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Munitions Systems 1
Munitions Systems Craftsman Block 1
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| 1. Determine Air Crew training requirments by using ______________________. Peacetime Conventional Ammunition Requirements. GMAT AFI 11-212 WR-ALC | AFI 11-212 |
| 2. To whom does GACP provide annual forecast instructions | MAJCOM Munitions Staff |
| 3. Forecast for CAT B munitions using applicable table in __________. Peacetime Conventional Ammunition Requirements GMAT AFI 11-212 WR-ALC | GMAT |
| 4. GACP provides annual requirements forecast instructions to MAJCOM munitions staffs not later than __________. | 15 OCT |
| 5. What is the primary vehicle to request and allocate air-to-ground and ground munitions required for testing, training, and operational need? | Five Year Forecast |
| 6. Who hosts the allocation conference in May of each year? | GACP |
| 7. MAJCOMs use which document recorded by GACP to prepare for the GAP conference? Initial DLAR WCDO RAFT PCAR | Initial DLR |
| 8. When may an Out Of Cycle Request be submitted? | After 70% of allocation has been expended |
| 9. Which of the following will present procurement recommendations based on forecasted requirements, inventory analysis, prior procurement actions, and industrial production capabilities? | GACP |
| 10. What information will assist the Department of Defense in determining future allocation levels and the amount of munitions to procure or purchase? | Past Expenditures |
| What is used to support stock levels for munitions items w/o a Master Subsidiary Relationship Code (MSRC)? | SAAR System |
| In how many days must the MASO notify customers of excess munitions requiring turn-in action by NSN, quantity, and category code? | 7 duty days |
| 13. Customers must contact Munitions Inspection within how many days of MASO notification to schedule turn-in of munitions excess to allocation? | 14 calendar days |
| 14. The MASO submits consolidated Time-Change Item requisitions __________. Semi-Annually Quarterly Annually | Quarterly |
| 15. Who performs the final quality control on stock level process to ensure that the current fiscal year allocation document has been loaded into CAS without error? AF/AQXR GACP MAJCOM MASO | MASO |
| 16. identifies the USAF War Reserve Material pre-positioning/pre-stocking requirements at designated locations worldwide to support wartime activities. | The War Consumable Distribution Objective (WCDO) |
| 17. Who is responsible for developing the Munitions Employment Plan? Squadron Commander Wing CC Munitions Flight Supervision MASO | Munitions Flight Supervision |
| 18. What does an OPLAN identify that is necessary to carry out military operations in theater? | Functional Support, Resources, Special Forces |
| 19. What plan is tailored directly for munitions? ESP OPLAN IGESP MEP | MEP *Munitions Employment Plan |
| 20. What is one of the two types of site plans used in development of the Munitions Employment Plan? | IGESP In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan |
| 21. Which plan is prepared in response to actual and potential contingencies? | OPLAN Operation Plan |
| 22. What document does the Master Training Plan (MTP) utilize to employ a strategy for ensuring the completion of all work center job requirements? | Master Task Listing (MTL) |
| 23. What AFI governs enlisted personnel skill-level training requirements? | AFI 36-2201 |
| 24. Where are all core tasks outlined? | CFETP |
| 25. What form is created for shop specific tasks not outlined in the 623? | AF Form 797 |
| 26. What is one of the trainer responsibilities? | Plan, conduct, and document training |
| 27. The trainer and supervisor may be the same individual? | True |
| 28. Trainers must plan, conduct, and evaluate training. | False - •Supervisors must plan, conduct, and evaluate training. |
| 29. Work center orientations must be conducted within 30 days of the date arrived on station. | False - Conduct and document work center orientations within 60 days of assignment |
| 30. Trainees must budget on-and off duty time to complete required training. | True |
| 31. The training manager maintains the 623 for all assigned personnel. | False-•Supervisors maintain the AF Form 623 for all assigned personnel |
| 32. Upon separation, retirement, commissioning, or promotion to master sergeant, return the 623 to the Military Personnel Flight. | False-•Upon separation, retirement, commissioning, or promotion to master sergeant, return the 623 to the individual |
| 33. The Career Field Education Training Plan is a complete history of qualifications and training completed. | True |
| 34. An individual is not required to maintain qualification on a task unless it is a part of their duty position. | True |
| 35. Transcribe within 120 days (240 days for ARC) of CFETP revision date or from date revision is posted to automated training records system | True |
| 36. Once entered into the automated system, a previously signed off task may not be deleted. | False |
| 37. AFI 36-2201V3 authorizes the use of IMDS as a method of tracking training. | True |
| 38. IMDS can only be used on a off-line terminal. *Integrated Maintenance Data System | False - •Web based program accessible through the AF Portal |
| 39. Accounts inactive for more than 15 days will be locked out. | False- •Accounts inactive for more than 30 days will be locked out. |
| 40. IMDS tracks individual users by Employee Number. | True |
| 41. The training levels for IMDS are Training Task Table, Work Center Tasks, and Unit Directed tasks. | False-•Training Task Table•Work Center Task Assignment•Individual Task Assignment |
| 42. G0-81 is also known as TBA-101. | False-•Also known as Core Automated Maintenance System-For Mobility (CAMS-FM) |
| 43. G0-81 is used primarily by AMC units for tracking individual training requirements. | True |
| 44. IMDS and G0-81 may be accessed through the AF Portal. | True |
| 45. Users request access to IMDS/G0-81 on a DD Form 1297. | False-•Users request access by filling out a DD Form 2875, System Authorization Access Request |
| 46. AMC units have been directed to utilize G0-81 as of FY 2011. | False |
| 47. Prior to handling explosive items, all personnel will be trained IAW __________. | AFI 91-202 |
| 48. After developing locally written instructions, they must be approved by __________. | Squadron CC or equivalent |
| Who is responsible for enforcing personnel/explosives limits? | Supervisors |
| 50. Clearly post personnel limits for the operations being conducted at each explosives operating location. Posted limits will distinguish between supervisors, workers, and __________. | Casuals |
| 51. The munitions Crew Chief ensures crew briefings are given before performing | any operation |
| 52. Who must establish an In Progress/End Item Inspection program IAW TO 00-20-1? | MAJCOM |
| 53. Who is responsible for compiling a list of In Progress/End Item Inspections? | Operations Officer/Maintenance (MX) Superintendent |
| 54. Which of the following is not an example of an In Progress/End Item Inspection? AIM 9L/M- Bomb body curvature -Bomb fuze settings- Trailer cotter pins | Bomb body curvature |
| 55. Which of the following individuals places their signature in the 'inspected by' block of the applicable form or automated system? | IPI Inspector |
| 56. After review, where are compiled lists of In Progress/End Item Inspections sent for approval? | Maintenance Group Commander (MXG) |
| 57. Prior to filling out an AFTO Form 244/245, individuals must reference _________. | TO 00-20-1 |
| 58. When using the AFTO Form 244, identification of the system or equipment is entered in | Part 1 |
| 59. Use this format when documenting the date on an AFTO Form 244/245: | YYYMMDD |
| 60. When applying this symbol, you restrict an item from use: | Red X |
| 61. After a piece of equipment has been involved in an incident significant to its history, document the incident using this form. | AFTO Form 95 |
| 62. What prescribes the items and quantities of equipment required to perform the mission? | Allowance Standards |
| 63. What system is designed to account for and manage all Air Force equipment? | AFEMS * Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) |
| 64. What is the minimum interval for conducting equipment inventories? | 365 Days |
| 65. What is the minimum interval for conducting equipment inventories? | Both Outgoing and Incoming Custodian |
| 66. What is a listing of equipment utilized by equipment custodians called? | CA/CRL *Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL) |
| 67. What provides supervisors a list of personnel appointed to perform, evaluate, and or inspect work of a critical nature? | Special Certification Roster |
| 68. Who approves individuals listed on the SCR? | MOO/MX SUPT |
| 69. What is the lowest skill level normally approved to be on the SCR? | 7-level |
| 70. What form is used to add/remove personnel from the SCR? | AF IMT 2426 |
| 71. Who submits personnel for approval to be listed on the SCR? | Work Center supervisor |
| 72. Which storage facilities require exterior and door lighting? | Buildings storing Cat I and Cat II munitions |
| 73. What is the minimum perimeter fence height required for MSAs? | 6 ft. |
| 74. Who assigns Controlled Inventory Item Codes (CIICs) to munitions items? | Item manager/system manager |
| 75. What are the sub-categories of Controlled Inventory Item Codes (CIIC)? | Classified, Sensitive, Pilferable |
| 76. Risk categories are assigned based on which of the following? | Security and Protection |
| 77. How many levels of IDS are required for Category I and II Missiles and Rockets and Category I and II ammunition and/or explosives? | Two |
| 78. What category of CIIC requires protection in the interest of national security? | Classified |
| Which of the following do not need to be segregated from remaining stocks using ropes, tape, placards, painted lines or other highly visible means? Unserviceable assets (CC's H, J, P and V) Serviceable assets (CC's B, C and D) | Serviceable assets (CC's B, C and D) |
| 80. Which type of storage configuration is the easiest to organize? | General Bulk Stack Storage |
| 81. Which type of configuration allows for fast response to contingencies or operational changes? | Complete Round Storage |
| 82. Which type of storage configuration can dramatically increase NEW of magazines or open stacks? | Buffered Storage |
| 83. Items in which of the following risk categories will be given storage priority in facilities with IDS? | I, II, and Classified |
| 84. What height of dunnage is required if munitions are stored outside on an asphalt surface? | 4” |
| 85. If munitions are stored inside an igloo on a concrete floor, how many inches of dunnage is required? | 2” |
| 86. If munitions are stored outside on a dirt pad, how much dunnage is required? | 6” |
| 87. What are your options when the dirt on top of an igloo gets below 24 inches? | Recover the igloo by adding dirt to get the 24 inches required Re-site the building |
| 88. Provides training to individual technicians and leaders | Air Education and Training Command (AETC) |
| 89. Ensures munitions facilities sited for explosives storage are used for their intended purpose. | Squadron Commander ( or Equivalent) |
| 90. Who briefs OG and MXG on WRM posture? | Munitions Supervision |
| 91. Storage structure ventilators may be closed ____________. | For Blowing sand/snow |
| Earth covered igloos with less than 24 inches of earth cover must be corrected within how many days or be reclassified? | 90 Days |
| 93. What types of separation should you consider when site planning? | Public Traffic Route Distance Inhabited Building Distance Intermagazine Distance Intraline Distance |
| 94. What is defined as the distance to be maintained between two AE storage locations? | Intermagazine Distance |
| 95. What is defined as the distance to be maintained between any two AE related buildings within an AE related operating line? | Intraline Distance |
| 96. What is a building, facility, or site in which operations pertaining to the manufacturing, processing, handling, or assembling of ammunition and explosives are done? | Operating Location |
| 97. What are structures, other than AE-related buildings, occupied by personnel or the General Public? | Inhabited Building |
| 98. What is the location of a quantity of AE that will create a blast, fragment, thermal, or debris hazard in the event of an accidental explosion of its contents? | Potential Explosive Site |
| 99. What report may be used in lieu of the AF Form 4331 to record re-warehousing actions? | AM567A |
| 100. Use direct input methods or which form to track all munitions movements? | AF Form 4331 |
| 101. What percentage of all movements is physically verified at least weekly? | 10% |
| 102. What percentage of all movements are verified against the transaction history listing? | 100% |
| 103. After an A/C lands, reconciliation is performed by the weapons expediter per this instruction. | AFI 21-201 |
| 104. True or False? The goal of AF Nuclear Surety is to incorporate maximum safety consistent with operational needs. | True |
| 105. High fences, barbed wire, 2 person concept, locks, alarms, WS3 vaults (USAFE only), and security forces are all positive measures to ensure adequate security for nuclear weapons. | True |
| 106. Each person in the Nuclear Surety program has specific responsibilities as outlined in AFI 91-201. | False as outlined in AFI 91-101 |
| 107. A design feature, procedure, safety rule, or accident prevention or mitigation measure that works to reduce the likelihood, severity, or consequence of an accidental or deliberate threat involving a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon system is called | False-Positive Measure |
| 108. Nuclear Surety training will be conducted initially upon assignment and annually thereafter (every 24 months). | False-will be conducted initially upon assignment and annually thereafter (every 12 months). |
| 109. ANY Nuclear Safety deficiency which does or could degrade nuclear safety is known as: | Dull Sword |
| 110. ANY Nuclear Safety deficiency which does or could degrade nuclear safety is known as: | External |
| 111. Malfunction, failure, or anomaly involving the command and control system which results in indications of critical function activation is considered | Operational |
| 112. Malfunctions or failures (catastrophic) to an intrusion detection system monitoring equipment are considered what type of incident? | Security |
| 113. Nuclear surety violations, where there is the opportunity to tamper with or damage the nuclear weapon, component or system are considered what type of incident? | Personnel |
| 114. What is the proper signature format used on equipment forms? | Interim |
| 115. What type of certification allows personnel to perform duties without restrictions as long as the AF Form is completed and signed? | Initial |
| 116. What is a temporary removal from PRP status referred to as? | Suspension |
| 117. What is a characteristic of a Suspension from PRP? | Last a maximum of 120 days |
| 118. What is not a characteristic of PRP Temporary Decertification? | Longer than 365 days |
| 119. What AFI requires development of an NWRM Fundamentals Course? | AFI 20-110 |
| 120. What is considered a passing score on the NWRM Fundamentals Course? | 80% |
| 121. What is an Air Force approved NWRM listing? | Master NWRM listing |
| 122. What is the ability to identify and account for material anywhere in the supply chain? | Positive Inventory Control |
| 123. What are the two MIL-STDs used for marking and packaging NWRM assets? | MIL-STD 129/2073 |
Created by:
MarkN
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