Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Navy Damage Control
Damage Controlman Study Guide
| QUESTIONS | ANSWERS |
|---|---|
| Organization and teamwork are considered the key factors for successful damage control operations | True |
| The basic objectives of shipboard damage control are as follows: take measures to prevent damage, minimize and localize damage as it occurs, accomplish repairs as soon as possible, restore equipment to operation, and care for injured personnel | True |
| What person is normally responsible for requesting quotas to send a repair party to school for training?What document provides several repair locker inventory lists for various types of ships. | Damage control assistant |
| What publication contains information (tailored to your ship) on damage control systems, ventilation systems, piping systems, electrical systems, and compartmentation? | Damage control books |
| What eight-volume series of books can help you familiarize yourself with your ship’s characteristics? | Ship information book |
| What person is responsible for damage control? | Damage control is an all-hands responsibility |
| What officer is also known as the damage control officer? | Engineer officer |
| When logging fittings in the damage control closure log, you may log a fitting open for what maximum amount of time? | 24 hours |
| What assistant to the engineer officer assists the damage control assistant in providing damage control training for the ship’s company? | Fire marshal |
| The purpose of the Rescue and Assistance Bill is to organize qualified personnel to provide assistance outside the command. | True |
| What person is responsible for the Toxic Gas Bill? | Damage control assistant |
| What report is submitted after an equipment repair that was reported as a CASREP is completed? | CASCOR |
| What officer monitors the Heat Stress Program for compliance? | Safety officer |
| The two elements of the damage control organization are the damage control administrative organization and the damage control battle organization. | True |
| The three objectives of damage control are? | (1) Maintain the established material conditions of readiness; (2) train all personnel in all aspects of shipboard damage control; (3) maintain damage control systems and equipment in the best condition possible to ensure survivability. |
| What damage control station receives reports from all others and coordinates their actions? | Damage control central |
| The three responsibilities of the at-sea fire party are? | (1Respond immediatelyto fire alarms when the ship’s repair parties are not manned(2extinguish small fireswithout disrupting other ship operations3control fires until ongoing sensitivecritical evolutions can be secured and GQ stations can be manned and rea |
| What person is in charge of the fire party at the emergency scene and directs the efforts of the fire party to combat the emergency situation? | The on-scene leader |
| Investigators normally operate in pairs, travel assigned routes, and report conditions to the repair locker. | True |
| By monitoring the reports of other repair stations, each repair party will be able to assume the duties of DCC if DCC becomes a battle casualty. | True |
| The five types of sound-powered battle telephone systems include primary, auxiliary, telemetric, kinetic, and miscellaneous | False |
| Message blanks are the standardized method of written communication used to relay damage control information? | True |
| What types of drawings does a Damage Controlman use most often? | Blueprints and isometric damage control diagrams |
| Damage control central and the various repair lockers are locations that may use isometric damage control diagrams during a casualty. | True |
| On an isometric damage control diagram, what types of information are indicated by dotted lines and cross-hatchings? | Hidden boundaries, piping, and valves |
| The keel is the backbone of the ship | True |
| What is the forward edge of the stem called? | Cutwater |
| The vertical distance from the keel to the waterline of a ship is known by what term? | Draft |
| The first level above the main deck is called the 01 level. | The first level above the main deck is called the 01 level |
| Compartmentation is the design factor on a ship that allows for more effective control of fires and floods. | True |
| Each compartment has a four-part number separated by hyphens. | True |
| Compartments completely to starboard are given odd numbers. | True |
| The last part of the compartment number is the letter that identifies the? | primary use of the compartment |
| What type of door provides access to a compartment that is not often used? | Individually dogged watertight door |
| The watertight integrity of a naval ship is established when the ship is built. | True |
| What types of watertight closures are installed in interior and exterior areas where rapid access or egress is required? | Raised watertight hatch with scuttle |
| A successful chalk test does not guarantee a closure is watertight, but it does provide a reasonable assurance of watertight integrity. | True |
| What material condition of readiness provides the least amount of protection? | XRAY |
| The three material conditions of readiness are XRAY, YOKE, and ZEBRA. | True |
| What material condition is set to isolate and control fires and flooding when the ship is not at general quarters stations? | ZEBRA |
| Fittings having what classification are kept open during all material conditions? | WILLIAM |
| What classification of fitting may be opened without special authorization when proceeding to battle stations or as required in routine inspection checks? | CIRCLE XRAY |
| All compartments must have a compartment checkoff list permanently posted within them in clear view of the space access. | True |
| When a compartment has more than one entrance, duplicate compartment checkoff lists must be posted at each entrance. | True |
| What person prescribes the limit to which the DCA or OOD may approve the modification of a material condition of readiness? | Commanding officer |
| The closure log is maintained at all times, whether the ship is in port or underway. | True |
| The maximum time a closure or fitting may be logged open is 24 hours. | True |
| When conducting a compartment test and inspection, you should follow the specific details provided in which of the following references? | Planned Maintenance System (PMS) |
| A successful chalk test does not guarantee a closure is watertight, but it does provide a reasonable assurance of watertight integrity. | True |
| What material condition of readiness provides the least amount of protection? | XRAY |
| The three material conditions of readiness are XRAY, YOKE, and ZEBRA. | True |
| What material condition is set to isolate and control fires and flooding when the ship is not at general quarters stations? | ZEBRA |
| Fittings having what classification are kept open during all material conditions? | WILLIAM |
| What classification of fitting may be opened without special authorization when proceeding to battle stations or as required in routine inspection checks? | CIRCLE XRAY |
| All compartments must have a compartment checkoff list permanently posted within them in clear view of the space access. | True |
| When a compartment has more than one entrance, duplicate compartment checkoff lists must be posted at each entrance. | True |
| What person prescribes the limit to which the DCA or OOD may approve the modification of a material condition of readiness? | Commanding officer |
| The closure log is maintained at all times, whether the ship is in port or underway. | True |
| The maximum time a closure or fitting may be logged open is 24 hours. | True |
| When conducting a compartment test and inspection, you should follow the specific details provided in which of the following references? | Planned Maintenance System (PMS) |
| The ship’s schedule of watertight integrity tests and inspections is issued by NAVSEA. | True |
| The information contained in the ship’s schedule of watertight integrity tests and inspections must be strictly adhered to when you are conducting compartment air tests. | True |
| A rapid chemical reaction that releases energy in the form of light and noticeable heat is known as combustion. | True |
| The lowest temperature at which a flammable substance gives off vapors that will burn when a flame or spark is applied is known by what term? | Flash point |
| The temperature at which a fuel will continue to burn after it has been ignited is known by what term? | Fire point |
| What class of fire occurs in combustible metals, such as magnesium, titanium, and sodium? | DELTA |
| A fire produces carbon monoxide (CO) when there is not enough oxygen present for the complete combustion of all of the carbon in the burning material. | True |
| A fire produces carbon dioxide (CO2) when there is complete combustion of all of the carbon in the burning material? | True |
| Under normal conditions, oxygen accounts for what percentage of the chemical composition of air? | 20.8% |
| Which of the following processes is NOT a method of transferring heat? | Glaciation |
| Heat, fuel, and oxygen are the three components of the fire triangle. | True |
| Water is a cooling agent and the sea provides a ship an inexhaustible supply. | True |
| AFFF can be used alone or in combination with PKP. | True |
| Halon 1301 is a dense colorless and odorless gas that does not conduct electricity or leave a residue. | True |
| The portable submersible pump is rated to deliver 180 gallons per minute, against a maximum head of 50 feet. | True |
| The firemain or a P-100 pump supplies the power for the Ramfan™ through a 1 1/2-inch hose connection. | True |
| The firemain system is used primarily to supply seawater to what other systems? | Fireplug and sprinkling systems |
| What type of firemain system is separated both vertically and athwartship? | Vertical offset loop |
| There is a total of how many basic types of firemain systems designed for use on large Navy ships? | 3 |
| Sprinkler systems are used for emergency cooling of, and fire fighting in, magazines, ready-service rooms, ammunition, and missile handling areas | True |
| What are the two basic types of hydraulically controlled sprinkler systems used on naval ships? | The firemain-operated dry type and the firemain-operated wet type. |
| What type of pump for the installed AFFF system is provided in capacities of 12, 27, and 60 gpm? | Single-speed injection pump |
| AFFF is stored in storage/transfer tanks having a capacity of up to 3,500 gallons and in service tanks that vary in capacity from 50 gallons to what maximum size? | 2,000 gallons |
| What type of seawater pressure-operated control valve allows the flow of AFFF/seawater solution through the distribution system or controls seawater flow on flight deck AFFF injection systems? | Powertrol |
| What type of seawater pressure-operated control valve allows the flow of seawater from the firemain system to be mixed with AFFF concentrate? | Hycheck |
| What type of valve automatically proportions the correct amount of AFFF concentrate with seawater? | Balancing valve |
| The full discharge of the gas from a Halon 1301 system into a protected space is completed in how many seconds? | 10 seconds |
| What type of system normally supplements Halon 1301 systems in machinery spaces and pump rooms? | AFFF. An AFFF sprinkling system normally supplements Halon 1301 systems in machinery spaces and pump rooms. |
| Each APC system includes one or two cylinders filled with a solution of potassium carbonate in water pressurized with what type of compressed gas? | Nitrogen |
| The APC system has a total of how many manual modes of operation? | Three manual backup modes of operation are provided at the cylinder assembly, the pressure release control box, and the remote manual control box. |
| What chemical action is defined as a chemical decomposition due to the application of heat? | Pyrolysis |
| The lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapor to form an ignitable mixture is known by what term? | Flashpoint |
| The formation of burning gases in the overhead of a compartment is known by what term? | Rollover |
| The lower explosive limit (LEL) for a gas is the lowest percentage of that particular gas in an air-gas mixture that forms an ignitable mixture. | True |
| There are a total of how many distinct stages in the growth of a fire within a compartment? | Four |
| During the initial stages of a fire, what person proceeds directly to the scene to direct efforts of the rapid response team. | Fire marshal |
| The new EEBD provides a maximum of how many minutes of oxygen for escape purposes? | 10 Seconds |
| What percentage of oxygen must be present when conducting post-fire atmospheric testing of a compartment? | Between 19.5 to 22 percent |
| Halon 1301 was discharged into the compartment to extinguish a fire. This requires a test be conducted for which of the following types of gas? | Hydrogen fluoride |
| The sympthoms of heat stroke are as follows | No sweating—skin is hot and dry,Pupils of the eyes may become constricted,Strong rapid pulse,Possible unconsciousness |
| The symptoms of heat stress are as follows: | The skin appears ashy gray; the skin is moist and clammy,The pupils of the eyes may be dilated (enlarged),Vital signs are normal; but the victim may have a weak pulse and rapid shallow breathing,Heavy sweating |
| After a class BRAVO fire, the compartment should be tested for the following gases | • Hydrocarbons • Carbon dioxide • Carbon monoxide • Hydrogen chloride • Hydrogen cyanide |
| What document provides several repair locker inventory lists for various types of ships. | The Allowance Equipage List |
| On a Navy ship, what personnel are responsible for damage control? | All hands |
| Plugs made of softwood, such as yellow pine or fir, are quite effective for plugging holes up to what size? | 3 inches by 3 inches |
| Which of the following woods are best to use for the construction of shores? | Douglas fir and yellow pine |
| What type of patches are effective for use over holes that have jagged edges projecting inboard? | Box |
| A shore is a portable beam, a wedge is a block, triangular on the sides and rectangular on the butt end, and a shole is a flat block that may be placed under the end of a shore to distribute pressure. | True |
| A strongback is a bar or beam of wood or metal that is used to distribute pressure or to serve as an anchor for a patch. The strongback is often shorter than a shore. | True |
| What is the fully extended load for the model 6-11 steel adjustable shore? | 6,000 pounds |
| A steel wedge is considered more valuable as a prying tool than for actual shoring. | True |
| The most rapid and accurate way to measure a shore for cutting is to use an adjustable shoring batten. | True |
| Which of the following types of equipment are available on the ship in case a space is inaccessible due to damaged doors, hatches, and/or scuttles? | The Portable Hydraulic Access and Rescue System (PHARS) and the Portable Exothermic Cutting Unit (PECU) |
| What is the maximum pounds of pressure a jubilee patch can resist? | 100 |
| What is the maximum pounds of pressure a soft patch can resist? | 150 |
| When casualty power cables are rigged, the connections must always be made from the load to the supply to avoid handling energized cables. | TRUE |
| The faces of the casualty power terminals of an ac system are marked A, B, and C, and the ends of the cables are colored black, white, and red, respectively. | When connecting the cables to the terminals, connect the black lead to A, the white lead to B, and the red lead to C. |
| EWARP | Two sizes 2X5 AND 4X15, 150 psi, 300 degrees Fahrenheit,syntho-glass patch hardens in 30 min |
| Between the upper deck and the poop deck. | AFTER WELL DECK |
| A partial deck above the main deck located all the way aft. | POOP DECK |
| Compartmentation serves the following functions: | • Allows for more effective control of fires and floods. • Strengthens the ship’s structure. • Helps defend against a chemical,biological, and radiological (CBR) attack. • Segregates various ongoing activities. • Provides underwater protection by the use |
| Compartments have a four-part number separated by hyphens; the four parts indicate the following: | 1. The deck upon which the compartment is located. 2. Location of the compartment by frame. 3. The position of the compartment relative to the ship’s centerline. 4. The compartment use |
| The MCU-2/P protective mask comes in a total of how many sizes? | True: small, med, large |
| What is the minimum number of C2 canisters issued with a MCU2/P protective mask? | Two. A third C2 canister is issued by the ship. |
| What is the maximum life expectancy of a C2 canister when opened in a noncontaminated area? | 60 days |
| What is the maximum life expectancy of a C2 canister in a contaminated environment? | 30 days |
| There are a total of how many sheets of M-8 detector paper in an unopened booklet? | 25 |
| What color does M-9 turn when a nerve or blister agent is detected? | Red |
| The M256A1 detector kit is used to test for what form of chemical agent? | Vapor |
| What is the primary function of the AN/KAS-1? | To provide U.S. Navy ships with the capability to detect and identify a chemical warfare (CW) agent attack |
| Which of the following life forms is an example of a disease vector? | Arachnid |
| There is always an incubation period between the time an organism enters a body and the first signs of the symptoms of an illness. | True |
| An indication of biological warfare is when the number of casualties reaches epidemic proportions within days, with most occurring within 24 hours. | True |
| What type of decontamination does the countermeasure washdown system provide? | Active |
| What type of decontamination is performed outside CCA? | Gross |
| What are the three steps of decontamination when the M291 Kit is used? | Physical removal, absorption, and neutralization |
| The collective protection system (CPS) is a ventilation system that prevents the entry of airborne chemical, biological, and radiological contamination into the interior of the ship. | True |
| Electrons, protons, and neutrons are the three subatomic particles that make up an atom. | True |
| The electron has what type of electrical charge? | Negative |
| The nucleus of an atom is composed of what two particles of matter? | Neutrons and Protons |
| The proton has what type of an electrical charge? | Positive |
| An airburst is a nuclear burst where the point of detonation is below what altitude? | 100,000 feet |
| A nuclear surface burst is a burst where the point of detonation is on or above the surface of the earth and the fireball touches the surface of the earth. | True |
| An underwater burst produces underwater shock and a water plume that then causes a base surge. | True |
| Four basic types of nuclear radiation are given off during a nuclear explosion: alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays, and neutrons. | True |
| Underwater shock produces injury among topside and below-deck personnel by the rapid upward movement of the deck. | True |
| What type of blast causes bodily displacement casualties for personnel in the open? | Airblast |
| Thermal radiation can cause burn injuries when the skin directly absorbs radiant energy. | True |
| A nuclear burst produces an electromagnetic pulse (EMP) that contains frequency components in the range from a few to several hundred kilocycles per second. | True |
| “Initial nuclear radiation” is defined as the radiation that is emitted by the fireball and the cloud during the first minute after detonation. | True |
| Which of the following factors is not considered in determining if greater damage to a ship will be caused by the direct wave or the reflected wave from an underwater nuclear burst? | Height of wave action at time of burst |
| Nuclear radiation cannot be detected by any of the five senses. | True |
| Which of the following is NOT a performance function of a radiac device. | Detect neutron and X-ray radiation |
| The AN/PDR-43 unit has three-meter scales. | True |
| What is the maximum amount of time the AN/PDR-65 will operate on fully charged batteries? | True |
| The AN/PDR-43 unit has three-meter scales | True |
| Which of the following is NOT a performance function of a radiac device? | Nuclear radiation cannot be detected by any of the five senses. |
| Which of the following terms best describes a type of survey that is recommended for any area in which measured radiation dosages exceed predicted levels by more than 25 percent? | Detailed survey |
| A “half-thickness” is defined as the amount of material necessary to cut down the amount of radiation to one-half of its original value. | True |
| The objective of exposure control is to limit the total dose received by individuals from both internal and external sources and to minimize the transfer of contamination into the interior of the ship. | True |
| Exposure rate to gamma radiation is significantly lower in deep shelter locations because of distances and the structural material between compartments. | True |
| Radiological decontamination is the physical removal of the contamination that results from a nuclear weapon detonation. | True |
| Detailed information on the laws of mathematics and physics used to determine the buoyancy and stability of a ship are provided in Naval Ships’ Technical Manual (NSTM), chapter 079, volume 1, and in NSTM, chapter 096. | True |
| Which of the following trigonometric functions is NOT used for making calculations to determine a ship’s stability? | Cotangent |
| Which of the following terms best defines force multiplied by the distance from an axis about which you want to find its effect? | Moment of force |
| The volume of water that is moved by the hull of a ship is known as “displacement.” | True |
| What measurement is known by the term freeboard? | Distance from the waterline to the weather deck edge |
| Which of the following information is NOT contained in the “booklet of inclining experiment data?” | Reserve buoyancy |
| The ship’s center of gravity, is the point at which all weights of the ship may be considered to be concentrated. The force of gravity is considered as acting straight downward, through the center of gravity, at right angles to the waterline. | True |
| Detailed informationconcerning changes in the center of gravity of a ship can be obtained from which of the following NSTMs? | NSTM, chapter 096 |
| The ship’s center of gravity, is the point at which all weights of the ship may be considered to be concentrated. The force of gravity is considered as acting straight downward, through the center of gravity, at right angles to the waterline. | True |
| What person is responsible for the training teams? | Team leader |
| One of the responsibilities of the training team is to assess the readiness and effectiveness of watchteam performance of watchstation specific tasks | True |
| What person is designated chairman of the planning board for training and is also the team leader for the Damage control training team (DCTT)? | Executive officer |
| What person serves as overall manager of the training event briefs, performance, and debriefs? | DCTT team coordinator |
| What person is responsible to complete a safety walk-thru and pre-event check prior to drill? | All team members |
| Which of the following is NOT an objective of damage control training? | Developing training reports for the engineer officer |
| Specific training for the damage control repair parties includes developing the ability to set material conditions. | True |
| Which one of the following is NOT an objective of the in-port damage control training team? | Provide training in crash and salvage drills |
| Which of the following training requirements is provided by the damage control training team for the ship’s damage control petty officers? | Training on setting requirements for material condition yoke |
| What type of training discusses the basic parts, the functions of each part, and the operation of equipment with limiting parameters? | Lecture |
Created by:
cookt0802
Popular Military sets