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Ch 1 and 2 Pathology
Intro To Pathology/Skeletal
Question | Answer |
---|---|
______ is the study of disease. | Pathology |
______ any abnormal disturbance of the function of the human body as a result of some type of injury | Disease |
______ sequence of events producing cellular changes that lead to observable changes know as “manifestations” | Pathogenesis |
______ are the patient’s perception of the disease. | Symptoms |
______ are subjective e.g. Headaches, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, pain, etc. | Symptoms |
_____ are an objective manifestation that can be detected by the physician during examination. | Signs |
______ is the study of the cause of a disease | Etiology |
_____ signifies that no causative factor can be identified. | Idiopathic |
______ disease is acquired from the environment. | Nosocomial (staph infection after hip replacement) |
_____ signifies those adverse responses that occur form medical tx itself. | Iatragenic (perforated bowel during colonoscopy) |
_______ is the name of a disease. | Diagnosis |
______ is the prediction of the course and outcome of the disease. | Prognosis |
A _________ disease is caused by deterioration | degenerative |
A ______ is a new and abnormal growth. | neoplasm |
A ______ is a cellular change that can occur in response to disease. | lesion |
A _____ tumor remains localized and is noninvasive. | Benign |
Cancers are staged using the _______ system. | TNM |
The compact (dense) bone is the _____ portion of the bone. | outer |
The _____ canal (BONE MARROW) in the spongy, inner portion. | medullary |
_____ are web-like bony structures of the bone that are visible on a detailed radiograph. | Trabeculae |
______ are cancellous (spongy) bone within the skull. | Diploe |
______ is the fibrous membrane that encloses all the bone except the joint surfaces. | Periosteum |
Thickening of the diploe in the skull can be an indication of ______ disease. | Paget's |
The _____ is the growth zone between the epiphysis and diaphysis. | metaphysis (area of greatest metabolic activity) |
The ____ is the shaft of the long bone. | diaphysis |
The _______ plate is a growth plate, in a growing child between the metaphysis and epiphysis. | epiphyseal |
______ disease is additive and subtractive; "cotton wool" appearance; osteolytic/-blastic stages occur; unknown etiology. | Paget's |
Osteogenesis imperfecta is also known as _____ ____ disease. | "brittle bone" |
Osteogenesis imperfecta would need a ______ in exposure. | decrease |
Which osteogenesis is present at birth? After birth? | O.I. congenita; O.I. tarda |
________ is the M/C INHERITED disorder affecting the skeletal system. | Achondroplasia. |
Osteopetrosis is also known as ______ _____. | marble bone. |
Bone deformity, dwarfism, shortened extremities, increased lumbar lordosis, bow legs and bulky forehead all describe __________. | achondroplasia |
_______ is failure of finger or toes to separate; ______ are extra digits. | syndactyly; polydactly |
______ is described as the foot most commonly turned inward at the ankle and is M/C in males. | Clubfoot |
_______ is abnormal lateral curvature of the spine. | Scoliosis |
Scoliosis shows right ______ in the T-spine and left _____ in the L spine. | convexity; convexity |
Scoliosis is _____% idiopathic and _____% trauma induced. | 80; 20 |
_______ is a condition in which one lateral half of a vertebra fails to form. | Hemivertebra |
What if failure of the odontoid to form? | Odontoid agenesis |
What is failure of the odontoid to fuse with C1? | Os odontoideum |
What is the name of the epiphyseal growth plate of the iliac crest? | Risser's Sign |
What is incomplete closure of the vertebral canal? | Spina Bifida |
Failure of the bony fusion of the 2 laminae is ______ _____ ______. | spina bifida occulta |
__________ vertebra is a vertebra that takes on the characteristics of both vertebrae. | Transitional |
Transitional vertebra is most common at which two junctions? | T/l or L/S |
What is a calcification that bridges the lateral masses and the posterior arch creating a foramen? | Posterior ponticle (occurs only at C1) |
A ______ ______ vertebrae is M/C in the C-spine, has a decreased AP diameter of vertebral body, has a rudimentary disk and is usually fusion of apophyseal joint. | congenital block |
__________ vertebra is a vertebra that takes on the characteristics of both vertebrae. | Transitional |
Transitional vertebra is most common at which two junctions? | T/l or L/S |
What is a calcification that bridges the lateral masses and the posterior arch creating a foramen? | Posterior ponticle (occurs only at C1) |
A ______ ______ vertebrae is M/C in the C-spine, has a decreased AP diameter of vertebral body, has a rudimentary disk and is usually fusion of apophyseal joint. | congenital block |
What is the syndrome associated with a webbed neck, low hairline, multiple block vertebrae, sprengel's deformity. | Klippel-Fiel Syndrome |
What is the congenital abnormality in which the brain and cranial vault do not form. | Anencephaly |
___________ is premature closure of any of the cranial sutures. Results in an altered shaped head. | Craniosynostosis |
________ is infection of the bone and bone marrow. | Osteomyelitis |
Osteomyelitis shows a ______-_______ appearance. | worm-eaten |
What describes an autoimmune disease; effects bilateral wrist and feet then progresses; tends to be bilateral and symmetrical and uniform loss of jt space? | RA - rheumatoid arthritis |
Which disease results is swelling, osteopenia, subluxation w/ ulnar deviation and marginal erosions? | RA - rheumatoid arthritis |
RA can destroy the ligament around the dens and cause separation of the ___________. This is visualized in a lateral C-spine. | Atlantodento-Interspace (ADI) |
_______ _______ _______ occurs for children under 16 y/o. | Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis |
Fewer than ____% of children with JVA go on to have a progressive disease. | 20% |
Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is also known as ____ ______ ______ or ____ _____. | Marie Strumpell Disease; bamboo spine |
______ ______ shows SI jt. obliteration and "shiny corner" on the anterior portion of the vertebra. | Ankylosing Spondylitis |
AS needs an ______ in exposure. | increase |
______ _____ is calcification of the spine and vertebral ligaments. | Ankylosing spondylitis - Bamboo spine (extreme kyphosis) |
__________ is the M/C type of arthritis. | Osteoarthritis |
__________ affects large weight bearing joints and causes asymmetrical narrowing of joint space. | Osteoarthritis |
Overgrowth of articular cartilage may cause _________ of the spine. | spondylophytes |
Heberdens's nodes causes pain and swelling in the _______ and Bouhchard's nodes causes pain and swelling in the _________. | D.I.P.S; P.I.P.S. |
________ is an inflammatory disease associated with inflamed bursa and is most common is the shoulder. | Bursitis (calcific tendonitis) |
What is cystic swelling in the tendon sheath and is M/C in the extensor surface of the wrist? | Ganglion cysts |
________ is a metabolic disorder in which excess amounts of uric acid are produced; M/C at the great toe @ MTP joint; DDX can be a Bunion; can appear "punched out" on an x-ray. | Gout |
" mouse ears" - DIPS, "pencil in cup" - DIPS, "ray- pattern" - fingers = ______ __________. | Psoriatic arthritis |
Reiter's Syndrome is also known as ________ _______. | Lovers heel |
Benign neoplasms are usually seen with the _________ population. | elderly. |
During a _________, spasms can cause a loss of cervical lordosis or cervical kyphosis. | whiplash |
During a normal view of an oblique L-spine, the "ear" of the scottie dog should point to the _______. | "neck" |
___________ is a lucent break between the superior and inferior articular processes (PARS DEFECT). | spondylolysis |
______% of pars defect occur at the L5-S1 junction. | 90; |
A BILATERAL pars defect will result in _____________. | spondylolisthesis |
Name three common benign tumors: | osteoma, osteochondroma and GCT. |
Name three common malignant neoplasms: | osteosarcoma, Ewings tumor and multiple myeloma |
______ is the most common benign bone tumor. | Osteochondroma (exostosis) |
_________ will demonstrate "coat-hanger" lesions. | Osteochondroma |
_____% of people with osteochondroma can produce a malignant chondrosarcoma. | 10% |
______ is M/C in the skull or sinuses ; very dense lesion. | Osteoma |
__________ is the M/C benign tumor of the hands and also described as a "Bubbly" lesion with small, stippled calcifications. | Endochondroma |
Endochondroma and osteoid osteoma results in a ________ in technique. | decrease |
An _______ _________ is a benign tumor less than 2 cm; M/C in femur, tibia or spine; small lytic lesion with a dense center (sclerotic nidus); pain at night relieved by aspirin. | Osteoid Osteoma |
_______ sarcoma effects children; involves the diaphysis of long bones and results in periosteal reaction (onion skin). | Ewing's |
Chondrosarcoma is a ____________ neoplasm and is 10% of all tumors. | malignant |
Most skeletal tumors arise from carcinoma ______ spread. | metastatic |
The _____ is the M/C site for metastases to occur in the skeleton. | spine |
________ is similar to osteoid osteoma but usually larger than 2 cm; M/C in the spine. | Osteoblastoma |
_____% of GCT are benign and 15% are malignant; affects ends of long bones. | 50 |
A giant cell tumor (osteoclastoma) will have a _____-____ appearance. | soap bubble |
M/C benign tumor of the spine is a ______; also has a CORDUROY appearance; skull has a "spoke-wheel" appearance. | hemangioma |
__________ is the M/C primary malignancy of the skeleton; periosteal reaction results in a sun-ray or sunburst appearance. | Osteosarcoma (osteogenic sarcoma) |