CBRN Practice 5
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| When you are developing your installation’s Comprehensive Emergency Management Plan 10–2, which Air Force instruction do you refer to for guidance on format and content? | AFI 10–2501
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| Which installation plan is AFI 10–2604, Disease Containment Planning Guidance, associated with? | Disease Containment Plan
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| After the EMWG has completed an annual chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear and high-explosive vulnerability assessment, how many days does the working group have to present a vulnerability mitigation plan to the installation commander? | 90
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| Which Air Force Tactics, Techniques, and Procedure provides detailed information on conducting a nuclear, biological, and chemical vulnerability assessment? | 3–2.54
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| Of the possible threat weapon systems, what is the approximate fragmentation distance of a 120mm mortar? | 431 feet
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| If your installation was attacked by five missiles with a circular error of probability of 1250 meters, how many will likely impact your installation? | 3
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| Chemical contamination avoidance is defined as | taking actions to avoid or reduce the effects of a CBRN attack and to minimize the effects of CBRN contamination hazards
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| When you identify chemical, biological, radiological and nuclear zones for your installation, what should you try to make them compatible with? | Base defense sectors
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| Which agency provides unit control centers with installation hazard locations and the installation commanders decision on MOPP levels in each chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear zone? | Emergency operations center.
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| When the medical community assesses trends in medical symptoms among personnel or makes an index case diagnosis, which trigger event has occurred? | Sentinel
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| Which item best describes one of the catalysts for fulfilling the primary objective of an Emergency Management program? | An effective command and control system
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| Which of the following is not one of the five functions performed within the command and control process? | Establishing communication
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| What documents do Air Force units use to reduce support and transportation requirements when overseas? | Host-nation support agreements
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| What do unit commanders use, during contingency operations, to manage items such as unit resources and passive defense measures? | Unit control centers
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| The primary mission of the emergency operations center is to monitor and direct | pre-attack and trans-attack survival actions and post-attack recovery operations
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| The upward flow of attack information within the installation command and control structure is from the | individual, through the unit control center to the emergency operations center.
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| Which is not one of the seven major requirements of the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear control center? | Defending
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| After an attack against your installation involving chemical warfare agents, the CBRN control center provides advice to the EOC director pertaining to hazards persistency. What type of CBRN control center responsibility does this action best represent? | Internal
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| Which is not a category of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC) warning and reporting organization? | NBC reconnaissance center
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| What is the general rule for establishing the distance of the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear control center area of observation? | 50 kilometers
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| You are working in the CBRN control center at your base. The enemy attacks your base with chem warfare agents. The hazards may affect the community. Which person or position within the CBRN control center notifies the community of the approaching hazards? | Recorder
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| What does the line item “Fox-trot” mean associated with nuclear, biological, and chemical reports? | Location of attack
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| What does the line item “Golf” mean associated with nuclear, biological, and chemical reports? | Delivery and quantity
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| What does the line item “Zulu” mean associated with nuclear, biological, and chemical reports? | The actual weather conditions
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| You are deployed in the role of a CBRN. The enemy attacks your base & you were the first to observe enemy use of a chemical warfare agent. You call the CBRN control center and report your findings. What type of NBC report does your action represent? | NBC 1
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| You're deployed on a CBRNE team. Chem agents aren't used. There's an attacks. Several CBRN recon teams evaluated, consolidated information and reported a positive indication that the enemy used a chem warfare agent. What NBC report must the base create? | NBC 2
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| Which defense condition indicates normal day-to-day operations? | 5
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| Which defense condition indicates war? | 1
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| Which air defense warning indicates attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles is not probable? | White
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| Which air defense warning indicates attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles is probable? | Yellow
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| Which air defense warning indicates that attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles is imminent or in progress? | Red
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| What terrorist force protection condition applies when an incident occurs or intelligence has received information that some form of terrorist action against personnel and facilities is imminent? | CHARLIE
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| What is alarm condition “yellow” associated with according to the United States Air Force standardized alarm signals for areas subject to nuclear biological, chemical, and conventional attack? | Attack is probable
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| You are deployed to an area that is using the AF alarm signals for CBRN attacks. Intelligence information indicates the enemy could attack with no warning. What mission oriented protective posture (MOPP) do personnel assume upon hearing alarm “yellow”? | MOPP level 2 unless otherwise directed
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| Prior to deploying, you find out the location you are deploying to does not use the United States Air Force standardized alarm signals for areas subject to nuclear biological, chemical, and conventional attack. What best describes the action you take? | Establish an information program that disseminates the deployed location’s warning system prior to deployment and as personnel arrive at the deployed location
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| Which of the following is not a test method you use to evaluate a local alerting system? | User friendly
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| Who directs changes in mission oriented protection posture levels and variations? | Senior Air Force commander
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| When individual protective equipment is issued to personnel, prepared for use, and kept readily available, the installation is operating under mission oriented protective postures level | 0
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| When the overgarment and field gear are worn, the installation is operating under mission oriented protective postures level | 1
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| When all individual protective equipment items are worn, the installation is operating under mission oriented protective postures level | 4
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| Which of the following is not a mission oriented protection postures option? | Hood-only
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| What is the most critical function of sound post attack mission oriented protective posture analysis? | Gathering post attack information
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| The four traditional types of attack made using conventional and other weapons are | air, ground, rocket or mortar, and artillery
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| Which type of attack delivers hostile action or the threat of hostilities against US installations, areas, or personnel? | Air
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| Which type of attack includes the enemy’s use of motorized rifle units to inflict damage on sortie generation or support operations? | Ground
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| Which type of attack includes a self-propelled bomb? | Rocket or mortar
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| Which type of attack includes weapons that contribute firepower? | Artillery
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| A chemical compound or mechanical mixture that, when ignited by a flame, spark, or blow, undergoes a sudden chemical change known as | an explosive
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| What is the term used to describe the chemical change that results when an explosive is ignited? | Decomposition
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| What effect is produced when an explosive converts from a solid or liquid into a much larger amount of gas? | Great pressure.
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| High explosives detonate at a rate of | 3,200 to 28,000 feet per second
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| The two prime killing mechanisms of high explosive bombs are | blast and fragmentation
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| In foreign areas, who is responsible for protecting or evacuating all American citizens, both military and civilian? | The Department of State
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| Which action does the commander take during pre-attack? | Shelters people who are not performing mission-essential tasks
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| When the attack warning signal is given, what action should personnel in the area take? | Take the best available cover in the immediate area and don required individual protective equipment
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| Which agency directs post-attack damage and hazard assessment? | The emergency operations center
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| Which term defines moving assets to alternate locations for a short time in order to protect the assets from attack? | Dispersal
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| What issues may increase when you disperse aircraft during an attack? | Problems in communication
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| Which term defines protecting assets by strengthening the building or equipment against attack? | Hardening
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| Hardening is also called | defensive construction
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| Splinter protection provides limited protection to facilities and equipment from | weapons and small arms fire
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| The two tiers of expedient hardening planning are long-range planning and | priorities and work schedules
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| How many Air Force chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-explosive response phases are there? | 3
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| During which chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-explosive response phase would a downwind hazard analysis be conducted? | Advanced
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| During which chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-explosive response phase would hazard areas be identified so personnel could avoid them? | Mission continuation
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| Which emergency support function controls the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear control center? | 5
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| To whom is the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear control center subordinate? | Emergency operations center director
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| What is the minimum number of personnel assigned to a post-attack reconnaissance team? | 2
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| During which phased release, after an attack, would chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear reconnaissance teams be released to run their routes? | Initial
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| During which phased release, after an attack, would post-attack reconnaissance teams be released to run their routes? | Limited
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| During which phased release after an attack would mission essential personnel be allowed to accomplish assigned duties? | General
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| How many levels of decontamination are there? | 4
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| How many steps are required to accomplish technical decontamination? | 9
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| How many on-base contamination control area sites need to be identified for every 0.5 x 2 miles of land mass? | 4
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| How many off-base contamination control area sites need to be identified for contingency/emergency operations? | 2
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| How many personnel should a trained, six-person contamination control area team be able to process in one hour? | 80
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| How many decontamination packets make up a full M291 kit? | 6
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| How many packets make up a full M295 decontamination kit? | 4
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| What is the maximum amount of time you should spend decontaminating your face using the M291 kit? | 3 minutes
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| In an attempt to extend the wear time of the chemical protective overgarment, you should use the M291/M295 kit on your overgarment within how many minutes of a chemical agent contamination? | 15 minutes
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| How many M295 decontamination mitts are normally used for a complete decontamination operation? | 2
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| What options are available to dispose of contaminated waste during contingency operations? | Open storage, burning, and burying
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| You’re at the CBRN control center and learn that a contaminated aircraft is landing. You contact the CBRN recon team. The team reports that levels are more than 50 mg/m2. What would you provide the EOC director on MOPP level requirements for personnel? | That personnel remain in MOPP Level 4 within 500 feet during the first three hours
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| Within how many minutes, after notification during duty-hours, must emergency management personnel be able to conduct emergency operation center operations at an existing installation (Types 1A, 1B, 2A, 2B, and 3A)? | 30
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| You’ve just deployed to an airbase in Southwest Asia. How many hours after arriving do you have to establish an installation Joint Warning and Reporting Network? | 12
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| How often are readiness and emergency management flights, at an expeditionary installation, required to exercise their responder staging area survey capability? | Every 6 months
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| How often are readiness and emergency management flights, at an expeditionary installation, required to exercise their downwind hazard analysis capability? | Every 2 months
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| How often are readiness and emergency management flights, at an existing installation, required to exercise their ground survey capability? | Every 12 months
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| How frequently are readiness and emergency management flights, at an existing installation, required to exercise their site and facility survey capability? | Every 6 months
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| Which active chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear response capability requires an initial monitoring team to establish a two line detection array? | Downwind hazard analysis
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| During expeditionary operations, how many hours, after arrival, does a readiness and emergency management flight have to create a threat detection grid plan? | 48
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| Which 4F9W*-series equipment unit type code provides a full threat detection grid capability? | 4F9WN
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| Which 4F9W*-series equipment unit type code provides a deployed active chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear response capability? | 4F9WL
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| Which 4F9W*-series equipment unit type code provides a home station active chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear response capability? | 4F9WM
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| Which 4F9W*-series personnel unit type code provides an installation chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear and emergency management support team capability? | 4F9WD
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| Which Department of Defense area does active chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear response capabilities occur? | Sense
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