Exposures Tests Fill In The Blanks

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Question: The acronym PACS stands for _______ system.Answer: Picture and communication

Question: A PACS consists of the following: 1. Storage Device 2. Display . imaging modalityAnswer: 1,2 and

Question: A universally accepted standard for exchanging medical imaging via a networked set of display workstations, archive and imaging modalities is_______.Answer:

Question: Reading images on a computer scree is known as _______ reporting. Answer: Soft

Question: Any computer that a health care worker uses to view a digital image is a(n) _________. Answer:

Question: Which part of the PACS houses all of the historic digital image data along with the current data being generated by the modalitites?Answer:

Question: The acronym RIS stands for _______ system.Answer: Information.

Question: Which of the following are considered PACS architectures? 1. Distributed system 2. Client/ server-based . Web-based systemAnswer: 1,2 and

Question: In which system architecture do the and application software reside on a central server? Answer: Web-based

Question: What term is used to describe the reading of outside of the hospital walls, generally at home or in remote locations?Answer: Teleradiology

Question: is he most interactive part of a PACS?Answer: Display

Question: The number of pixels contained on a display is determines the _________. Answer:

Question: Which workstation is used to review after acquisition but before being sent off for reporting?Answer: Technologist QC

Question: Which of the following would be considered categories of workstation functions? 1. Navigation functions 2. Image manipulation and enhancement functions 3. management functionsAnswer: 1,2 and

Question: Which function determines how images are on the monitor(s)?Answer: protocol

Question: Digital annotations may be used to indicate the or left side of the patient. T/FAnswer:

Question: Which increases the size of an area on the image?Answer: Pan/Zoom

Question: patient demographic information is not a big deal in a PACS. T/FAnswer: False

Question: Which advanced function allow the used to put multiple images together into one single image, such as series?Answer: Stitching

Question: The place where records or documents are preserved for historic purposes is the _______. Answer:

Question: Which of the following are true the image manager? 1. Contains the master database of all on the archive 2. Controls the receipt of all images 3. Stores images in its database 2. Answer: 1 and

Question: What term is used to describe a database that is tow identical databases simultaneously?Answer: Mirrored

Question: Which PACS component interfaces with the information system and hospital information system?Answer: manager

Question: Which of the following information might be found in the DICOM header of an image? 1. Patient Name 2. Lab Results 3. PhysicianAnswer: 1 and

Question: The acronym for RAID is redundant ________. Answer: Array of inexpensive . and Array of independent disks.

Question: Which term is used to describe when data are broken up into and each disk receives a "piece" of the data?Answer:

Question: Striping of data decreases the reliability and of the archive. T/FAnswer: False

Question: Which of the following are commonly used as long-term storage for DICOM images? 1. Linear tape 2. Optical disks 3. FilmAnswer: 1 and

Question: The greatest of using tape as a long-term archive solution is its unreliability over multiple uses throughout the years. T/FAnswer: True

Question: What term describes a company that provides outsourcing of and management functions for a pay-per-use charge?Answer: Application provider

Question: which term describes the act of keeping a complete copy of the archive in another location?Answer: Recovery

Question: Which device scans an analog film and produces numeric signals based on the of the the film?Answer: Film

Question: Any supplemental device connected to a PACS that performs a specific function is known as a(n)_______.Answer:

Question: Film Digitizers use of the following technologies to acquire digital images? 1. TFT 2. CCD 3. LaserAnswer: 2 and

Question: Which film digitizer uses fluorescent bulbs to aid in converting the analog film into a digital image? 1. Laser film digitizer 2. CCD film digitizer 3. TFT film digitizerAnswer: 2 only

Question: Wet Imagers use chemicals to the films. T/FAnswer: True

Question: What do dry imagers use to develop the on the film?Answer:

Question: Dry imager film is more sensitive to what in comparison to conventional film? 1. . Cold 3. HumidityAnswer: 1 and

Question: Which of the following are common uses of imagers? 1. Backup 2. Legal Cases 3. of physiciansAnswer: 1,2 and

Question: Other than printing films, another alternative would be to ___________. Answer: Burn images to an disk

Question: Radioactive materials that are introduced into the body and concentrate in organs are termed:Answer: tracers

Question: The radioactive materials in question 1 are introduced into the body:Answer: via inhalation, , via injection

Question: One of the most common materials used in nuclear medicine procedures is:Answer: 99m

Question: a of the skeletal system using radioactive materials is termed:Answer: bone

Question: Nuclear medicine may be used in the of Alzheimer's disease. T/FAnswer:

Question: A congenital defect of the wall of the ileum commonly assessed with nuclear is termed: Answer: Meckel's

Question: What radiopharmaceuticals is used for uptake studies?Answer: iodide ( iodine 131)

Question: Which member of the medicine health team administers the radionuclide to the patient?Answer: Nuclear physician

Question: Ionizing radiation with characteristics of an but emitted from the nucleus of a radioactive atom is identified as a(n)?Answer: beta

Question: The spontaneous transformation of a radionuclide resulting in decrease of the number of radioactive events in a sample is the for:Answer: Decay

Question: PET is an for:Answer: emission tomography

Question: In many cases, PET can abnormal function before the onset of physical symptoms. T/FAnswer: True

Question: What is the of a positron and electron combining the undergoing annihilation during the PET imaging process?Answer: Two 511 kEv photons are

Question: What PET tracer compound is used to measure glucose metabolism tissues?Answer: 18F-FDG

Question: What is the name of the required to produce positron-emitting elements?Answer: Cyclotron

Question: Most PET have a half-life of:Answer: 120 to 110 minutes

Question: Regions of metastatic disease in the body have a(n) ______ uptake of 18F-FDG.Answer:

Question: Which PET tracer is given to determine whether areas of the hear are receiving sufficient blood flow (perfusion)?Answer: 13N-ammonia

Question: The of combining PET and CT data sets into a hybrid image is the definition for:Answer: co-registraion

Question: Glucose metabolism in the brain naturally increases as an individual older. T/FAnswer:

Question: Another term for an type of radiation therapy is:Answer:

Question: Which of the following are considered types of teletherapy? X-ray, Linear , Cobalt 60Answer: All of the

Question: Cobalt 60 units emit gamma rays at the intensity of ______ MeV. Answer: 1.25

Question: Which of the following is most effective in the treatment of deep-seated, tissue?Answer: 60

Question: Which member of the oncology team prescribes the treatment plan?Answer: oncologist

Question: Which member of the radiation oncology team outlines a plan to the desired dosage to the treatment area?Answer: dosimetrist

Question: medical ultrasound uses high frequency sound waves in the of:Answer: 1-17MHz

Question: Which type of ultrasound unit is used to examine the structure and behavior of flowing ?Answer: Doppler

Question: What is the name of the principle that is applied when the transducer produces a sound wave?Answer: Piezoelectric

Question: A transducer serves as both a and receiver of echo waves. T/FAnswer: true

Question: According to current research, there are moderate adverse effects associated with the use of medical ultrasound. T/FAnswer:

Question: A ultrasound scan produces a sagittal perspective. T/fAnswer: True

Question: Which of the following types of is not well demonstrated with ultrasound:Answer: Bowel obstruction in

Question: During an ultrasound procedure, gel is applied to the skin to prevent loss of between transducer and skin, which would result in poor image. t/F Answer:

Question: What is the name of the ultrasound in which amniotic fluid is withdrawn from the uterus for analysis?Answer: amniocentesis

Question: A sonographer is to provide initial interpretation of the ultrasound images. T/FAnswer: True

Question: MRI a better functional assessment of joints compared with musculoskeletal ultrasound. T/FAnswer: False

Question: Doppler ultrasound is conventional venography of the lower limbs. T/FAnswer: True

Question: Ultrasound of the eye may be to assess for:Answer: detachment

Question: MRI uses a low-energy form of radiation. T/FAnswer:

Question: MRI can produce axiall, sagittal, and coronal perspectives of the . T/fAnswer: True

Question: With modern MRI the re-emitted wave signals form the patient are captured by:Answer: receiver or

Question: of the following nuclei found in the body is most often used in MRI?Answer: Hydrogen

Question: The rate of precession decreases as the strength of the field increases. T/FAnswer:

Question: the longer the radio wave is applied to the , the greater the angle of precession. T/FAnswer: True

Question: Matching o the frequency of a precessing nucleus with a wave frequency is termed:Answer:

Question: Longitudinal or spin lattice relaxation when spins begin to precess at angles is termed:Answer:

Question: Transverse of spin-spin relaxation when spins begin to precess out of with each other is termed:Answer:

Question: the quantity of hydrogen protons structures being imaged by MRI has no effect on MRI contrast. T/FAnswer: false

Question: what is another term for spin ?Answer: density

Question: all high density or thick structure appear light on MR . T/FAnswer:

Question: one equals:Answer: 10,000

Question: Which of the following statements is true in CT with MRI?Answer: CT is better in gastrointestinal diseases.

Question: Patients with cardiac pacemakers must not be allowed within the ________ gauss line. Answer:

Question: Oxygen tanks and wheelchairs must not be allowed within the _______ gauss line. Answer:

Question: What device is to torquing within the magnetic field?Answer: Ferromagnetic aneurysm

Question: What occupational workers must have conventional radiographic of the orbits before an MRI head scan?Answer: Machinist

Question: Patient restraints should be used with claustrophobic to prevent movement during an MRI exam.t/fAnswer:

Question: The loud "knocking" heard during an MRI study is due to the coils. t/fAnswer: True

Question: Pregnancy is considered an absolute contraindication for an MRI . T/FAnswer: False

Question: ON a T1- weighted image, fat appears as a _____ signal. Answer:

Question: On a T2- weighted image, white brain matter appears as a ______ signal. Answer: Dark

Question: CSF will appear as a signal on T1-weighted images. T/FAnswer: false

Question: What technique can help cardiac motion artifacts?Answer: Gating

Question: CT is recommended over MRI in the evaluation of sever spinal .. T/fAnswer: true

Question: MRI is recommended for diagnosing_______ of the hip. Answer:

Question: Functional MRI is on the :Answer: Increase in blood flow to the local vasculature that neural activity in the brain

Question: Activity in the brain during a functional MRI procedure is gauged by the:Answer: oxygen level dependent (bold) signal

Question: Who is credited with the of the fluoroscope?Answer: Edison

Question: What mA does the X-ray tube operate in during fluorscopic mode?Answer: 0.5-5.0

Question: To see the best detail, humans must use _______ vision.Answer:

Question: Maximum radiation intensity can be no more than_________ R/minute at the table top during fluoroscopy.Answer:

Question: Minimum source to table top distance for a fixed fluorscopic unit is _____ inches. Answer:

Question: What is the minification gain of an intensifier that has an input phosphor of 12 inches diameter, and an phosphor of 1 inch diameter?Answer:

Question: What is the gain of an intensifier that has a flux gain of 200 and a minification gain of 30?Answer:

Question: What is the flux gain of an intensififer that has a brightness gain of 1440 and a of 36? Answer:

Question: A method that brightness is automatically in the image intensifier includes:Answer: the current flow between the photocathode and the anode of the intensifier tube.

Question: Contrast during fluoroscopy is ____ over that of film radiography of the same structures. Answer:

Question: Modern image intensifiers are capable of resolution of _____ line pairs per mm (non-mag mode)Answer:

Question: During magnification mode in a dual image intensifier, resolution of the image:Answer: increases

Question: quantum mottle in systems is affected by:Answer: Eye integration time, video noise, the minimum number of remnant photons reaching the phosphor

Question: phosphor:Answer: emits light when struck by remnant X-rays, made of iodide

Question: lenses:Answer: focuses electrons in straight lines to e back of tube, the magnification capability of the image intensifier( changes the electron's focal point)

Question: phosphor:Answer: produces light after interaction with electrons, made of zinc cadmium sulfide

Question: Photocathode:Answer: made of cesium and/or antimony compounds that give off electrons when by light

Question: 105 mm spot Answer: 3rd best

Question: (non-intensified) fluroscopyAnswer: best

Question: fluroscopyAnswer: 2nd best

Question: fluroscopyAnswer: resolution

Question: name the type of solid state TV .Answer: CCD (Charge device)

Question: Two fields of 262.5 lines, when combining by mixing lines 1,3,5,... with 2,4,6... is referred to as :Answer: interlacing

Question: Potentially, more exposure to the technologist will take place with what type of radiographic spot film loading?Answer: Back

Question: Where is the worst place to stand during a fluoroscopic ?Answer: at the top or of the table

Question: What is the minimum in Pb/eq for aprons ad gloves as mentioned in the text?Answer: 0.25

Question: What is with portable fluoroscopic units ("c-arms) to produce static images?Answer: recorders

Question: The frequency with which breast cancer in American women is:Answer: one in

Question: The chance of breast cancer occurring in men is about ____ of that for women. Answer: 1%

Question: The American College of Radiology (ACS) recommends that older than the age of 40 years should have a screening mammogram every:Answer:

Question: The United States Mammography Quality Standards Act (MQSA) of 1994 that:Answer: all sites(except VA ) meet quality standards and be certified by the DHHS

Question: What is term for the tail of the breast?Answer: prolongation

Question: The 2 o'clock position in the left breast corresponds to the __________ position in the right breast. Answer: 10 o'clock

Question: The amount of glandular from one female to another is fairly consistent. T/FAnswer:

Question: Another term for the 's ligament is the suspensory ligament. T/FAnswer: True

Question: In most breasts, the craniocaudal diameter is greater than the mediolateral . T/FAnswer:

Question: The glandular of the breast is divided into 15-20 :Answer: Lobes

Question: Blood , connective tissue, and other small structures seen on a mammogram are termed:Answer:

Question: Which of the following breast tissues is least dense? A.Glandular B. Adiopose C. . Connective Answer:

Question: What is the breast of a 45-year-old woman with three of more pregnancies?Answer: -fatty

Question: What is the breast of a 35-year-old woman without children?Answer:

Question: The portion of the the breast near the nipple is the:Answer: Apex

Question: Using the -heel effect the cathode of the x-ray tube should be placed over the:Answer:

Question: The anode-heel effect is less evident in mammography because of the anode configuration of the x-ray tube. T/FAnswer:

Question: Digital mammography in all likelihood will the method of choice for breast cancer screening exams because of its post-processing capability and other advantages. T/FAnswer:

Question: What is the factor with an SOD of 40"(100 cm) and an SID of 60" (150 cm)? Answer: 1.5x

Question: What is the ACR standard for maximum repeat exposures taken mammography?Answer: Less than 5%

Question: Which of the following modalities can best demonstrate a hematoma or a cyst in the breast?Answer: Ultrasound

Question: Which imaging modality is most for a breast with an implant?Answer: MRI

Question: Computed radiography has a operating costs over film-screen mammography imaging. T/FAnswer: True

Question: Which of the following is often used with mammoscintingraphy?Answer: -99m-sestamibi

Question: Sentinel node studies will asses the of breast cancer to the surrounding bones of the thorax. T/FAnswer: false

Question: Which one of the imaging modalities is best for detecting an intracapsular rupture of a breast implant?Answer:

Question: What would apply to the ACR abbreviation SIO?Answer: Superolateral- oblique

Question: Where should the image be placed for the craniocaudal projection?Answer: At the level of the inframammary

Question: What kV should be used for film-screen mammography?Answer: 25-28

Question: Where should hte marker and patient identification be in to the anatomy?Answer: near

Question: how is thee breast positioned for the medio-lateral oblique ?Answer: anterior and medial away from chest wall

Question: How much CR angulation is required for the medio-lateral oblique position of an -sized breast?Answer: 45

Question: How much CR is required for the medio-lateral oblique projection of a heavy and large-sized breast?Answer: 40-60

Question: The most common projections performed as routine or basic throughout the United State and Canada are:Answer: CC and

Question: Which projection best demonstrates inflammation or pathology in the deep lateral aspect of ?Answer: -lateral oblique

Question: What is the average, mean dose for most film-screen breast projections? Answer: 100-150mrad

Question: Why can't AEC be used for of a breast with an implant?Answer: The image will be

Question: How should a breast implant be moved for a -caudal projection?Answer: It is displaced posteriorly the chest wall

Question: What CR angle ( in to the IR) is required for the mediolateral (true lateral) projection?Answer: 90

Question: Fibrocystic is considered to be a benign condition. T/FAnswer:

Question: Firm compression not be used on a breast with an implant. T/FAnswer: True

Question: The most type of breast cancer is:Answer: ductal carcinoma

Question: A small growth inside the duct of the near the nipple is termed the:Answer: -ductal papilloma

Question: Noninvasive cancers (DCIS and LCIS) comprise approximately ____% of al lbreast cancer diagnosis. Answer: 15%-20%

Question: Fibrocystic :Answer: High multiple benign-type cysts throughout the breasts

Question: :Answer: benign tumor having smooth, well-defined margins

Question: carcinoma:Answer: Breast lesion with calcifications with irregular margins.

Question: Cysts:Answer: Masses within breasts of similar or only slightly higher density than surrounding .

Question: For a film , monitoring should occur:Answer: Same time day

Question: JCAHO approval is linked to ________ reimbursement. Answer: , State, insurance company

Question: Which monitoring tests should be done on a basis?Answer: sensitometry

Question: Test tools for focal spot size estimation include each of the except a: A. Pinhole B. Star test pattern C. line pair resolution D. Motorized synchronous topAnswer: D. Motorized synchronous

Question: Focal spots measuring 0.3 mm or less should be with a:Answer: Star test

Question: Which type of equipment is used to measure half-value layers? A. Sensitometer B. Aluminum Filters C. Dosimetry equipment D. More than one of the Answer: D. more than one of the

Question: When testing collimator accuracy, an SID error of _______ is allowed. Answer: 2%

Question: The centering mark should be within ______ of the light field central ray. Answer: 1%

Question: Distance indicators are with aAnswer: Tape

Question: A generator must be recalibrated when the kVp drifts beyond ________kVp of the labeled setting. Answer:

Question: The accuracy of single-phase time setting can be measured with a:Answer: Spinning top

Question: The accuracy of a 3-phase generator time can be measured with a Answer: motorized synchronous spinning top

Question: Exposure time settings should be maintained within _______ of the labeled setting. Answer: +/-5%

Question: Most AECs utilize ______ ion chambers in various combinations. Answer:

Question: The test that best determines film screen contact is the. Answer: Wire

Question: If a department took 17,960 , with 898 of those films being repeats, what is the repeat rate for the department?Answer: 5%

Question: The people on a imaging QC team include: A. Staff Radiographer B. Radiology administrators C. The radiologists D. All of the aboveAnswer: D. All of the

Question: Quality control is the aspect of quality assurance that monitors technical to maintain quality. T/FAnswer:

Question: Kilovoltage settings stable over time. T/FAnswer: False

Question: time settings remain stable over time. T/FAnswer: false

Question: Quality (QA):Answer: A plan for the observation and assessment of the different aspects of a project, service or facility.

Question: Acceptance:Answer: The type of done before using a new piece of equipment.

Question: Which of the following is not a step of daily monitor QC? a. Make sure that the monitor is dust-free. B. Retrieve a monitor test pattern. C. allow the monitor to warm up for 30 . Do not document the retrieval time for the test pattern.Answer: D. Do not document the time for the test pattern.

Question: Which of the following are quality assurance in the Radiology department? A. Monitoring patient wait times after the patient has been checked in. B. Daily monitor testing C. processor speed testing D. all of the aboveAnswer: A. Monitoring patient wait after the patient has been checked in.

Question: Why is it important to a repeat analysis database?Answer: Identify trends in exposure errors, detection of poor AEC , Identification of chronic positioning errors by a technologist

Question: The person who is the first line of in recognizing QC issues is:Answer: Technologist

Question: Which one is not responsibility of the radiation ? A. Repeat rate analysis B. Exposure Trends C. Spatial frequency response testing D. QC record ReviewAnswer: Spatial response testing

Question: Why is it important to know how occur?Answer: of quality trends, reporting small artifacts to avoid long term problems

Question: Which of the following are performed by a service technician? A. Reader erasure functions B. Verify digital interfaces C. accuracy testing D. All of the aboveAnswer: D. All of the .

Question: Why are CT not as commonly performed for long bone measurement as compared with orthorentgenography?Answer: The cost and the equipment required

Question: A limb-shortening surgical procedure is :Answer:

Question: What is the name of the metal ruler used in orthorentgenography?Answer: Bell-Thompson

Question: Which one of the following is critical when performing orthorentgenography? A. Patient does not move between exposures B. The use of short exposure time techniques C. a long SID must be used for less beam divergenceAnswer: Patient does not move exposures

Question: Long bone of the lower limb require that the entire lower limb be included on the radiograph. T/FAnswer:

Question: Gonadal shielding can not be used for long bone of the lower limb. T/FAnswer:

Question: What is true for an arthrogram of a knee?Answer: the physician injects local anesthetic using a 10cc syringe with a 21 or 25 needle

Question: What imaging modality is frequently used to study the soft-tissue structures of the knee?Answer: MRI

Question: Which one of the instruments is not used during a knee arthrogram? A. Razor B. 10cc syringe C. 20 gauge needle D. arthroscopeAnswer: D. Arthroscope

Question: Why is the exercised following injection of contrast media prior to filming during and arthrogram?Answer: Coat the soft structures with contrast media

Question: Why is the knee flexed laterally and medially during fluoroscopy spot filming or cross radiography in knee arthrography?Answer: to open the

Question: which of the following is not an indication for knee arthrography? A. or tears to the rotator cuff B. to evaluate for Baker's cyst C. injury or tears to collateral or cruciate ligaments D. Injury or tears to menisciAnswer: A. injury or tears to the cuff

Question: Which one of the following projections would not be commonly performed during a shoulder arthogram? A. AP /internal rotations projections B. scapular Y projection C. Glenoid Fossa projection D. transaxillary Answer: B. Y projection

Question: Where is the contrast media instilled a myelogram?Answer: Subarachonoid

Question: What is the most common clinical indication for a ?Answer:

Question: Myelography is contraindicated if a lumbar puncture has been performed within the previous:Answer: 2

Question: Which of the following is contraindication for myelogrpahy? A. Archnoditis B. blood in CSF C. Increased intracranial pressure D. All of the aboveAnswer: D. all of the

Question: What is the most injection site for a myelogram?Answer: L3-4

Question: Why is positioning block placed under the abdomen for the puncture during a myelogram?Answer: to widen the interspinous

Question: How is -soluble contrast media eliminated following a myelogram?Answer: It is excreted by the

Question: What is the most common type of media given during a myelogram?Answer: nonionic, water iodine

Question: Why is the supine AP projection rarely taken during a spine myelogram?Answer: media tends to pool near the mid-thoracic region

Question: Which of the following conventional routines is suggested by the author for cervical myelography fluroscopy and spot filming? 1. AP 2. cross table lateral 3. Swimmer's lateral(horizontal beam) 4. 45 degree obliqusAnswer: 2 and

Question: Which of the following is not a factor that controls or influences the amount of tomographic blurring? A. amplitude B. tube trajectory C. OID D. Exposure angleAnswer:

Question: The pivot point along the connecting rod the x-ray tube and film in a tomographic system is termed:Answer: Fulcrum

Question: The amount of speed of tube movement the tomographic process is termed:Answer:

Question: Objects the body that are farther from the focal plane will have:Answer: blurring

Question: The least of tomographic directional movements is:Answer: linear

Question: Objects within the objective plane will as:Answer: sharp and in

Question: Which one of the following exposure angles will produce the objective plane? A. 10 degrees B. 20 Degrees C. 30 degrees D. 40 degreesAnswer: D. 40

Question: In autotomography, the patient moves while the film and tube stationary. T/FAnswer: true

Question: Pantomogrpahy is ideal for tomography of the . T/FAnswer:

Question: of the following is not part of the rotator cuff? A. Suprasinatus B. infraspinatus C. Teres major D. subscapularisAnswer: C. major

Question: The , upper portion of the uterus is called the:Answer: Fundus

Question: The most indication for performing hysterosalpingography is?Answer: non-patent

Question: position is used for hysterosalpingography?Answer:

Question: The duct from the parotid gland is to as the:Answer: Stensen's

Question: The best for visualizing the sublingual gland would be what?Answer: inferiorsuperior

Question: What material locates a small, transparent lymph vessel in the foot for canulation?Answer: blue

Question: What is used for radiographic examination of the lymphatics?Answer: oil soluble iodine agent

Question: What is the main vessel called that drains the lower part of the body of and empties into the left subclavian vein?Answer: thoracic

Question: element of blood promotes blood clotting?Answer:

Question: Which of the following is not a function of the cardiovascular system? A. Producing red blood cells B. transporting oxygen, nutrients, and . removing waste products D. Maintaining body tempAnswer: A. red blood cells

Question: Which heart valve is located between the left atrium and the left ?Answer: mitral

Question: Which of the following vessels is not a major branch of the aortic arch? A. Right common carotid artery B. left carotid artery C. Brachiocephalic artery D. Left subclavian artery Answer: A> Right common carotid

Question: The S-shaped of the internal carotid artery is termed the:Answer: Carotid

Question: Eventually, the internal jugular vein connects with ____________ to form the brachiocephalic vein.Answer: Vein

Question: Where do the for the coronary arteries orginate?Answer: Ascending

Question: Which vein drains and receives from the intercostal, bronchial, esophageal and phrenic veins?Answer: vein

Question: The vein carries blood form the abdominal digestive track to the :Answer: liver

Question: Which vein is commonly used to draw form the arm?Answer: cubital

Question: Which is the longest vein in the body? A. Great saphenous vein B. vena cava C. Femoral vein D. popliteal vein Answer: A. saphenous vein

Question: Which vessel is the site for arterial puncture for most angiography?Answer: artery

Question: The medium of choice for angiography is:Answer: water-soluble iodniated

Question: Which of the following is not a contraindication for angiography? A. impaired renal . taking anticoagulant medication C. unstable cardiopulmonary status D. None of the above; all are contraindicationsAnswer: D. All of the ; all are contraindications

Question: What is the purpose of a heating device on an electromechanical ?Answer: To reduce the viscosity of the contrast media by it near body temperature

Question: Injection flow rate in is not affected by:Answer: body

Question: Which of the conditions contraindicates the use of a femoral approach during cerebral angiography?Answer: lack of pulsation in the femoral

Question: Which position is most in preventing super-imposition of the aortic arch and its branches with other structures during thoracic aortography?Answer:

Question: The most common reason or clinical indication for a billary drainage is:Answer: palliative for unresectable malignant disease

Question: artery embolization is commonly performed to :Answer: control life-threatening bleeding

Question: Embolization:Answer: blood flow to a site of pathology

Question: Thrombolysis:Answer: a wherein a clot or thrombus is disintegratd (lysed)

Question: transluminal angioplasty (PTA)Answer: Dilation of a stenosed vessel a balloon catheter

Question: Transjugular portosytemic shunt (TIPS)Answer: A procedure to treat bleeding caused by portal hypertension

Question: vena cava filter:Answer: A procedure for at high risk for developing pulmonary emboli

Question: Placement:Answer: of a cage like metal device in the lumen of a vessel to improve blood flow

Question: Percutaneous :Answer: A procedure for vertebral pain due to instability and compression fractures caused by osteoporosis and/or other reasons by injecting cement into the body

Question: biliary drainage:Answer: A procedure for billary stone removal, biopsy, dilation of obstructed bile duct, with or external drainage.

Question: Kyphoplasty:Answer: A procedure to stablize compression fractures caused by osteoporosis and/or other reasons by injecting cement into the vertebral body AFTER placing a balloon device into the body to expand it.

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