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MS 2

miscellaneous

QUESTIONANSWER
Place where the first successful heart transplant was held? Capetown, South Africa
Known as the father of surgery? Hippocrates
Place of 1st plastic surgery or nose lift? India
Crude surgery where the skull is opened to release spirits from the body? Preppanig
First practice of modern surgery in 1846 @Massachusetts General Hospital? Dr. William Morton
Founder of ORNAP? Conseula Arabit
PRE-OP PHASE, starts when? When surgical decision has been made
PRE-OP PHASE, ends when? When the patient is brought to the care of the OR Nurse
AORN chapter of the philippines? OR Nurses Association of the Philippines (ORNAP)
Determine the cause of symptom or origin of problem? Diagnostic
Resolve the health problem by removing the involved tissue? Curative
To correct deformity, repair injury, or improve functional status? Reconstructive
To relive symptoms without intent of cure? Palliative
To excise tissue that may contribute to the patient's existing medical condition? Ablative
For aesthetic purposes only? Cosmetic
Planned, non-essential surgical procedures? Elective Surgery
Unplanned surgical procedures and require timely interventions but do not pose an immediate threat to life but to well being only? Urgent Surgery
Must be performed immediately to preserve life and limb? Emergency
How do you assess a client who is undergoing a surgery? 1)Reason for hospitalization -chief complaint, so ask professionally 2)Previous surgeries 3)Blood type
PRE-OP, Anxiety n/i (1)? Allot time for verbalization of feelings & concerns
PRE-OP, Anxiety n/i (2)? Stay with the patient
PRE-OP, Client Teaching, must? 1)According to the level of pt. knowledge 2)Information must be Cephalo-Caudal 3)Information must be from Simple-Complex
PRE-OP, Client Teaching, how? Answer KISS & TELL 1)Answer – only what is being asked 2)Keep it short & simple 3)Tell – what is only beneficial to the pt.
Why is Health Teaching done in PRE-OP? 1)All anxiety or fear 2)Emphasize importance of DBE to prevent Atelectasis
Pooling of secretions in the lower airway because of inadequate ventilation and immobility? Hypostatic Phenumonia
Diaphragmatic Abdominal Breathing, correct? a)High Fowler's b)Semi-Fowler's b)Semi-Fowler's
Incentive spirometry, purpose? a)Facilitate gas exchange properly b)Promote maximal lung expansion b)Promote maximal lung expansion
Coughing exercises as PRE-OP teaching, C/I, correct? a)PTB pt b)Increased in ICP b)Increased in ICP
Coughing exercises as PRE-OP teaching, C/I, correct? a)Hypertensive pt. b)Increased IOP b)Increased in IOP – normal is 10-21 mmHg
PRE-OP client teaching, Nsg. Dx – Risk for ineffective tissue perfusion, goals? 1)Verbalize treatment regimen 2)Demonstrate performance of postoperative exercises
PRE-OP client teaching, Nsg. Dx – Risk for ineffective tissue perfusion, N/I? 1)Anti-embolism stockings 2)Compression devices 3)Leg exercises – dorsiflexion of the foot
What should be made sure the nurse before the administration of the PRE-OP medications? 1)Witnessed the consent signing – document it afterwards 2)Check for allergies
After giving PRE-OP medications, what should you be done? SAFETY – CALL LIGHT 1)Safety – side rails 2)Call light – ensure its function
When giving a Sedative/Anxiolytic medications, what should you avoid? 1)Rapid injection of the medication – it will lead to rapid decrease of BP leading to Shock to death 2)Monitor for hypotension
When giving an Opiate Agonists medications, what should you monitor closely? Respiratory depression – report STAT if 12 breaths/minute
What is the antidote for Opiate Agonists medications? NALOXONE (Narcan)
When giving an Anticholinergic medications, what should you monitor especially? VS – Respiratory Rate in particular for Tachycardia / Monitor for Urinary Retention – anticholinergics relaxes bladder walls as well
Midazolam, Diazepam, Lorazepam – what are these drugs? Sedatives / Anxiolytics – relaxes smooth & skeletal muscles
Morphine Sulfate, Fentanyl Citrate – what are these drugs? Opiate Agonists – centrally acting analgesic for pre-emptive & postoperative analgesia
Atropine Sulfate, Scopolamine, Hydrobromide, Hydroxyzine HCL – what are these drugs? Anticholinergics – decreases secretions in the airway as well as the bladder walls
Ranitidine is an H2-antagonist drug, why do you need to cautiously use this? Because it Hepatotoxic kind of drug, so cautiously use this on patients with Hepative or Renal Impairment
Why is DENTURES removed prior surgery? Anesthesia will relax all the muscles in our body – risk for swallowing or aspiration
Why is NAILPOLISH removed prior surgery? To check for Cyanosis, Capillary Refill – including transparent ones because it will interfere with the accurate reading
Why is JEWELRY removed prior surgery? Jewelries harbor bacteria – cover it with sterile plaster or globe the hands of the patient for an irremovable jewelries
How do you document jewelries? Objectively – yellow piece of jewelry & do not mention it as GOLD or SILVER
Why is UNDERWEAR removed prior surgery? They also harbor bacteria
Final preparations before surgery? 1)NPO 6-8 hours prior 2)Removal of dentures, nailpolish & jewelries 3)Bathe the patient 4)Gown the patient
Place where the first successful heart transplant was held? Capetown, South Africa
Known as the father of surgery? Hippocrates
Place of 1st plastic surgery or nose lift? India
Crude surgery where the skull is opened to release spirits from the body? Preppanig
First practice of modern surgery in 1846 @Massachusetts General Hospital? Dr. William Morton
Founder of ORNAP? Conseula Arabit
PRE-OP PHASE, start when? When surgical decision has been made
PRE-OP, ends when? When the patient is brought to the care of the OR Nurse
AORN chapter of the philippines? OR Nurses Association of the Philippines (ORNAP)
Determine the cause of symptom or origin of problem? Diagnostic
Resolve the health problem by removing the involved tissue? Curative
To correct deformity, repair injury, or improve functional status? Reconstructive
To relive symptoms without intent of cure? Palliative
To excise tissue that may contribute to the patient's existing medical condition? Ablative
For aesthetic purposes only? Cosmetic
Planned, non-essential surgical procedures? Elective Surgery
Unplanned surgical procedures and require timely interventions but do not pose an immediate threat to life but to well being only? Urgent Surgery
Must be performed immediately to preserve life and limb? Emergency
How do you assess a client who is undergoing a surgery? 1)Reason for hospitalization -chief complaint, so ask professionally 2)Previous surgeries 3)Blood type
PRE-OP, Anxiety n/i (1)? Allot time for verbalization of feelings & concerns
PRE-OP, Anxiety n/i (2)? Stay with the patient
PRE-OP, Client Teaching, must? 1)According to the level of pt. knowledge 2)Information must be Cephalo-Caudal 3)Information must be from Simple-Complex
PRE-OP, Client Teaching, how? Answer KISS & TELL 1)Answer – only what is being asked 2)Keep it short & simple 3)Tell – what is only beneficial to the pt.
Why is Health Teaching done in PRE-OP? 1)All anxiety or fear 2)Emphasize importance of DBE to prevent Atelectasis
Pooling of secretions in the lower airway because of inadequate ventilation and immobility? Hypostatic Phenumonia
Diaphragmatic Abdominal Breathing, correct? a)High Fowler's b)Semi-Fowler's b)Semi-Fowler's
Incentive spirometry, purpose? a)Facilitate gas exchange properly b)Promote maximal lung expansion b)Promote maximal lung expansion
Coughing exercises as PRE-OP teaching, C/I, correct? a)PTB pt b)Increased in ICP b)Increased in ICP
Coughing exercises as PRE-OP teaching, C/I, correct? a)Hypertensive pt. b)Increased IOP b)Increased in IOP – normal is 10-21 mmHg
PRE-OP client teaching, Nsg. Dx – Risk for ineffective tissue perfusion, goals? 1)Verbalize treatment regimen 2)Demonstrate performance of postoperative exercises
PRE-OP client teaching, Nsg. Dx – Risk for ineffective tissue perfusion, N/I? 1)Anti-embolism stockings 2)Compression devices 3)Leg exercises – dorsiflexion of the foot
What should be made sure the nurse before the administration of the PRE-OP medications? 1)Witnessed the consent signing – document it afterwards 2)Check for allergies
After giving PRE-OP medications, what should you be done? SAFETY – CALL LIGHT 1)Safety – side rails 2)Call light – ensure its function
When giving a Sedative/Anxiolytic medications, what should you avoid? 1)Rapid injection of the medication – it will lead to rapid decrease of BP leading to Shock to death 2)Monitor for hypotension
When giving an Opiate Agonists medications, what should you monitor closely? Respiratory depression – report STAT if 12 breaths/minute
What is the antidote for Opiate Agonists medications? NALOXONE (Narcan)
When giving an Anticholinergic medications, what should you monitor especially? VS – Respiratory Rate in particular for Tachycardia / Monitor for Urinary Retention – anticholinergics relaxes bladder walls as well
Midazolam, Diazepam, Lorazepam – what are these drugs? Sedatives / Anxiolytics – relaxes smooth & skeletal muscles
Morphine Sulfate, Fentanyl Citrate – what are these drugs? Opiate Agonists – centrally acting analgesic for pre-emptive & postoperative analgesia
Atropine Sulfate, Scopolamine, Hydrobromide, Hydroxyzine HCL – what are these drugs? Anticholinergics – decreases secretions in the airway as well as the bladder walls
Ranitidine is an H2-antagonist drug, why do you need to cautiously use this? Because it Hepatotoxic kind of drug, so cautiously use this on patients with Hepative or Renal Impairment
Why is DENTURES removed prior surgery? Anesthesia will relax all the muscles in our body – risk for swallowing or aspiration
Why is NAILPOLISH removed prior surgery? To check for Cyanosis, Capillary Refill – including transparent ones because it will interfere with the accurate reading
Why is JEWELRY removed prior surgery? Jewelries harbor bacteria – cover it with sterile plaster or globe the hands of the patient for an irremovable jewelries
How do you document jewelries? Objectively – yellow piece of jewelry & do not mention it as GOLD or SILVER
Why is UNDERWEAR removed prior surgery? They also harbor bacteria
Final preparations before surgery? 1)NPO 6-8 hours prior 2)Removal of dentures, nailpolish & jewelries 3)Bathe the patient 4)Gown the patient
Place where the first successful heart transplant was held? Capetown, South Africa
Known as the father of surgery? Hippocrates
Place of 1st plastic surgery or nose lift? India
Crude surgery where the skull is opened to release spirits from the body? Preppanig
First practice of modern surgery in 1846 @Massachusetts General Hospital? Dr. William Morton
Founder of ORNAP? Conseula Arabit
PRE-OP PHASE, starts when? When surgical decision has been made
PRE-OP PHASE, ends when? When the patient is brought to the care of the OR Nurse
AORN chapter of the philippines? OR Nurses Association of the Philippines (ORNAP)
Determine the cause of symptom or origin of problem? Diagnostic
Resolve the health problem by removing the involved tissue? Curative
To correct deformity, repair injury, or improve functional status? Reconstructive
To relive symptoms without intent of cure? Palliative
To excise tissue that may contribute to the patient's existing medical condition? Ablative
For aesthetic purposes only? Cosmetic
Planned, non-essential surgical procedures? Elective Surgery
Unplanned surgical procedures and require timely interventions but do not pose an immediate threat to life but to well being only? Urgent Surgery
Must be performed immediately to preserve life and limb? Emergency
How do you assess a client who is undergoing a surgery? 1)Reason for hospitalization -chief complaint, so ask professionally 2)Previous surgeries 3)Blood type
PRE-OP, Anxiety n/i (1)? Allot time for verbalization of feelings & concerns
PRE-OP, Anxiety n/i (2)? Stay with the patient
PRE-OP, Client Teaching, must? 1)According to the level of pt. knowledge 2)Information must be Cephalo-Caudal 3)Information must be from Simple-Complex
PRE-OP, Client Teaching, how? Answer KISS & TELL 1)Answer – only what is being asked 2)Keep it short & simple 3)Tell – what is only beneficial to the pt.
Why is Health Teaching done in PRE-OP? 1)All anxiety or fear 2)Emphasize importance of DBE to prevent Atelectasis
Pooling of secretions in the lower airway because of inadequate ventilation and immobility? Hypostatic Phenumonia
Diaphragmatic Abdominal Breathing, correct? a)High Fowler's b)Semi-Fowler's b)Semi-Fowler's
Incentive spirometry, purpose? a)Facilitate gas exchange properly b)Promote maximal lung expansion b)Promote maximal lung expansion
Coughing exercises as PRE-OP teaching, C/I, correct? a)PTB pt b)Increased in ICP b)Increased in ICP
Coughing exercises as PRE-OP teaching, C/I, correct? a)Hypertensive pt. b)Increased IOP b)Increased in IOP – normal is 10-21 mmHg
PRE-OP client teaching, Nsg. Dx – Risk for ineffective tissue perfusion, goals? 1)Verbalize treatment regimen 2)Demonstrate performance of postoperative exercises
PRE-OP client teaching, Nsg. Dx – Risk for ineffective tissue perfusion, N/I? 1)Anti-embolism stockings 2)Compression devices 3)Leg exercises – dorsiflexion of the foot
What should be made sure the nurse before the administration of the PRE-OP medications? 1)Witnessed the consent signing – document it afterwards 2)Check for allergies
After giving PRE-OP medications, what should you be done? SAFETY – CALL LIGHT 1)Safety – side rails 2)Call light – ensure its function
When giving a Sedative/Anxiolytic medications, what should you avoid? 1)Rapid injection of the medication – it will lead to rapid decrease of BP leading to Shock to death 2)Monitor for hypotension
When giving an Opiate Agonists medications, what should you monitor closely? Respiratory depression – report STAT if 12 breaths/minute
What is the antidote for Opiate Agonists medications? NALOXONE (Narcan)
When giving an Anticholinergic medications, what should you monitor especially? VS – Respiratory Rate in particular for Tachycardia / Monitor for Urinary Retention – anticholinergics relaxes bladder walls as well
Midazolam, Diazepam, Lorazepam – what are these drugs? Sedatives / Anxiolytics – relaxes smooth & skeletal muscles
Morphine Sulfate, Fentanyl Citrate – what are these drugs? Opiate Agonists – centrally acting analgesic for pre-emptive & postoperative analgesia
Atropine Sulfate, Scopolamine, Hydrobromide, Hydroxyzine HCL – what are these drugs? Anticholinergics – decreases secretions in the airway as well as the bladder walls
Ranitidine is an H2-antagonist drug, why do you need to cautiously use this? Because it Hepatotoxic kind of drug, so cautiously use this on patients with Hepative or Renal Impairment
Why is DENTURES removed prior surgery? Anesthesia will relax all the muscles in our body – risk for swallowing or aspiration
Why is NAILPOLISH removed prior surgery? To check for Cyanosis, Capillary Refill – including transparent ones because it will interfere with the accurate reading
Why is JEWELRY removed prior surgery? Jewelries harbor bacteria – cover it with sterile plaster or globe the hands of the patient for an irremovable jewelries
How do you document jewelries? Objectively – yellow piece of jewelry & do not mention it as GOLD or SILVER
Why is UNDERWEAR removed prior surgery? They also harbor bacteria
Final preparations before surgery? 1)NPO 6-8 hours prior 2)Removal of dentures, nailpolish & jewelries 3)Bathe the patient 4)Gown the patient
Lumbar tap / puncture, purpose? a)CSF screening b)Diagnosis of meningitis b)Diagnosis of meningitis
Lumbar tap / puncture, C/I? a)Hypertension b)Increased ICP b)Increased ICP
Lumbar tap / puncture, what to do after procedure? 1)CBR 2)Increase OFI 3)Pressure dressing
In CSF, What do you find in bacterial meningitis? a)Increase glucose b)Low glucose b)Low glucose
In CSF, What do you find in bacterial meningitis? a)Increase Protein b)Low Protein b)Low glucose – Cloudy CSF as well
What is the nursing responsibility in the CSF examination? Maintain the flex position
Mantoux test / PPD, positive means? Exposure or infection to mycobacterium TB bacilli
Mantoux test / PPD, induration of 10mm means? Positive – for HIV patients only a 5mm induration is already a POSITIVE
Mantoux test / PPD, false - negative indicates? Intake of Steroids / Prednisone
Guaiac test / F.O.B.T., screening test for? 1)Colonic cancer 2)GI bleeding
What is screening test for Colorectal Cancer & Prostate Problems? Digital Rectal Examination – started at 50 years of age & then annually thereafter
What is the confirmatory test for Colonic Cancer? a)Colonoscopy b)Barium Enema a)Colonoscopy - 1st step / b)Barium Enema - 2nd step
BUN (Blood, Urea, Nitrogen) normal level is 5-25 mg/dL, a decrease means? Decrease renal function – waste of protein
Creatinine, normal level is .5-1.5 mg, an increase means? Poor renal function – however an increase clearance is good & decrease clearance is bad
When taking Gentamycin, Steptomycin, Amikacin, Neomycin (antibiotics), monitor? 1)BUN & Creatinine 2)I & O
What do you see in Renal Failure? a)BUN & Creatinine decrease b)BUN & Creatinine increase b)BUN & Creatinine increase – there is also a decrease Creatinine clearance
Bronchoscopy, before procedure? 1)Signed consent 2)NPO before & after
Bronchoscopy, report? a)Wheezing b)Stridor b)Stridor – sound produced if airway is obstructed / report also if you find RESTLESSNESS & Frequent Swallowing (bleeding)
Intravenous Pyelogram, priority before procedure? a)VS b)Assess for allergy to iodine or shellfish b)Assess for allergy to iodine or shellfish
Intravenous Pyelogram steps, correct? a)Flush out with sterile NSS b)Flush out with water b)Flush out with water – hydrate patient as well by INC. OFI 3rd step / 1st step – NPO before the procedure / 2nd step – Inject the dye
What is the sensation during the injection of the dye? a)Cold feeling b)Warm feeling b)Warm feeling
Chest tubes purpose, correct? a)Re-establish (+) intrathoracic pressure b)Re-establish (-) intrathoracic pressure b)Re-establish (-) intrathoracic pressure
Steps to do in Chest Tubes disconnection? 1)Place tube tip into a sterile H2O (no air will enter) 2)Call the MD – do not Clamp & Reconnect the tubes (You can reconnect only using STERILE CONNECTORS)
In a 3 bottle system, what is the most important? a)1st bottle – drainage b)2nd bottle – water seal c)3rd bottle – suction control b)2nd bottle – water seal – it prevents entry of air into the chest of the patient
In a 3 bottle system, proper functioning? /Fluctuation / Tidaling / Water goes up & down with Respiration
Measures fetal heart rate? Transducer
Measures pressure in pregnancy? Etoctometer
Variable Decelaration is noted means Cord compression, what to do? 1)Position – a)Trendelenburg b)Knee chest / 2)Give O2 & call the MD
Late Deceleration means? Uteroplacental Insufficiency – Position is Left Side Lying then Give O2 & call the MD
Early Deceleration means? Head Compression – this is normal but continue to monitor the patient
Barium swallow, pre-procedure? 1)Signed consent 2)NPO prior 3)Laxative after 4)Inc. OFI after
Barium swallow, except? a)Laxative after b)Assess for gag reflex b)Assess for gag reflex / Laxative after is 3rd step in barium swallow
Lumbar tap / puncture, purpose? a)CSF screening b)Diagnosis of meningitis b)Diagnosis of meningitis
Lumbar tap / puncture, C/I? a)Hypertension b)Increased ICP b)Increased ICP
Lumbar tap / puncture, what to do after procedure? 1)CBR 2)Increase OFI 3)Pressure dressing
In CSF, What do you find in bacterial meningitis? a)Increase glucose b)Low glucose b)Low glucose
In CSF, What do you find in bacterial meningitis? a)Increase Protein b)Low Protein b)Low glucose – Cloudy CSF as well
What is the nursing responsibility in the CSF examination? Maintain the flex position
Mantoux test / PPD, positive means? Exposure or infection to mycobacterium TB bacilli
Mantoux test / PPD, induration of 10mm means? Positive – for HIV patients only a 5mm induration is already a POSITIVE
Mantoux test / PPD, false - negative indicates? Intake of Steroids / Prednisone
Guaiac test / F.O.B.T., screening test for? 1)Colonic cancer 2)GI bleeding
What is screening test for Colorectal Cancer & Prostate Problems? Digital Rectal Examination – started at 50 years of age & then annually thereafter
What is the confirmatory test for Colonic Cancer? a)Colonoscopy b)Barium Enema a)Colonoscopy - 1st step / b)Barium Enema - 2nd step
BUN (Blood, Urea, Nitrogen) normal level is 5-25 mg/dL, a decrease means? Decrease renal function – waste of protein
Creatinine, normal level is .5-1.5 mg, an increase means? Poor renal function – however an increase clearance is good & decrease clearance is bad
When taking Gentamycin, Steptomycin, Amikacin, Neomycin (antibiotics), monitor? 1)BUN & Creatinine 2)I & O
What do you see in Renal Failure? a)BUN & Creatinine decrease b)BUN & Creatinine increase b)BUN & Creatinine increase – there is also a decrease Creatinine clearance
Bronchoscopy, before procedure? 1)Signed consent 2)NPO before & after
Bronchoscopy, report? a)Wheezing b)Stridor b)Stridor – sound produced if airway is obstructed / report also if you find RESTLESSNESS & Frequent Swallowing (bleeding)
Intravenous Pyelogram, priority before procedure? a)VS b)Assess for allergy to iodine or shellfish b)Assess for allergy to iodine or shellfish
Intravenous Pyelogram steps, correct? a)Flush out with sterile NSS b)Flush out with water b)Flush out with water – hydrate patient as well by INC. OFI 3rd step / 1st step – NPO before the procedure / 2nd step – Inject the dye
What is the sensation during the injection of the dye? a)Cold feeling b)Warm feeling b)Warm feeling
Chest tubes purpose, correct? a)Re-establish (+) intrathoracic pressure b)Re-establish (-) intrathoracic pressure b)Re-establish (-) intrathoracic pressure
Steps to do in Chest Tubes disconnection? 1)Place tube tip into a sterile H2O (no air will enter) 2)Call the MD – do not Clamp & Reconnect the tubes (You can reconnect only using STERILE CONNECTORS)
In a 3 bottle system, what is the most important? a)1st bottle – drainage b)2nd bottle – water seal c)3rd bottle – suction control b)2nd bottle – water seal – it prevents entry of air into the chest of the patient
In a 3 bottle system, proper functioning? /Fluctuation / Tidaling / Water goes up & down with Respiration
Measures fetal heart rate? Transducer
Measures pressure in pregnancy? Etoctometer
Variable Decelaration is noted means Cord compression, what to do? 1)Position – a)Trendelenburg b)Knee chest / 2)Give O2 & call the MD
Late Deceleration means? Uteroplacental Insufficiency – Position is Left Side Lying then Give O2 & call the MD
Early Deceleration means? Head Compression – this is normal but continue to monitor the patient
Barium swallow, pre-procedure? 1)Signed consent 2)NPO prior 3)Laxative after 4)Inc. OFI after
Barium swallow, except? a)Laxative after b)Assess for gag reflex b)Assess for gag reflex / Laxative after is 3rd step in barium swallow
Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA), is tumor marker of what type cancer? Colonic Cancer – it determines the prognosis of the cancer whether it is curable or not
Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA), is a diagnostic test for? Prostate Cancer
What is 20/40 vision? Myopia or Nearsightedness – client can only see at a 20 feet distance where a person can see at 40 feet distance
What is the legal blindness? 20/200
For color vision? Ishihara Chart
Detects location of M.I.? EKG / ECG
Angiogram / Cardiac Catheterization POST-OP, correct? a)Leg straight with pressure dressing b)Supine
Sinusitis, correct? a)Hot wet packs b)Cold wet packs a)Hot wet packs
Sinusitis drugs, correct? a)Codeine b)ASA a)Codeine – it is analgesic / ASA – will increase the risk of developing nasal polyps
Sinusitis Amoxicillin acute? a)21 days b)7-10 days c)7-14 days b)7-10 days / a)21 days – chronic / c)7-14 days – distractor
Sinusitis nasal decongestant, correct? a)Sudafed & Dimetapp use for 7 days b)Sudafed & Dimetapp used for 72 hours b)Sudafed & Dimetapp used for 72 hours
Sinusitis surgery, correct? a)F.E.S.S. b)R.A.S. a)F.E.S.S. - Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery - 1st choice / R.A.S. - Radical Antrum Surgery (Caldwell Luc Surgery) - 2nd choice
Calwell Luc Surgery, correct? a)Chew on affected side b)Chew on unaffected side b)Chew on unaffected side
Frontal sinus surgery, correct? a)Sphenoidectomy b)Osteoplastic Flap Surgery b)Osteoplastic Flap Surgery
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy indicated for? a)Tonsilitis recurs 5-8 times/ yr b)Tonsilitis recurs 5-6 times/ yr b)Tonsilitis recurs 5-6 times/ yr
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy, correct? a)Warm saline gargle b)Antiseptic mouthwash a)Warm saline gargle
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy 1st n/i, correct? a)Promote rest b)Assess for URTI )Promote rest - 1st step / b)Assess for URTI - 2nd step
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy PRE-OP, except? a)Assess for URTI b)Check PTT c)BUN & CPK c)BUN & CPK
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy POST-OP, correct? a)Supine, turn head to side b)Prone, turn head to side b)Prone, turn head to side
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy POST-OP, patient is awake? a)Semi-Fowler's b)High-Fowler's a)Semi-Fowler's – to promote oral airway until swallowing reflex returns
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy POST-OP, correct? a)Bright red vomitus b)Blood tinged vomitus a)Bright red vomitus
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy POST-OP diet, correct? a)Ice cold fluids b)Ice cream a)Ice cold fluids – plus bland foods / b)Ice cream – c/i because it will lead to coughing & bleeding
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy client education, correct? a)Popcorn, boy bawang nuts b)2-4 L/day of fluids c)2-3 L/day of fluids c)2-3 L/day of fluids
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy client teaching, correct? a)No coughing, sneezing, blowing of nose for 2-3 weeks b)No coughing, sneezing, blowing of nose for 2 weeks No coughing, sneezing, blowing of nose for 2 weeks
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy avoid? a)Ice cold fluids b)Overcrowded public places b)Overcrowded public places – you could catch a cold & a 4-10 days of discomfort post surgery is expected
Cancer of Larynx s/s, correct? a)Dysphagia, dyspnea, hoarseness b) Dysphagia, apnea, hoarseness Dysphagia, dyspnea, hoarseness – dyspnea not apnea plus a burning sensation with hot/acidic beverages
Cancer of Larynx s/s, correct? a)Mild anemia & Weight loss b)Moderate anemia & Weight loss c)Severe anemia & Weight loss c)Severe anemia & Weight loss – with severe anorexia
Subtotal Laryngectomy, correct? a)Absolute loss of voice b)Retains voice b)Retains voice / a)Absolute loss of voice – this is Total Laryngectomy
Total Laryngectomy, except? a)Loss of smell b)Loss of voice c)No heavy lifting d)Temporary Tracheostomy d)Temporary Tracheostomy – it should be a PERMANENT Tracheostomy
Care of client with tracheostomy, 1st POST-OP care? a)Establish means of communication b)Prevent infection c)Semi-Fowler's c)Semi-Fowler's – 1st to establish airway patency / b)Prevent infection - 2nd step / a)Establish means of communication - 3rd step
Care of client with tracheostomy, POST-OP instilling of NSS, correct? a)3-5 mls b)2-5 mls b)2-5 mls
Asthma s/s, correct? a)Cold clammy skin b)Warm & flushed skin a)Cold clammy skin
Asthma s/s, correct? a)Respiratory Alkalosis b)Respiratory Acidosis b)Respiratory Acidosis
Asthma s/s, correct? a)Wheezing b)Stridor a)Wheezing
Sinusitis, correct? a)Hot wet packs b)Cold wet packs a)Hot wet packs
Sinusitis drugs, correct? a)Codeine b)ASA a)Codeine – it is analgesic / ASA – will increase the risk of developing nasal polyps
Sinusitis Amoxicillin acute? a)21 days b)7-10 days c)7-14 days b)7-10 days / a)21 days – chronic / c)7-14 days – distractor
Sinusitis nasal decongestant, correct? a)Sudafed & Dimetapp use for 7 days b)Sudafed & Dimetapp used for 72 hours b)Sudafed & Dimetapp used for 72 hours
Sinusitis surgery, correct? a)F.E.S.S. b)R.A.S. a)F.E.S.S. - Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery - 1st choice / R.A.S. - Radical Antrum Surgery (Caldwell Luc Surgery) - 2nd choice
Calwell Luc Surgery, correct? a)Chew on affected side b)Chew on unaffected side b)Chew on unaffected side
Frontal sinus surgery, correct? a)Sphenoidectomy b)Osteoplastic Flap Surgery b)Osteoplastic Flap Surgery
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy indicated for? a)Tonsilitis recurs 5-8 times/ yr b)Tonsilitis recurs 5-6 times/ yr b)Tonsilitis recurs 5-6 times/ yr
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy, correct? a)Warm saline gargle b)Antiseptic mouthwash a)Warm saline gargle
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy 1st n/i, correct? a)Promote rest b)Assess for URTI )Promote rest - 1st step / b)Assess for URTI - 2nd step
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy PRE-OP, except? a)Assess for URTI b)Check PTT c)BUN & CPK c)BUN & CPK
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy POST-OP, correct? a)Supine, turn head to side b)Prone, turn head to side b)Prone, turn head to side
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy POST-OP, patient is awake? a)Semi-Fowler's b)High-Fowler's a)Semi-Fowler's – to promote oral airway until swallowing reflex returns
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy POST-OP, correct? a)Bright red vomitus b)Blood tinged vomitus a)Bright red vomitus
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy POST-OP diet, correct? a)Ice cold fluids b)Ice cream a)Ice cold fluids – plus bland foods / b)Ice cream – c/i because it will lead to coughing & bleeding
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy client education, correct? a)Popcorn, boy bawang nuts b)2-4 L/day of fluids c)2-3 L/day of fluids c)2-3 L/day of fluids
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy client teaching, correct? a)No coughing, sneezing, blowing of nose for 2-3 weeks b)No coughing, sneezing, blowing of nose for 2 weeks No coughing, sneezing, blowing of nose for 2 weeks
Tonsillectomy & Adenoidectomy avoid? a)Ice cold fluids b)Overcrowded public places b)Overcrowded public places – you could catch a cold & a 4-10 days of discomfort post surgery is expected
Cancer of Larynx s/s, correct? a)Dysphagia, dyspnea, hoarseness b) Dysphagia, apnea, hoarseness Dysphagia, dyspnea, hoarseness – dyspnea not apnea plus a burning sensation with hot/acidic beverages
Cancer of Larynx s/s, correct? a)Mild anemia & Weight loss b)Moderate anemia & Weight loss c)Severe anemia & Weight loss c)Severe anemia & Weight loss – with severe anorexia
Subtotal Laryngectomy, correct? a)Absolute loss of voice b)Retains voice b)Retains voice / a)Absolute loss of voice – this is Total Laryngectomy
Total Laryngectomy, except? a)Loss of smell b)Loss of voice c)No heavy lifting d)Temporary Tracheostomy d)Temporary Tracheostomy – it should be a PERMANENT Tracheostomy
Care of client with tracheostomy, 1st POST-OP care? a)Establish means of communication b)Prevent infection c)Semi-Fowler's c)Semi-Fowler's – 1st to establish airway patency / b)Prevent infection - 2nd step / a)Establish means of communication - 3rd step
Care of client with tracheostomy, POST-OP instilling of NSS, correct? a)3-5 mls b)2-5 mls b)2-5 mls
Asthma s/s, correct? a)Cold clammy skin b)Warm & flushed skin a)Cold clammy skin
Asthma s/s, correct? a)Respiratory Alkalosis b)Respiratory Acidosis b)Respiratory Acidosis
Asthma s/s, correct? a)Wheezing b)Stridor a)Wheezing
Emphysema r/f, correct? a)Smoking b)Malnutrition c)Heredity d)Aging process b)Malnutrition – all are part of r/f
Emphysema s/s, correct? a)Adventitious breath sounds b)Dull, fluid like breath sounds a)Adventitious breath sounds
Emphysema s/s, correct? a)Barrel chest b)Pink puffers a)Barrel chest
Emphysema diet, correct? a)High Calorie, Low Protein, High Carbs b)High Calorie, High Protein, Low Carbs b)High Calorie, High Protein, Low Carbs – provide energy, maintain integrity of alveolar walls, decrease CO2 production
Emphysema O2, correct? a)2-5 LPM b)2 LPM b)2 LPM – high O2 is c/i because breathing maybe depressed
Emphysema use of Bronchodilators, correct? a)Observe Tachycardia b)Observe for Respiratory Depression a)Observe Tachycardia
Emphysema use of Antitussives, correct? a)Dextrometorphan b)Alupent a)Dextrometorphan – observe for drowsiness
Pleural Effusion, correct? a)Accumulation of air b)Accumulation of fluids b)Accumulation of fluids / a)Accumulation of air – Pneumothorax
Pleural Effusion s/s, correct? a)Diminished breath sounds b)Crackling breath sounds a)Diminished breath sounds
Pleural Effusion n/i, correct? a)Remain with patient, stay calm b)High-Fowler's a)Remain with patient, stay calm - 1st step / b)High-Fowler's - 2nd step
Pleural Effusion, monitor? a)Shock b)Infection a)Shock
Cancer cells with good prognosis? a)Squamous & Adenocarcinomas b)Oat & Undifferentiated a)Squamous & Adenocarcinomas / b)Oat & Undifferentiated – with poor prognosis
Lung cancer s/s, correct? a)Hacking, productive, blood tinged sputum b)Hacking, nonproductive, blood tinged sputum b)Hacking, nonproductive, blood tinged sputum – it is a nonproductive cough
Lung cancer s/s, late signs? a)Weakness b)Anemia c)Weight loss d)Cachexia d)Cachexia – anorexia only not cachexia
Lung cancer n/i, correct? a)O2 / Aerosol therapy b)Patent airway b)Patent airway – step 1 / a)O2 / Aerosol therapy – step 2
Wedge resection, correct? a)Removal of ribs b)Removal of entire tumor b)Removal of entire tumor / a)Removal of ribs – this is Thoracoplasty
Pneumonectomy, correct? a)Semi-Fowler's, turned slightly on affected side b)Semi-Fowler's, turned slightly on unaffected side b)Semi-Fowler's, turned slightly on unaffected side – for lung expansion & full side lying is c/i to prevent MEDIASTINAL SHIFT
Stripping off fibrinous membrance enclosing the lung? a)Membraneous resection b)Decortication b)Decortication
Chest tube postion POST-OP, correct? a)Semi-Fowler's turn on affected side b)Semi-Fowler's turn on unaffected side b)Semi-Fowler's turn on unaffected side – to allow for lung expansion
Hypoperfusion s/s, correct? a)Decrease RR, Dyspnea b)Increase RR, Dyspnea b)Increase RR, Dyspnea
Hypoperfusion s/s of ABG, correct? a)Increase Pa CO2, Decrease PaO2 b)Decrease Pa CO2, Decrease PaO2 a)Increase Pa CO2, Decrease PaO2
Hypoperfusion n/i, correct? a)O2 Decrease 1-3 LPM d/t labored breathing b)O2 Increase 8-10 LPM b)O2 Increase 8-10 LPM
PTB Class 2, correct? a)Disease, clinically active b)Suspected disease, diagnosis pending c)Infection, no disease (+) PPD d)Exposure, no infection c)Infection, no disease (+) PPD / a)Disease, clinically active – Class 3 b)Suspected disease, diagnosis pending – Class 5 / d)Exposure, no infection – Class 1
PTB, correct? a)Droplet b)Airborne a)Droplet
PTB drug INH s/e, correct? a)Peripheral Neuritis & Hepatotoxicity b)Optic Neuritis, skin rash & Hepatotoxicity a)Disease, clinically active / b)Suspected disease, diagnosis pending c)Infection, no disease d)Exposure, no infection – Ethambutol s/e
PTB drug Streptomycin s/e, correct? a)Red orange urine, thrombocytopenia b)Ototoxicity & Nephrotoxicity b)Ototoxicity & Nephrotoxicity / a)Red orange urine, thrombocytopenia – s/e of Rifampicin
Pneumonia s/s, correct? a)Respiratory Alkalosis b)Respiratory Acidosis b)Respiratory Acidosis
Pneumonia s/s, correct? a)Dullnes upon chest auscultation b)Drumlike upon chest auscultation a)Dullness upon chest auscultation
Pneumonia n/i, correct? a)Rest & Fluids b)Incentive spirometry c)O2 therapy a)Rest & Fluids - 1st step / b)Incentive spirometry - 2nd step / c)O2 therapy - 3rd step
Pulmonary Embolism s/s, correct? a)Restlessness b)Dizziness a)Restlessness – initial cardinal sign
Pulmonary Embolism s/s, correct? a)Dyspnea & thumplike chest pain b)Dyspnea & Stabbing chest pain b)Dyspnea & Stabbing chest pain
Pulmonary Embolism Initial n/i, correct? a)Sit up & lean forward b)O2 therapy stat b)O2 theraphy stat / a)Sit up & lean forward – asthma option
Pulmonary Embolism n/i, except? a)Heparin & Coumadin b)ASA & Coumadin b)ASA & Coumadin – ASA will cause bleeding
Pulmonary Embolism, correct? a)Drug abuse b)Contraceptive use b)Contraceptive use – it might cause Pulmonary Embolism that's why it should be evaluated
Emphysema r/f, correct? a)Smoking b)Malnutrition c)Heredity d)Aging process b)Malnutrition – all are part of r/f
Emphysema s/s, correct? a)Adventitious breath sounds b)Dull, fluid like breath sounds a)Adventitious breath sounds
Emphysema s/s, correct? a)Barrel chest b)Pink puffers a)Barrel chest
Emphysema diet, correct? a)High Calorie, Low Protein, High Carbs b)High Calorie, High Protein, Low Carbs b)High Calorie, High Protein, Low Carbs – provide energy, maintain integrity of alveolar walls, decrease CO2 production
Emphysema O2, correct? a)2-5 LPM b)2 LPM b)2 LPM – high O2 is c/i because breathing maybe depressed
Emphysema use of Bronchodilators, correct? a)Observe Tachycardia b)Observe for Respiratory Depression a)Observe Tachycardia
Emphysema use of Antitussives, correct? a)Dextrometorphan b)Alupent a)Dextrometorphan – observe for drowsiness
Pleural Effusion, correct? a)Accumulation of air b)Accumulation of fluids b)Accumulation of fluids / a)Accumulation of air – Pneumothorax
Pleural Effusion s/s, correct? a)Diminished breath sounds b)Crackling breath sounds a)Diminished breath sounds
Pleural Effusion n/i, correct? a)Remain with patient, stay calm b)High-Fowler's a)Remain with patient, stay calm - 1st step / b)High-Fowler's - 2nd step
Pleural Effusion, monitor? a)Shock b)Infection a)Shock
Cancer cells with good prognosis? a)Squamous & Adenocarcinomas b)Oat & Undifferentiated a)Squamous & Adenocarcinomas / b)Oat & Undifferentiated – with poor prognosis
Lung cancer s/s, correct? a)Hacking, productive, blood tinged sputum b)Hacking, nonproductive, blood tinged sputum b)Hacking, nonproductive, blood tinged sputum – it is a nonproductive cough
Lung cancer s/s, late signs? a)Weakness b)Anemia c)Weight loss d)Cachexia d)Cachexia – anorexia only not cachexia
Lung cancer n/i, correct? a)O2 / Aerosol therapy b)Patent airway b)Patent airway – step 1 / a)O2 / Aerosol therapy – step 2
Wedge resection, correct? a)Removal of ribs b)Removal of entire tumor b)Removal of entire tumor / a)Removal of ribs – this is Thoracoplasty
Pneumonectomy, correct? a)Semi-Fowler's, turned slightly on affected side b)Semi-Fowler's, turned slightly on unaffected side b)Semi-Fowler's, turned slightly on unaffected side – for lung expansion & full side lying is c/i to prevent MEDIASTINAL SHIFT
Stripping off fibrinous membrance enclosing the lung? a)Membraneous resection b)Decortication b)Decortication
Chest tube postion POST-OP, correct? a)Semi-Fowler's turn on affected side b)Semi-Fowler's turn on unaffected side b)Semi-Fowler's turn on unaffected side – to allow for lung expansion
Hypoperfusion s/s, correct? a)Decrease RR, Dyspnea b)Increase RR, Dyspnea b)Increase RR, Dyspnea
Hypoperfusion s/s of ABG, correct? a)Increase Pa CO2, Decrease PaO2 b)Decrease Pa CO2, Decrease PaO2 a)Increase Pa CO2, Decrease PaO2
Hypoperfusion n/i, correct? a)O2 Decrease 1-3 LPM d/t labored breathing b)O2 Increase 8-10 LPM b)O2 Increase 8-10 LPM
PTB Class 2, correct? a)Disease, clinically active b)Suspected disease, diagnosis pending c)Infection, no disease (+) PPD d)Exposure, no infection c)Infection, no disease (+) PPD / a)Disease, clinically active – Class 3 b)Suspected disease, diagnosis pending – Class 5 / d)Exposure, no infection – Class 1
PTB, correct? a)Droplet b)Airborne a)Droplet
PTB drug INH s/e, correct? a)Peripheral Neuritis & Hepatotoxicity b)Optic Neuritis, skin rash & Hepatotoxicity a)Disease, clinically active / b)Suspected disease, diagnosis pending c)Infection, no disease d)Exposure, no infection – Ethambutol s/e
PTB drug Streptomycin s/e, correct? a)Red orange urine, thrombocytopenia b)Ototoxicity & Nephrotoxicity b)Ototoxicity & Nephrotoxicity / a)Red orange urine, thrombocytopenia – s/e of Rifampicin
Pneumonia s/s, correct? a)Respiratory Alkalosis b)Respiratory Acidosis b)Respiratory Acidosis
Pneumonia s/s, correct? a)Dullnes upon chest auscultation b)Drumlike upon chest auscultation a)Dullness upon chest auscultation
Pneumonia n/i, correct? a)Rest & Fluids b)Incentive spirometry c)O2 therapy a)Rest & Fluids - 1st step / b)Incentive spirometry - 2nd step / c)O2 therapy - 3rd step
Pulmonary Embolism s/s, correct? a)Restlessness b)Dizziness a)Restlessness – initial cardinal sign
Pulmonary Embolism s/s, correct? a)Dyspnea & thumplike chest pain b)Dyspnea & Stabbing chest pain b)Dyspnea & Stabbing chest pain
Pulmonary Embolism Initial n/i, correct? a)Sit up & lean forward b)O2 therapy stat b)O2 theraphy stat / a)Sit up & lean forward – asthma option
Pulmonary Embolism n/i, except? a)Heparin & Coumadin b)ASA & Coumadin b)ASA & Coumadin – ASA will cause bleeding
Pulmonary Embolism, correct? a)Drug abuse b)Contraceptive use b)Contraceptive use – it might cause Pulmonary Embolism that's why it should be evaluated
Echocardiography, correct? a)Supine, slightly to the left, HOB elevated 15-20 degrees b)Supine, slightly to the left, HOB elevated 15-25 degrees c)Supine, slightly to the left, HOB elevated 10-20 degrees a)Supine, slightly to the left, HOB elevated 15-20 degrees
Transesophageal Echocardiography (TEE) PRE-OP N/I, correct? a)Assess allergy to sedatives or anesthetis b)Ascertain history to esophageal history b)Ascertain history to esophageal history – 1st step / a)Assess allergy to sedatives or anesthetis – 2nd step
Transesophageal Echocardiography (TEE) PRE-OP N/I, correct? a)NPO 4-6 hrs b)NPO 6-8 hrs a)NPO 4-6 hrs
Transesophageal Echocardiography (TEE) PRE-OP N/I, correct? a)Local anesthesia administration b)Topical spray anesthesia b)Topical spray anesthesia – to suppress gag reflex
Transesophageal Echocardiography (TEE) POST-OP N/I, correct? a)High fowler’s b)Lateral or Semi fowler’s b)Lateral or Semi fowler’s
Transesophageal Echocardiography (TEE) POST-OP N/I, correct? a)Give throat lozenges b)Watch for transient hypoxias a)Give throat lozenges – to relieve throat soreness & watch for transient hypoxemias not hypoxias
Echocardiography, correct? a)Supine, slightly to the left, HOB elevated 15-20 degrees b)Supine, slightly to the left, HOB elevated 15-25 degrees c)Supine, slightly to the left, HOB elevated 10-20 degrees a)Supine, slightly to the left, HOB elevated 15-20 degrees
Transesophageal Echocardiography (TEE) PRE-OP N/I, correct? a)Assess allergy to sedatives or anesthetis b)Ascertain history to esophageal history b)Ascertain history to esophageal history – 1st step / a)Assess allergy to sedatives or anesthetis – 2nd step
Transesophageal Echocardiography (TEE) PRE-OP N/I, correct? a)NPO 4-6 hrs b)NPO 6-8 hrs a)NPO 4-6 hrs
Transesophageal Echocardiography (TEE) PRE-OP N/I, correct? a)Local anesthesia administration b)Topical spray anesthesia b)Topical spray anesthesia – to suppress gag reflex
Transesophageal Echocardiography (TEE) POST-OP N/I, correct? a)High fowler’s b)Lateral or Semi fowler’s b)Lateral or Semi fowler’s
Transesophageal Echocardiography (TEE) POST-OP N/I, correct? a)Give throat lozenges b)Watch for transient hypoxias a)Give throat lozenges – to relieve throat soreness & watch for transient hypoxemias not hypoxias
Clients predisposed to CAD, correct? a)Pt with history of 20 pack yrs of smoking b)Pt whose dad & brother died of MI b)Pt whose dad & brother died of MI
To assess JVD, HOB should be, correct? a)30 deg. b)25 deb. c)20 deg. d)15 deg. a)30
Pt on Heparin Tx has APTT of 80 sec., this means? a)The client is prone to bleeding b)It is the therapeutic effect of the drug b)It is the therapeutic effect of the drug
Find low cardiac output? a)BUN of 40mg/dl b)Urine out of 50mls/hr c)Serum K is 4.5mEq/L a)BUN of 40mg/d
MI, except? a)Elevated AST b)Elevated ALT c)Elevated Ck-MB d)Elevated LDH b)Elevated ALT
Hypokalemia ECG, correct? a)Elevatd ST segment b)Prolonged QRS c)Depressed ST segment c)Depressed ST segment
Hypervolemia in CVP, correct? a)10 cm of H2O b)8 cm of H2O c)6 cm of H2O d)14 cm of H2O d)14 cm of H2O
Angina pectoris, correct? a)Localized on the left chest b)Precipitated by a large meal c)Experienced while sitting & watching tv b)Precipitated by a large meal
MI, except? a)Pain is crushing b)Pain radiates to one or both arms, neck & back c)Pain is prolonged d)Pain is revelieved by rest d)Pain is revelieved by rest
Nitroglycerine Therapy, why is the patient to assume a Sitting or Supine position? Prevent Orthostatic Hypotension
Nitroglycerine Therapy, what is the maximum doses? 3 doses at 5 min interval
Nitroglycerine Therapy, if taken under the tongue, what will it cause? Burning or stinging sensation
Nitroglycerine Therapy, sublingual route produces Onset of Action within? 1-2 minutes – Duration of action is 30 minutes (blank)
Nitroglycerine Therapy, what do you offer before giving sublingual nitrates? Sips of water because it can cause drymouth
Nitroglycerine Therapy, advise client to? Carry 3 tablets in his pocket
Nitroglycerine Therapy, medications should be stored in a? Cool, dry place
Nitroglycerine Therapy, container should be? Dark / amber colored & air tight – light, moisture & heat can destroy the drug
Nitroglycerine Therapy, change stock every how many months? 6 months – effectivity of the drug is RELIEF OF CHEST PAIN
Nitroglycerine Therapy s/e, correct? a)Tachycardia b)Bradycardia a)Tachycardia – do not discontinue drug
Nitroglycerine Therapy s/e, correct? a)Faintness b)Cool & moist skin a)Faintness - do not discontinue drug & other s/e are Flushed face, Headache, Dizziness
Clients predisposed to CAD, correct? a)Pt with history of 20 pack yrs of smoking b)Pt whose dad & brother died of MI b)Pt whose dad & brother died of MI
To assess JVD, HOB should be, correct? a)30 deg. b)25 deb. c)20 deg. d)15 deg. a)30
Pt on Heparin Tx has APTT of 80 sec., this means? a)The client is prone to bleeding b)It is the therapeutic effect of the drug b)It is the therapeutic effect of the drug
Find low cardiac output? a)BUN of 40mg/dl b)Urine out of 50mls/hr c)Serum K is 4.5mEq/L a)BUN of 40mg/d
MI, except? a)Elevated AST b)Elevated ALT c)Elevated Ck-MB d)Elevated LDH b)Elevated ALT
Hypokalemia ECG, correct? a)Elevatd ST segment b)Prolonged QRS c)Depressed ST segment c)Depressed ST segment
Hypervolemia in CVP, correct? a)10 cm of H2O b)8 cm of H2O c)6 cm of H2O d)14 cm of H2O d)14 cm of H2O
Angina pectoris, correct? a)Localized on the left chest b)Precipitated by a large meal c)Experienced while sitting & watching tv b)Precipitated by a large meal
MI, except? a)Pain is crushing b)Pain radiates to one or both arms, neck & back c)Pain is prolonged d)Pain is revelieved by rest d)Pain is revelieved by rest
Nitroglycerine Therapy, why is the patient to assume a Sitting or Supine position? Prevent Orthostatic Hypotension
Nitroglycerine Therapy, what is the maximum doses? 3 doses at 5 min interval
Nitroglycerine Therapy, if taken under the tongue, what will it cause? Burning or stinging sensation
Nitroglycerine Therapy, sublingual route produces Onset of Action within? 1-2 minutes – Duration of action is 30 minutes (blank)
Nitroglycerine Therapy, what do you offer before giving sublingual nitrates? Sips of water because it can cause drymouth
Nitroglycerine Therapy, advise client to? Carry 3 tablets in his pocket
Nitroglycerine Therapy, medications should be stored in a? Cool, dry place
Nitroglycerine Therapy, container should be? Dark / amber colored & air tight – light, moisture & heat can destroy the drug
Nitroglycerine Therapy, change stock every how many months? 6 months – effectivity of the drug is RELIEF OF CHEST PAIN
Nitroglycerine Therapy s/e, correct? a)Tachycardia b)Bradycardia a)Tachycardia – do not discontinue drug
Nitroglycerine Therapy s/e, correct? a)Faintness b)Cool & moist skin a)Faintness - do not discontinue drug & other s/e are Flushed face, Headache, Dizziness
Clients predisposed to CAD, correct? a)Pt with history of 20 pack yrs of smoking b)Pt whose dad & brother died of MI b)Pt whose dad & brother died of MI
To assess JVD, HOB should be, correct? a)30 deg. b)25 deb. c)20 deg. d)15 deg. a)30
Pt on Heparin Tx has APTT of 80 sec., this means? a)The client is prone to bleeding b)It is the therapeutic effect of the drug b)It is the therapeutic effect of the drug
Find low cardiac output? a)BUN of 40mg/dl b)Urine out of 50mls/hr c)Serum K is 4.5mEq/L a)BUN of 40mg/d
MI, except? a)Elevated AST b)Elevated ALT c)Elevated Ck-MB d)Elevated LDH b)Elevated ALT
Hypokalemia ECG, correct? a)Elevatd ST segment b)Prolonged QRS c)Depressed ST segment c)Depressed ST segment
Hypervolemia in CVP, correct? a)10 cm of H2O b)8 cm of H2O c)6 cm of H2O d)14 cm of H2O d)14 cm of H2O
Angina pectoris, correct? a)Localized on the left chest b)Precipitated by a large meal c)Experienced while sitting & watching tv b)Precipitated by a large meal
MI, except? a)Pain is crushing b)Pain radiates to one or both arms, neck & back c)Pain is prolonged d)Pain is revelieved by rest d)Pain is revelieved by rest
Nitroglycerine Therapy, why is the patient to assume a Sitting or Supine position? Prevent Orthostatic Hypotension
Nitroglycerine Therapy, what is the maximum doses? 3 doses at 5 min interval
Nitroglycerine Therapy, if taken under the tongue, what will it cause? Burning or stinging sensation
Nitroglycerine Therapy, sublingual route produces Onset of Action within? 1-2 minutes – Duration of action is 30 minutes
Nitroglycerine Therapy, what do you offer before giving sublingual nitrates? Sips of water because it can cause drymouth
Nitroglycerine Therapy, advise client to? Carry 3 tablets in his pocket
Nitroglycerine Therapy, medications should be stored in a? Cool, dry place
Nitroglycerine Therapy, container should be? Dark / amber colored & air tight – light, moisture & heat can destroy the drug
Nitroglycerine Therapy, change stock every how many months? 6 months – effectivity of the drug is RELIEF OF CHEST PAIN
Nitroglycerine Therapy s/e, correct? a)Tachycardia b)Bradycardia a)Tachycardia – do not discontinue drug
Nitroglycerine Therapy s/e, correct? a)Faintness b)Cool & moist skin a)Faintness - do not discontinue drug & other s/e are Flushed face, Headache, Dizziness
Clients predisposed to CAD, correct? a)Pt with history of 20 pack yrs of smoking b)Pt whose dad & brother died of MI b)Pt whose dad & brother died of MI
To assess JVD, HOB should be, correct? a)30 deg. b)25 deb. c)20 deg. d)15 deg. a)30
Pt on Heparin Tx has APTT of 80 sec., this means? a)The client is prone to bleeding b)It is the therapeutic effect of the drug b)It is the therapeutic effect of the drug
Find low cardiac output? a)BUN of 40mg/dl b)Urine out of 50mls/hr c)Serum K is 4.5mEq/L a)BUN of 40mg/d
MI, except? a)Elevated AST b)Elevated ALT c)Elevated Ck-MB d)Elevated LDH b)Elevated ALT
Hypokalemia ECG, correct? a)Elevatd ST segment b)Prolonged QRS c)Depressed ST segment c)Depressed ST segment
Hypervolemia in CVP, correct? a)10 cm of H2O b)8 cm of H2O c)6 cm of H2O d)14 cm of H2O d)14 cm of H2O
Angina pectoris, correct? a)Localized on the left chest b)Precipitated by a large meal c)Experienced while sitting & watching tv b)Precipitated by a large meal
MI, except? a)Pain is crushing b)Pain radiates to one or both arms, neck & back c)Pain is prolonged d)Pain is revelieved by rest d)Pain is revelieved by rest
Nitroglycerine Therapy, why is the patient to assume a Sitting or Supine position? Prevent Orthostatic Hypotension
Nitroglycerine Therapy, what is the maximum doses? 3 doses at 5 min interval
Nitroglycerine Therapy, if taken under the tongue, what will it cause? Burning or stinging sensation
Nitroglycerine Therapy, sublingual route produces Onset of Action within? 1-2 minutes – Duration of action is 30 minutes
Nitroglycerine Therapy, what do you offer before giving sublingual nitrates? Sips of water because it can cause drymouth
Nitroglycerine Therapy, advise client to? Carry 3 tablets in his pocket
Nitroglycerine Therapy, medications should be stored in a? Cool, dry place
Nitroglycerine Therapy, container should be? Dark / amber colored & air tight – light, moisture & heat can destroy the drug
Nitroglycerine Therapy, change stock every how many months? 6 months – effectivity of the drug is RELIEF OF CHEST PAIN
Nitroglycerine Therapy s/e, correct? a)Tachycardia b)Bradycardia a)Tachycardia – do not discontinue drug
Nitroglycerine Therapy s/e, correct? a)Faintness b)Cool & moist skin a)Faintness - do not discontinue drug & other s/e are Flushed face, Headache, Dizziness
Beta-Adrenergic Blockers, assess for pulse rate before administration & withhold if? Bradycardia is present
Beta-Adrenergic Blockers, administer with food to prevent GI upset and do not administer Propranolo to clients with Asthma because? It causes Bronchoconstriction – in client with DM it will cause hypoglycemia
Beta-Adrenergic Blockers, s/e are N&V, mental depression, mild diarrhea, fatigue and impotence, caution is given to clients with? Heart failure
Calcium-Channel Blockers, assess for? HR & BP – monitor for Hepatic & Renal function
Calcium-Channel Blockers, administration is? 1 hour before & 2 hours after meals – food delays absorption of drug
Platelet Aggregation Inhibitors, asses for s/s of? Bleeding & tinnitus – avoid straining at stool & do not give ASA with Coumadin
Heparin Sodium, assess for s/s of? Bleeding – maximum use is 2 weeks
Heparin Sodium, antidote? Protamine Sulfate – do not massage to prevent hematoma
Heparin Sodium, monitor? PTT or APTT levels
Coumadin, assess for? Bleeding – so monitor for PTT Vit. K is the antidote
Coumadin diet, avoid? Green leafy veggies – they contain Vit. K
It is a mechanical dilatation of the coronary vessel wall by compressing the atheromatous plaque? Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty (PTCA)
Angina Pectoris diet? a)Low Na, Fat, Cholesterol & Fiber b) Low Na, Fat, Cholesterol & High fiber with saturated fats c)Low Na, Fat, Cholesterol & High fiber b) Low Na, Fat, Cholesterol & High fiber fats – white meat, chicken without skin & fish
Angina Pectoris activity? No restrictions as long as with patient's limitations
Angina Pectoris surgical management? Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG) – for one or more branches of arteries narrowing & its main purpose is myocardial revascularization
Beta-Adrenergic Blockers, assess for pulse rate before administration & withhold if? Bradycardia is present
Beta-Adrenergic Blockers, administer with food to prevent GI upset and do not administer Propranolo to clients with Asthma because? It causes Bronchoconstriction – in client with DM it will cause hypoglycemia
Beta-Adrenergic Blockers, s/e are N&V, mental depression, mild diarrhea, fatigue and impotence, caution is given to clients with? Heart failure
Calcium-Channel Blockers, assess for? HR & BP – monitor for Hepatic & Renal function
Calcium-Channel Blockers, administration is? 1 hour before & 2 hours after meals – food delays absorption of drug
Platelet Aggregation Inhibitors, asses for s/s of? Bleeding & tinnitus – avoid straining at stool & do not give ASA with Coumadin
Heparin Sodium, assess for s/s of? Bleeding – maximum use is 2 weeks
Heparin Sodium, antidote? Protamine Sulfate – do not massage to prevent hematoma
Heparin Sodium, monitor? PTT or APTT levels
Coumadin, assess for? Bleeding – so monitor for PTT Vit. K is the antidote
Coumadin diet, avoid? Green leafy veggies – they contain Vit. K
It is a mechanical dilatation of the coronary vessel wall by compressing the atheromatous plaque? Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty (PTCA)
Angina Pectoris diet? a)Low Na, Fat, Cholesterol & Fiber b) Low Na, Fat, Cholesterol & High fiber with saturated fats c)Low Na, Fat, Cholesterol & High fiber b) Low Na, Fat, Cholesterol & High fiber fats – white meat, chicken without skin & fish
Angina Pectoris activity? No restrictions as long as with patient's limitations
Angina Pectoris surgical management? Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG) – for one or more branches of arteries narrowing & its main purpose is myocardial revascularization
Created by: akosipidro
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