescribed drug regimen? | Non-compliance |
The more ________ the drug regimen, the more likely it is that an elderly patient (or any patient) will be noncompliant. | complicated |
Which of the following is NOT a reason for noncompliance in elderly patients? | When patients understand directions |
Which of the following is NOT a way for pharmacy technicians to help ensure medication compliance in elderly patients? | maintain business like determiner, don't be to friendly |
To help geriatric patients comply with their medication regimes, be sure to avoid ________ when discussing the patient's medication therapy. | Medical Jargon |
What can would help elderly patients with compliance? | liquid dosage form |
An adult lung contains how many alveoli? | 600 million |
The ________ of the nose filter the air. | cilia |
Colds are ________ infections. | viral |
All of the following can be cold symptoms EXCEPT: | High-grade fever |
All of the following are common flu symptoms EXCEPT | Normal energy level |
Coughs likely begin with an irritation of ________ in the respiratory tract. | nerves |
The most frequent causes of chronic cough in children are: | Asthma, sinusitis, and GERD |
A postinfectious cough may persist for ________ week(s). | 3 or more |
A persistent acute cough that lasts for 3 weeks or less is usually caused by the common cold but could indicate: | Pneumonia. |
A chronic cough is one that lasts for ________ week(s) | 3 or more |
Antibiotic treatment is needed for someone with: | Whooping cough. |
Mucus is expelled in a: | Productive cough |
A dry hacking cough is considered: | Non-productive |
A(n) ________ is used to thin out mucus | decongestant |
Which of the following is used to quiet or stop coughs? | Antitussive |
Patients taking ________ drugs should not take products containing pseudoephedrine. | MAOI |
Which of the following drugs is an essential chemical used in the manufacture of methamphetamine? | Pseudoephedrine |
Topical decongestants act as: | Vasoconstrictors. |
Dextromethorphan is found in all of the following EXCEPT: | Organidin NR®. |
All of the following are trade names for guaifenesin EXCEPT: | Hycomine (C-III)®. |
What is the mechanism of action of guaifenesin? | Thins mucus and lubricates the irritated respiratory tract |
What is the mechanism of action of codeine in treating coughs? | Elevates the threshold for cough in the medulla oblongata |
What is the mechanism of action of dextromethorphan in treating coughs? | Works on CNS to suppress cough centers in the medulla oblongata |
The generic name for Afrin® is: | Oxymetazoline HCl. |
The generic name for Neo-Synephrine® is: | Phenylephrine HCl. |
The generic name for Tyzine® is | Tetrahydrozoline HCl |
The generic name for Privine® is: | Naphazoline HCl |
Which of the following nasal decongestants is by prescription only? | Tetrahydrozoline HCl |
Which of the following antihistamines does not cause drowsiness? | Fexofenadine |
Which of the following are NOT common dosage forms for nasal preparations? | Tablets |
Which of the following would be used as a vehicle when compounding nasal preparations? | 0.9% sodium chloride |
_______ compounding is now one of the fastest growing areas of pharmaceutical compounding. | Veterinary |
Medication doses for animals are usually calculated on the basis of: | Milligrams per kilogram of body weight. |
A chewable treat dosage form has a base of ground food product and ________ mixed with the active ingredient. | gelatin |
Why are coloring and flavoring added to compounded medications? | Psychological effect |
Which group of people may require greater amounts of flavor in compounded medication? | Elderly |
Which group of people has the least experience of taste and therefore generally doesn’t require a strong flavor in compounded medication? | Infants |
Which of the following would likely NOT be a preferred flavor for children? | Anise |
For which group of people does the “bite” of a bitter flavor help cut the bitterness of a medication? | Adult patients |
Which taste receptors are located approximately in the center of the tongue? | Sour only |
How does the brain perceive taste? | As a composite sensation |
Which flavor enhancer can be added along with almost any flavoring agent to stimulate and intensify the desired flavor without altering the flavor or adding its own taste? | Vanilla |
Which of the following is one of the terms that means the process of reducing the particle size of a substance by grinding? | Comminuting |
Which term refers to the inactive ingredients that are compounded with active ingredients to create the dosage form? | Excipient |
Which of the following is NOT part of the dictionary definition of compounding? | To customize |
Which resource provides an in-depth look at compounding and step-by-step procedures? | The Pharmacy Technician Series: Compounding |
Pharmacy technicians must take great care with compounding ________ because even a small mistake could have devastating results for the patient. | calculations |
What was recently revised to include new material about nonsterile compounded formulations? | USP 795 |
The Pharmacy Compounding Accreditation Board (PCAB) was founded when eight of the nation’s leading pharmacy organizations joined together to create a(n) ________ quality accreditation designation for the compounding industry. | voluntary |
The goals of PCAB accreditation include all of the following EXCEPT: | Maintain quality of compounding operations. |
Which of the following is used for continuous stirring? | Magnetic stir plate |
In geometric dilution, each addition should ________ the amount until all ingredients are mixed in. | double |
In step 4 of the compounding process, the pharmacy technician weighs each ingredient. What happens next? | The pharmacy technician has the pharmacist verify the measurements. |
What is defined as a program of activities used to ensure that the procedures used in the preparation of compounded products meet specific standards? | Quality assurance |
Which of the following is one of the reasons that SOPs are necessary? | Because there may be more than one way to do a particular task |
Which of the following is NOT part of the standard format for SOPs? | A detailed step-by-step explanation that can be easily followed differently by individuals to obtain unique results |
For ________ accreditation, pharmacy compounding SOPs must include those regarding cleaning, maintenance, calibration, and verification of each piece of equipment. | PCAB |
What is a disadvantage of commercially made compressed tablets? | Only available in fixed dosage strengths and combinations |
Which of the following is a powder medication that is taken internally? | BC Powder |
Which medication form does NOT make use of molds? | Capsules |
What equipment is used when the pharmacy technician needs to melt the base for a compounded medication? | Hotplate |
Tongs are used to: | Pick up items that should not be handled. |
Which of the following is NOT used for pharmacy-compounded creams and ointments? | Capsule machine |
What is the purpose of a homogenizer? | Reducing particle size and evenly suspending liquids |
The generic name for Detrol® is: | Tolterodine tartrate. |
Blockage or obstruction of the urethra can cause: | Urinary retention. |
________ is an inflammation of the bladder caused in most cases by E. coli and staphylococcus. | Cystitis |
________ is an inflammation of the kidney and upper urinary tract that is usually caused by a bacterial infection of the bladder. | Pyelonephritis |
________ can be used to manage UTI symptoms of burning and itching urethras. | Phenazopyridine |
________ is pus or bacteria in the urine. | Pyuria |
________ is urine in the blood. | Uremia |
Which of the following is a reference to the condition called kidney stones? | Urolithiais |
All of the following substances help break down and dissolve solid wastes in the urine except: | Chloride. |
Which of the following populations is most prone to kidney stones? | Caucasian males |
All of the following conditions can contribute to the formation of kidney stones except: | Hyperkalemia. |
Kidney failure can lead to all of the following EXCEPT: | UTIs. |
Long-term complications for diabetics that can lead to renal failure include all of the following EXCEPT: | Hypoglycemia. |
Which of the following populations has a high risk for developing end-stage renal disease? | Native Americans |
Diabetics have a blood sugar goal of less than ________ mg/dl. | 126 |
The renal system includes two: | Ureters. |
Each kidney is about the size of a(n): | Fist. |
The right kidney is slightly lower than the left kidney because of the location of the: | Liver. |
The specific gravity of urine ranges between: | 1.006 and 1.03 |
What is the average pH of urine? | 6 |
Which substance is produced by the breakdown of hemoglobin and is not normally found in the urine? | Bilirubin |
What type of exercise can be beneficial for someone with urinary incontinence? | Kegel |
The average dose for Vesicare® is: | 5-10 mg once daily. |
________ can result from inflammation and swelling caused by infections in the pelvic area. | Urinary retention |
UTI symptoms include the following EXCEPT: | Pain in the lower-right abdomen. |
________ is indicated for burning and itching associated with UTI. | Phenazopyridine |
When wastes are not completely dissolved in the urine, a microscopic, hard crystal called a(n) ________ remains in the kidney. | calculus |
What childhood illness is a viral respiratory disease in which the trachea and larynx become inflamed? | Croup |
What percentage of newborns develops jaundice within the first 2 to 4 days after birth? | 50% |
What medication is sometimes prescribed to prevent both inflammation and clot formation in Kawasaki disease? | Aspirin |
What illness may occur in pediatric patients when an underlying streptococcal infection is not treated properly, or when strep infections occur frequently? | Rheumatic fever |
Approximately ________ of U.S. children age 6 to 18 are obese | 30% |
Measures such as ________ and well-baby checkups help prevent many childhood illnesses. | immunizations |
How many Americans are currently age 65 and older? | 40 million |
By the year 2030, how many Americans are expected to be age 65 and older? | 70 million |
Some experts report that ________ of all OTC products and _______ of prescription medications are consumed by the elderly. | 30%, 50% |
Most human physiologic systems accrue impairment at a rate of ________ per decade after the age of 30. | 5% to 10% |
As people age, their organs: | Decrease in size |
Which of the following is NOT a factor in slower drug absorption in the geriatric patient? | Increased intestinal surface area |
How does percentage of body water affect drug distribution in geriatric patients? | Drug levels are lowered because less water is available to distribute them throughout the body. |
What effect does increased percentage of body fat have on lipid-soluble drugs in geriatric patients? | Drugs are diverted from the kidney and liver, slowing elimination of the drug from the body and causing the drug to have a longer half-life and possibly greater toxicity. |
What term refers to persons over the age of 65? | Geriatric |
The frequent occurrence of ________ in the elderly can affect metabolism and excretion. | kidney and liver disease |
In an elderly person, the dosage amount taken by a younger adult can produce: | A greater pharmacological effect. |
Which of the following pharmacokinetic components is NOT among those meaningfully affected by age? | Excretion |
Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that geriatric patients might have inadequate nutrition? | Increased appetite |
Proper nutrition is important to liver function and the ability to ________ drugs. | metabolize |
What decreases in the body if protein intake is insufficient, allowing more unbound drug to remain in the patient's system? | Plasma protein |
The deposit of uric acid in the joint synovial fluid of the big toes, knees, elbows and soft tissue causes: | Gout. |
________ is an inflammation of the bladder caused in most cases by E. coli and staphylococcus. | Cystitis |
________ is an inflammation of the kidney and upper urinary tract that is usually caused by a bacterial infection of the bladder. | Pyelonephritis |
________ can be used to manage UTI symptoms of burning and itching urethras. | Phenazopyridine |
________ is pus or bacteria in the urine. | Pyuria |
________ is urine in the blood. | Uremia |
This drug is used only during the first 48 hours of an acute gout attack: | Colchicine |
Gout is caused by an excess of ________ in the body. | uric acid |
________ is used as prophylactic therapy for gout, as it increases the excretion of uric acid. | Probenecid |
Indocin® (indomethacin) is prescribed for: | Acute or chronic gout. |
Which type of gout treatment decreases the production of uric acid in the blood? | Hypouricemic agents |
When using the alligation grid, what goes in the center box? | The desired strength |
Where on the alligation grid do we find the number of parts per ingredient? | Right-hand side |
What kinds of numbers can be used within an alligation grid? | Positive numbers only |
To use an alligation grid to prepare 120g of hydrocortisone using a 1% ointment and 2.5% ointment, what information is still required? | Desired strength |
You need to prepare a 7.5% Dextrose solution using SWFI and D10W. What information do you still need to fill in the alligation grid? | Desired quantity |
When alligating, the strength of the final product: | Falls between the strengths of each original product. |
The two products used in alligating are called the: | Constituents. |
A simple way to remember how to make an alligation grid is to remember that it looks like the game: | Tic-tac-toe. |
The digestive system extends from the mouth to the: | Anus. |
Rings of smooth muscle help to produce a wave of synchronized contractions called: | Peristalsis. |
Which of the following is NOT included among the six main parts or organs of the digestive system? | Teeth |
All of the following are among the six accessory organs of the digestive system EXCEPT the: | Pharynx. |
Which of the following is not one of the parts of the stomach? | Chyme |
Which of the following is not part of the small intestine? | Cecum |
In which part of the small intestine is approximately 80% of the food chemically digested? | Duodenum |
The ________ cells make and secrete hydrochloric acid in the stomach. | parietal |
Which digestive organ makes and secretes bile? | Liver |
All of the following are considered part of the large intestine EXCEPT the: | Ileum. |
Emesis is commonly known as: | Vomiting |
A sore on the inside wall of the stomach or intestine is called: | An ulcer. |
NSAIDs work by blocking the effect of the enzyme: | Cyclooxygenase. |
All of the following are factors that can cause ulcers EXCEPT: | Antibiotics. |
Proton pump inhibitors block the ________ that turns on the H+ -ATPase system, causing a reduction in hydrochloric acid production. | enzyme |
Which type of laxative causes colon fluid retention, increasing peristalsis? | Hyperosmotics |
Which type of laxative works by stopping the colon from absorbing fecal water, softening the stool? | Emollients |
The nutrient value that prevents deficiencies in 98% of the population is the: | Recommended dietary allowance. |
The nutrient value that is estimated to meet the needs of 50% of the population is the: | Estimated average requirement. |
All of the following are considered macronutrients EXCEPT: | Water. |
What is the unit of measure used when referring to the energy needed to digest and utilize food? | Kilocalorie |
The ADMR for carbohydrates is ________ of daily caloric intake | 45% to 65% |
The ADMR for fats is ________ of daily caloric intake. | 20% to 35% |
The ADMR for protein is ________ of daily caloric intake. | 10% to 35% |
Carbohydrates' main function in the body is to: | Provide energy. |
Lipids' main function in the body is to: | Insulate and protect organs. |
What percentage of the body is composed of water? | 60% |
How many different minerals are essential for nutrition? | 21 |
Which of the following minerals is needed to build bones and teeth? | Phosphorus |
Which of the following minerals helps maintain proper muscle memory function? | Potassium |
Vitamin B12 is also known as: | Cyanocobalamin. |
Antihistamines treat nausea and vomiting by: | Competitive inhibition or by blocking H1 receptor sites. |
Peptic ulcers can be caused by extended NSAID use because NSAIDs block ________, reducing prostaglandin production. | all COX enzymes |
Helicobacter pylori is a ________ that causes approximately 90% of duodenal ulcers and 80% of gastric ulcers. | bacteriumbacterium |