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N306 E3 Diabetes
N306 Diabetes Medications II
Question | Answer |
---|---|
Identify the 1 indication for sulfonylureas. | Type 2 DM |
Identify the side fx for sulfonylureas (9). | diarrhea or constipation; dizziness, gas, anorexia, HA, n/v, HYPOGLYCEMIA, photosensitivity (increased sunburn) |
For sulfonylureas, use with caution in patients with _________. (3) | Cardiac, liver, or blood diseases |
Off all the classes, hypoglycemia is most commonly produced in _______. | sulfonylureas |
Identify the 3 sulfonylureas drugs discussed in lecture. | glyburide (DiaBeta); glimepiride (Amaryl); glipizide extended release (Glucotrol XL) |
_______ generation sulfonylureas have longer duration and fewer side effects than ________ generation. | Second generation have longer duration and fewer side fx than generations. |
Which oral hypoglycemic must be 30 minutes before meals? | glipizide extended release (Glucotrol XL) |
Identify mechanism of action(s) for sulfonylureas. (3) | -Stimulate insulin production & enhance release of insulin from B cells in pancreas -Decrease liver glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis - Increase cellular sensitivity to insulin |
glycogenolysis | the splitting up of glycogen in the liver |
gluconeogenesis | formation of glucose, especially by the liver, from noncarbohydrate sources, such as amino acids |
Identify the 2 alpha-glucosidase inhibitors drugs discussed in lecture. | acarbose (Precose) miglitol (Glycet) |
Identify the mechanism of action for alpha-glucosidase inhibitors. | Decrease absorption of carbohydrates (CHO) from the intestines |
Identify the indication for alpha-glucosidase inhibitors. | Type 2 DM |
Identify the side fx for alpha-glucosidase inhibitors. (4) | abdominal discomfort, abdominal pain, diarrhea, flatulence |
Why are abdominal side fx common in alpha-glucosidase inhibitors? | Because the mechanism of action occurs in the gut |
Identify the first sign of hypoglycemia. | Headache, and then cold, clammy skin, irritability |
Identify a late sign of hypoglycemia. | Confusion |
Identify the 1 biguanide drug discussed in lecture. | metformin (Glucophage) [Tip: Metformin is big.] |
Identify the mechanism of action for biguanides. (3) | -Decreases glucose absorption in the intestine -Decrease glucose production in liver -Improves insulin sensitivity in tissues (does not affect beta cells or release of insulin; does not cause immediate hypoglycemia compared to sulfonylureas.) |
______ does not cause immediate hypoglycemia compared to sulfonylureas. | Biguanides |
Biguanides are perfect for patients with _____ and _______. | Type 2 DM and metabolic X syndrome |
_______, which is used prior to some scans, does not work well with metformin. It causes _________. | IV radiographic contrast; causes patient to have lactic acidosis which may affect kidneys |
Identify the side fx of biguanides. (6) | Anorexia, abdominal gas, abdominal pain, diarrhea, HA, N/V |
For biguanides, you must monitor ________ b/c ________. | Serum creatinine levels, metformin is associated with renal impairment |
What period of time is metformin contraindicated for patients receiving IV radiographic contrast? | 2 days prior and 2 days after receiving IV radiographic contrast |
Elevated serum creatinine levels in patients taking metformin indicates ________. | possible renal impairment |
Identify the treatment for metformin overdose or development of lactic acidosis. | Correct acidosis, remove excess metformin |
When should you immediately discontinue use of metformin? | If signs of acidosis are present |
Identify symptoms of lactic acidosis. (3) | -Feeling tired or weak -Muscle pain -Trouble breathing |
Identify the 2 thiazolidinediones (TZDs) discussed in lecture. | rosiglitazone (Avandia); pioglitazone (Actos) |
Identify the mechanism of action for thiazolidinediones. (2) | -Decrease insulin resistance in periphery & liver (results in increased glucose processing) -Inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis |
Which drug is most often used in combination with thiazolidinediones? | metformin (Glucophage) |
What must you monitor for patients on thiazolidinediones? | Liver function tests for toxicity |
Does hypoglycemia occur with thiazolidinediones? | No |
Identify the side fx of thiazolidinediones. | Edema, HA, myalgia, upper respiratory infection |
Because thiazolidinediones promote fluid retention, they are contraindicated in _________. (2) | Serious heart failure or pulmonary edema |
Optimal lowering of blood glucose with thiazolidinediones takes _______ months of therapy. | 3-4 |
Identify the 2 dipeptidyl peptidase IV (DDP-4) inhibitors discussed in lecture. | sitagliptin (Januvia); saxagliptin (onglyza) |
Identify the mechanism of action for dipeptidyl peptidase IV (DDP-4) inhibitors. | Inhibits DPP-4 (thereby reducing incretin breakdown)(known to degrade GLP-1) which causes insulin secretion and suppresses glucagon secretion |
Identify the normal function of DDP-4 enzyme. | Break down incretins |
incretins | hormones secreted by intestine following a meal, when blood glucose is elevated |
Identify the normal function of incretins. (2) | Signal pancreas to increase insulin secretion and the liver to stop producing glucagon |
Identify the route and frequency for a dose for dipeptidyl peptidase IV (DDP-4) inhibitors. | Oral route, once daily |
TRUE/FALSE: Diabetic patients are not able to secrete incretins in adequate amounts, thus disrupting an important glucose control mechanism. | TRUE |
Identify the 2 incretin mimetics discussed in lecture. | exenatide (Byetta); liraglutide (Victoza) |
Identify the mechanism of action for incretin mimetics. | Mimics the action of incretin, thus increasing insulin secretion, supressing glucagon secretion, delaying gastric emptying (promotes satiety) |
Identify the indication for incretin mimetics. | Type 2 DM |
Identify the indication for dipeptidyl peptidase IV (DDP-4) inhibitors. | Type 2 DM |
Identify the side fx for incretin mimetics. (2) | N/V, diarrhea |
Identify the route and frequency of dose for incretin mimetics. | Subcutaneous injection, 2x daily |
Do incretin mimetics cause hypoglycemia? | No |
Identify the 2 meglitinides discussed in lecture. | nateglinide (Starlix); repaglinide (Prandin) |
Identify the mechanism of action for meglitinides. | Stimulates pancreas to release insulin |
Identify the indication for meglitinides. | Type 2 DM |
Identify the side fx for meglitinides. (4) | Hypoglycemia, palpitations, GI discomfort, flu-like symptoms (nateglinide) |
Why aren't meglitinides good for patients with Type 1 DM? | They do not have functioning beta cells in pancreas to stimulate |
Meglitinides are similar to the hypoglycemic drug class of ________. | sulfonylureas |
Identify the 1 amylin analogs discussed in lecture. | pramlintide acetate (Symlin) |
Identify the mechanism of action for amylin analogs. (3) | Delay gastric emptying, decrease postprandial (after meal) glucagon release, regulate appetite |
Identify the indication for amylin analogs. | Type 1 DM; Type 2 DM |
amylin | small peptide released by beta cell f pancreas at the same time insulin is released |
Identify the normal function of amylin. | Act synergistically with insulin in glycemic control |
Do amylin analogs cause hypoglycemia? | Yes, it is an adverse effect. |
Identify the route and frequency of dose for amylin analogs. | Subcutaneously prior to each meal, with U-100 syringe |
Can pramlintide be mixed with insulin? | No |
Can pramlintide be injected in the same site as insulin? | No |
Identify the 3 combination drug treatments. | glyburide + metformin (Glucovance); Avandia + metformin (Avandamet); Januvia + metformin (Janumet) [Tip: JAG + metformin] |
Identify the 4 drugs affecting blood glucose levels. | Beta-blockers Thiazides Loop diuretics Corticosteroids |
How do beta blockers affect blood glucose levels? (2) | -Interact with insulin and other hypoglycemic agents -Can mask s/s of hypoglycemia |
How often should a newly diagnosed diabetes patient check his glucose? | 3x daily, before meals |
How often should a diabetes patient check his glucose? | At least once a day, but could change depending on how stable glucose is |
Why shouldn't alcohol be taken with hypoglycemic drugs? | Hypoglycemia and lactic acidosis are more common |
Identify the effect of corticosteroids on blood glucose levels. | Increases blood glucose |
Identify the labs/tests needed when assessing pt receiving oral hypoglycemic therapy. (8) | CBC, electrolytes, glucose, A1C level, lipid profile, osmolality, hepatic and renal function |
_______ insulin is used for acute management of hyperglycemia. | Regular insulin |
Insulin is required for a pt with Type ___ DM. It is prescribed to a Type ___ DM pt who cannot control their blood glucose. | Type 1 DM; Type 2 DM |
Identify the pregnancy category for insulin. | Category A |
How is insulin available? | Subcutaneous (maintenance) and IV (emergency) |
Identify the 3 rapid-acting insulins. | aspart (Novolog), lispro (Humalog), glulisine (Apidra) |
Identify the 1 short-acting insulins. | regular (Novolin R, Humulin R) |
Identify the 1 intermediate-acting insulins. | isophane susp (NPH, Humulin N) |
Identify the 2 long-acting insulins. | detemir (Levemir), glargine (Lantus) |
Identify the onset, peak, and duration of insulin aspart (Novolog). | Onset: 10-20 mins; Peak: 1-3 hr; Dura: 3-5 hr |
Identify the onset, peak, and duration of insulin lispro (Humalog). | Onset: 5-15 mins; Peak: 1-1.5 hr; Dura: 3-4 hr |
Identify the onset, peak, and duration of insulin glulisine (Apidra). | Onset: 15-30 mins; Peak: 1 hr; Dura: 3-4 hr |
Identify the onset, peak, and duration of insulin regular (Humulin R, Novolin R.) | Onset: 30-60 mins; Peak: 1-5 hr; Dura: 6-10 hr |
Identify the onset, peak, and duration of insulin isophane susp (NPH, Humulin N). | Onset: 1-2 hr; Peak: 6-14 hr; Dura: 16-24 hr |
Identify the onset, peak, and duration of insulin detemir (Levemir). | Onset: Gradual; Peak: 6-8 hr; Dura: to 24 hr |
Identify the onset, peak, and duration of insulin glargine (Lantus). | Onset: 1.1 hr; Peak: No peak; Dura: to 24 hr |
Which insulin has no peak? | Insulin glargine (Lantus) |
Which insulin has a gradual onset? | insulin detemir (Levemir) |
Identify the indication(s) for insulin. | Type 1 DM; DKA, gestational DM; Type 2 DM |
Which insulin is prescribed to pts with gestational diabetes? | Intermediate or long-acting |
Why is insulin a high-risk drug that requires a double check with a fellow RN? | If pt has too much insulin, blood glucose will drop too low, and pt could go into coma, eventually die |
Why is it important to rotate insulin injection sites? | Lipodystrophy may form and will affect absorption |
lipodystrophy | medical condition characterized by abnormal or degenerative conditions of the body's adipose tissue |
Administration of insulin when there is no glucose available in the blood could cause _______. When could this happen? | Serious hypoglycemia or coma; pt injects insulin but skips meal |
Why is human insulin prevalent over other types? | More effective, fewer allergies, lower incidence of resistance |
Why is it important to know the peak action of any insulin? | It is when risk for hypoglycemic adverse effects are greatest |
Why can't insulin be given orally? | GI tract destroys insulin |
Hypoglycemic s/s are ________. (7) | Tachycardia, confusion, sweating, drowsiness, convulsions, coma, death |
Identify the quickest way to reverse serious hypoglycemia. | IV glucose in dextrose solution |
Identify the quickest way to reverse serious hypoglycemia, for patients who cannot take IV glucose. | Glucagon given IV, IM, SC reverses symptoms in less than 20 mins |
Somogyi effect | the occurrence of "reactive" hyperglycemia following hypoglycemia |
dawn phenomenon | hyperglycemia secondary to hypoglycemia that occurs while we are asleep |
Identify the 7 oral hypoglycemic agents discussed in lecture. | Sulfonylureas, thiazolidinediones, alpha-glucosidase inhibotors, biguanides, meglitinides, incretin mimetics, DDP-4 inhibitors [Tip: STAB MID] |