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Microbiology
Excelsior Exam (ISM)
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Who observed cells in plant material? | Hooke |
| Who proved that microorganisms caused disease? | Koch |
| Viruses cannot reporduce outside of a _____ ____ | host cell |
| What finding was essential for Jenner's vaccination process? | A weakened microorganism may produce immunity |
| Recombinant DNA technology can be used to make what? | human hormones, vaccines, drugs |
| You are observing a cell through a microscope and note that it has no apparent nucleus. You conclude that it mostl likely has a........... | peptidoglycan cell wall. |
| A nucleated, green cell that moves by means of flagella is.... | an algae |
| An agent that reproduces in cells but is not composed of cells and contain RNA as its genetic material is a.... | virus |
| A multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives in an animal host is a | helminth |
| In the name Escherichia coli, coli is the specific..... | epithet |
| You are looking at a white cottony growth on a culture medium. Microscopic examination reveals it is multicellular. You can conclude that the organism...... | - has DNA enclosed in a nucleus -has cell walls -absorbs organic nutrients -is eukaryotic |
| Members of what groups contain DNA? | -bacteria -helminths -fungi -protozoa |
| What groups have cell walls? | -bacteria -fungi -plantae |
| You are observing a cell through a microscope and note that it has no apparent nucleus. You conclude that it mostl likely has a........... | peptidoglycan cell wall. |
| What is true about enzymes? | - lover activation energy of reaction- are not used up in a reaction- are made of proteins |
| What type of bond is between molecules of water in a beaker of water? | Hydrogen bond |
| What type of bond holds hydrogen and oxygen atoms in a molecule of H2O? | covalent bond |
| What type of molecule contains the alcohol glycerol? | lipids |
| What type of molecule is composed of CH2O units? | carbohydrates |
| Structurally, ATP is most like what type of molecule? | nucleic acids |
| What molecule has chemicals in genes? | nucleic acid |
| Which molecule is composed of a chain of amino acids? | proteins |
| What are the primary molecules making up plasma membranes in cells? | lipids |
| Starch, dextran, glycogen, and cellulose are polymers of... | glucose |
| What structure does light pass through after leaving the condenser in a compound light microscope? | specimen |
| What are the steps of the Gram Stain? | 1. Alcohol-acetane -2. Crystal violet -3. Safranin -4.Iodine |
| The counterstain in the acide-fast stain is a basic... | dye |
| The purpose of a mordant in the Gram stain is to prevent the.. | crystal violet from leaving the cells |
| The best uses of a negative stain is to determine... | cell size and shape |
| Simple staining is often necessary to improve contrast in what microscope? | electron microscope |
| What microscope is used to see internal structures of cells in a natural state? | phase-contrast microscope |
| What microscope achieves the highest magnification and greatest resolution? | electron microscope |
| The light that hits the specimen is scattered and does not come directly from the light source in what microscope? | darkfield microscope |
| What microscope takes advantage of differences in the refractive indexes of cell structure? | phase-contrast microscope |
| What is the appearance of gram-positive bacteria after addition of the first dye in the Gram stain? | purple |
| What is the appearance of gram-negative bacteria after addition of the decolorizing agent in the Gram stain? | coloreless |
| What is the total magnification of a chloraplast viewed with a 10X ocularlens and a 45X objective lens? | 450X |
| You suspect a 100 nm structure is present in a cell. What provides the lowest magnification that you can use to see this structure? | scanning electron microscope |
| Assume you stain Bacillus by applying malachite green with heat then counterstaining with safranin. Through the microscope, the green structures are... | endospores |
| (51)You find colorless areas in cells in a Gram-stained smear. What should you do next? | an endospore stain |
| What Gram reaction do you expect from acid-fast bacteria? | Gram-positive |
| Bacteria smears are fixed before staining to... | kill the bacteria and affix the cells to the slide |
| The purpose of the occular lens is to magnify the image from the.... | objective lens |
| What is true about gram-positive cell walls? | -maintains shape -sensitive to lysozyme -contains teichoic acids |
| What happens when a bacterial cell is placed in a solution containing 5% NaCl? | water will move out of the cell |
| Force of which a solvent moves across a semi-permeable membrane from a higher to a lower concentration is.... | osmotic pressure |
| By what mechanism can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration? | active transport |
| Characteristic of the plasma membrane: | 1.selectively permeable -2. site of cell wall formation -3.compoed of phospholipid bilayer -4.contains proteins |
| The mitochondrion most closely resembles what type of cell? | prokaryotic |
| What is true of prokaryotic cells? | 1.motile by means of flagella -2.reproduce by binary fission -3.have a semirigid cell wall |
| What are some structures found in prokaryotic cells? | 1.axial filament -2.peritrichous flagella -3.flagella -4.Pili |
| What are some parts of the active transport process? | 1.transports protein -2.ATP -3.plasma membrane -4.fungi |
| What Gram reaction do you expect from acid-fast bacteria? | Gram-positive |
| Bacteria smears are fixed before staining to... | kill the bacteria and affix the cells to the slide |
| The purpose of the occular lens is to magnify the image from the.... | objective lens |
| What is true about gram-positive cell walls? | -maintains shape -sensitive to lysozyme -contains teichoic acids |
| What happens when a bacterial cell is placed in a solution containing 5% NaCl? | water will move out of the cell |
| In bacteria, photosynthetic pigments are found in... | chromatophores |
| The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion requires | transporter proteins |
| (67)What cell structure has a role in the initiation of disease? | Fimbria |
| Fimbria and pili differ in that pili are used to transfer... | DNA |
| Where are phospholipids most likely found in a prokaryotic cell? | plasma membrane |
| What is found in mitochondria and prokaryotes? | -the circular chromosome -the ATP generating mechanism -70S ribosomes |
| What is found in archaea? | Pseudomurein |
| What is found in mycoplasmas? | Sterol-rich cell membranes |
| (73) What will happen if a bacterial cell is placed in distilled water with lysozyme? | the cell will undergo osmotic lysis |
| What will happen if a bacterial cell is placed in 10% NaCl with penicillin? | the cell will plasmolyze |
| What are some energy reserves? | -sulfur ganules -lipid inclusions -metachromatic granules -polysaccharide granules |
| The bacteria on the outside of termite protozoa.. | propel the protozoan |
| What compounds are enzymes? | -dehydrogenase -cellulase -B galacttosidase |
| How many molecules of ATP can be generated from the complex oxidation of glucose to CO2 and H2O? | 38 |
| What is true about anaerobic respiration? | 1.involves the Krebs cycle -2.requires cytochromes -3.involves the reduction of nitrate -4.generates ATP |
| What is the fate of pyruvic acid in an organism that uses aerobic respiration? | it is oxidized in the Krebs cycle |
| Fatty acids are catabolized in the... | Krebs cycle |
| According to the chemiosmotic mechanism, ATP is generated when... | protons are moved across a membrane |
| What are some end products of fermentation? | -glycerol -acetone -ethyl alcohol -lactic acid |
| A strictly fermentative bacterium produces energy by... | glycolysis only |
| What percent of the total ATP produced from the complete catabolism of glucose is produced by aerobic respiration? | 89% |
| What is true about beta oxidation? | 1.it is the method of catabolizing fatty acids- 2.involves the formation of acetyl CoA- 3.involves the formation of 2 carbon units |
| The oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors is... | fermentation |
| Aerobic respiration differs from anaerobic respiration in what respect? | the final electron acceptors are different |
| In green and purple bacteria, electrons to reduce CO2 come from... | CO2 |
| What uses CO2 for carbon and H2 for energy? | Chemoautotroph |
| What uses glucose for carbon and energy? | Chemoheterotroph |
| What has bacteriochlorophylls and uses alcohols for carbon? | Photoheterotroph |
| Cyanobacteria are an example of what? | Photoautotroph |
| An enzyme, citrate synthase, in the Krebs cycle is inhibited by ATP; this is an example of what types of inhibitions? | -noncompetitive inhibition-feedback inhibition-allosteric inhibition |
| A bacterial culture grown in a glucose-peptide medium causes the pH to increase. The bacteria are most likely | using the peptides |
| When oxygen is unavailabel, Halobacterium produce ATP by | photophosphorylation |
| The addition of what to a culture medium will neutralize acids? | buffers |
| Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a | hypertonic environment |
| The term facultative anaerobe refers to an organism that uses | oxygen or grows without oxygen |
| What are some disadvantages of the standard plate count? | -cells may form aggregates -chemical and physical requirements are determined by media and incubation -requires incubation time |
| What are some disadvantages of the direct microscopic count? | -no incubation time -enumerate dead cells -large number of cells is required -some organisms are motile |
| What is used to determine metabolic activity? | -decreased dissolved oxygen -NO2 produced from the electron transport chain -CO2 produced from the Krebs cycle -acid production from fermentation |
| Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 1.0 ml of undiluted sample in a standard plate count. How many cells were in the original sample? | 36 |
| Most bacteria grow best at pH of | 7 |
| A culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms grow and a yellow halo surrounds Staphylococcus aureus colonies is called a... | selective medium and a differential medium |
| A culture medium consisting of agar, human blood, and beef heart is a __________ medium | complex |
| During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin? | log phase |
| The length of time it takes for a cell to divide is | generation time |
| What group of microorganisms is most likely to spoil a freshwater trount preserved with salt? | Halophiles |
| Name an organic growth factor. | NAD+ |
| What is an example of a metabolic activity that could be used to measure microbial growth? | Glucose consumption |
| An experiment began with 4 cells and ended with 128 cells. How many generations did the cell go through? | 5 |
| The source of nutrients in nutrient agar is | peptone and beef extract |
| Producers in the hydrothermal vents on the ocean floor use CO2 for their carbon source and what for energy? | sulfide |
| What best describes the pattern of microbial growth? | The cells in a population die at a constant rate |
| What is a substance that can sterilize? | Ethylene oxide |
| What is used for surgical hand scrubs? | Chlorhexidine |
| Name some heavy metals. | -silver nitrate -Merthiolate -Mercurochrome |
| Phenolics differ from phenol in that phenolics are ... | -relatively odorless -more effective antibacterial agents -nonirritating |
| (126) What substances achieve sterilization? | -Ethylene oxide -autoclave -formaldehyde -dry heat |
| What is a limitation of the autoclave? | Use with heat-labile materials |
| What is a direct result of heat? | -breaking sulfhydryl bonds -breaking hydrogen bonds -denaturing enzymes |
| What substance is the least effective antimicrobial agent? | soap |
| What are effective against nonenveloped viruses? | -Ethylene oxide -Chlorine -Ozone |
| Which concentration of ethyl alcohol is the most effective bactericide? | 70% |
| What could be used to sterilize plastic Petri plates in a plastic wrapper? | Gamma radiation |
| (136) Foods are preserved with... | -potassium sorbate -sodium propionate -sodium nitrate |
| What is the most useful for disinfecting medical instruments? | Quats |
| What is most resistant to chemical biocides? | Mycobacteria |
| A sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product is a | Gene |
| The lagging strand of DNA is started by an ______ primer. | RNA |
| The leading strand of DNA is made..... | continuously |
| Multiple replication forks are possible on a bacterial ____________ | chromosome |
| ________ joins nucleotides in one direction only. | DNA polymerase |
| What are some products of transcription? | mRNA, rRNA, tRNA, rDNA |
| What is true about bacteriocins? | -Bacteria that produce bacteriocins are resistant to their own bacteriocins -the genes coding for them are on plasmids -Nisin is a bacteriocin used as a food preservative |
| An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substrate is called | an inducible enzyme |
| Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell | by a bacteriophage |
| The initial effect of ionizing radiation on a cell is that it causes the formation of... | higly reactive ions |
| According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the _______ myst bind to the __________ | substrate; repressor |
| Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is stopped by the ______________ binding to the operator | corepressor-repressor |
| Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation transfers __________horizontally to cells in the same _________ | DNA; generation |
| The necessary ingredients for DNA synthesis can be mixed together in a test tube. The DNA polymerase is from Thermus aquaticus and the template is from a human cell. The DNA synthesized would be most similar to | human DNA |
| What is the mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the arabinose operon? | catabolic repression |
| An enzyme that covalently bonds nucleotide sequences in DNA is.. | DNA ligase |
| An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is... | RNA polymerase |
| An enzyme that cuts double stranded DNA at specific nucleotide sequences is | the restriction enzyme |
| An enzyme that cuts and seals DNA is | transposase |
| In transcription, ______ is copied to ______ | DNA; RNA |
| A cell that cannot make _______, cannot make _______ | tRNA; proteins |
| If you have inserted a gene in the Ti, the next step in genetic engineering is inserting Ti into___________ | Agrobacterium |
| What is a "hit or miss" method of making rDNA? | protoblast fusion |
| Pieces of DNA stored in yeast cells are called a .... | Library |
| A population of cells carrying a desired plasmid is called a..... | clone |
| Self-replicating DNA used to transmit a gene from one organism to another is a ... | vector |
| A technique used to identify bacteria carrying a specific gene is called a.... | Southern blot |
| What technique is used to alter one amino acid in protein? | site-direct mutagenesis |
| (169) What organism naturally possesses the Ti plasmid? | Agrobacterium tumefaciens |
| What organism degrades PCB's and has been engineered to produce BT toxin? | Pseudomonas |
| An example of gene therapy is insertion of the _______gene in a diabetic person's _________ cells | insulin; pancreas |
| The use of antibiotic resistance gene on a plasmid used in genetic engineering makes ____ ______ possible | direct selection |
| A specific gene can be inserted into a cell by what means? | 1.a gene gun -2.electroporation -3.microinjection -4.agrobacterium |
| PCR can be used to identify an unknown bacterium because the... | RNA primer is specific |
| Foreighn DNA can be inserted into cells by what means. | -electroporation, -transformation, -a gene gun, -protoplast fusion |
| What is true of archaea? | -they lack peptiglycan in their cell walls, -they are prokaryotes, -some produce methane from carbon dioxide and hydrogen, -some are thermoacidophiles, -others are extreme halophiles |
| What characterizes Domain Bacteria? | Prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids |
| The outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi is.... | absorption of dissolved organic matter |
| What is true about members of the Kingdom Plantae? | -can photosynthesize, -are multicellular, -use inorganic energy sources, -have eukaryotic cells |
| What is true about the Kingdom Animalia? | -use organic carbon sources, -are multicellular, -have eukaryotic cells, -use organic energy sources |
| A taxon comprised of one or more species and below family is a.... | genus |
| The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is based on ____ sequences | rRNA |
| In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes, Enterobacter is the.... | genus |
| Bacteria and archaea are similar in which of the following ways? | Possess prokaryotic cells |
| A group of cells all derived from a single parent is a.... | strain |
| Serological testing is based on the fact that _______ react specifically with an ________ | antibodies; antigen |
| Phage typing is based on the fact that _______viruses attack specific ________ | bacterial; cells |
| Genetically identical cells derived from a single cell is a.... | clone |
| Into which group would you place a photosynthetic cell that lacks a nucleus? | Bacteria |
| Into which group would you place a multicellular heterotroph with chitin cell walls? | Fungi |
| You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which group? | Archaea |
| Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane? | Proteobacteria (Gram-negative bacteria) |
| What indicates that two organisms are closely related? | their DNA can hybridize |
| What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? | facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods |
| What is most resistant to high temperatures? | Bacillus subtilis |
| You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which group? | Archaea |
| Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane? | Proteobacteria (Gram-negative bacteria) |
| What indicates that two organisms are closely related? | their DNA can hybridize |
| What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? | facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods |
| What is most resistant to high temperatures? | Bacillus subtilis |
| You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which group? | Archaea |
| Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane? | Proteobacteria (Gram-negative bacteria) |
| What indicates that two organisms are closely related? | their DNA can hybridize |
| What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? | facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods |
| What is most resistant to high temperatures? | Bacillus subtilis |
| You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which group? | Archaea |
| Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane? | Proteobacteria (Gram-negative bacteria) |
| What indicates that two organisms are closely related? | their DNA can hybridize |
| What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? | facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods |
| What is most resistant to high temperatures? | Bacillus subtilis |
| You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which group? | Archaea |
| Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane? | Proteobacteria (Gram-negative bacteria) |
| What indicates that two organisms are closely related? | their DNA can hybridize |
| What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? | facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods |
| What is most resistant to high temperatures? | Bacillus subtilis |
| What are some characteristics of spirochetes? | -difficult to culture in vitro, -helical shape, -possess an axial filament, -gram negative |
| You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing an organic substrate and nitrate in the absence of oxygen. The nitrate is reduced to nitrogen gas. This bacerium is using _________ _________ | anaerobic respiration |
| What lacks a cell wall? | Mycoplasma |
| What forms conidiospores? | Actinomycetes and related organisms |
| Requirements for X and V factors are used to identify | Haemophilus |
| You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing only inorganic nutrients. Ammonia is oxidized to nitrate ion. This bacterium is a ____________ | chemoautotroph |
| Escherichia coli belongs to the.... | proteobacteria |
| What is true about the causative agent of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever? | -gram negative, -transmitted by ticks, -in the genus Rickettsia, -an intracellular parasite |
| The bacteria responsible for more infections and more different kinds of infections are.... | Streptococcus |
| The nonsulfur photosynthetic bacteria use organic compound as... | electron donors to reduce CO2 |
| What is the best reason to classify Streptococcus in the Lactobacillales? | rRNA sequences |
| Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Serratia are all ..... | gram negative facultatively anaerobic rods |
| You have isolated a prokaryotic cell. The first step in identification is a... | gram stain |
| Actinomycetes differ from fungi because actinomycetes laca a... | membrane bounded nucleus |
| Caulobacter are different from most bacteria because they have ______ | stalks |
| What should you do if you suspect a patient has tuberculosis? | Do an acid-fast stain |
| What is true about fungi? | -are heterotrophic, -have eukaryotic cells, -few are pathogenic to humans, -most are aerobic |
| What is true about helminths? | -some have male and female reproductive organs in one animal, -have eukaryotic cells, -are heterotrophic, -are multicellular |
| What is true about protozoa? | -may have flagella or cilia, -may reproduce sexually, -have eukaryotic cells, -are unicellular |
| A lichen doesn't exist if the ______ and ______ partners are separated. | fungal; algal |
| In lichen, the fungus provides the _________ | holdfast |
| In lichen, the alga produce_______ | carbohydrates |
| Lichens are important to ________ producers | soil |
| Transmission of helminthic diseases to humans is usually by... | the gastrointestinal route |
| What characteristics of parasitic platyhelminths? | -dorsoventrally flattened, -divided into flukes and tapeworms, -are hermaphroditic |
| Cercariae, metacercaria, miracidia, and rediae are stages in the life cucle of... | nematodes |
| What arthropods transmit diseases while sucking blood from a human? | -lice, -fleas, -kissing bugs, -mosquitos |
| What is true about algae? | -some are capable of sexual reproduction, -use CO2 as their carbon source, -use light as their energy source, -produce oxygen from hydrolysis of water |
| A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite? | adult |
| The microspora and archaezoa are unusual eukaryotes because they lack... | mitochondria |
| What is the most effective control for malaria? | vaccination |
| What multinucleated amoebalike cells produce fungus-like spores? | Plasmodial slime mold |
| What organism can grow photoautotrophically in the light and chemoheterotrophically in the dark? | Euglena |
| The cells of plasmodial slime molds can grow to several centimeters in diameter because they distribute nutrients by... | cytoplasmic streaming |
| If larvae of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans, humans are the.... | intermediate host |
| Yeast infections are caused by... | Candida albicans |
| Leishmania is an euglenozoa. What is true about this organism? | -is flagellated, -is transmitted by sandflies, -a human parasite |
| What way does viruses differ from bacteria? | viruses are not composed of cells |
| What provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving chemicals? | They cannot reproduce themselves outside of a host |
| What is true about spikes? | -only found on enveloped viruses, -used for absorption, -may cause hemagglutination |
| What is the criterion to classify viruses? | -morphology, -size, -Nucleic acid, -number of capsomeres |
| Phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA is | lysogeny |
| A naked infectious piece of RNA is a... | viroid |
| A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of bacteria is called a... | plaque |
| Lysogeny can result in.. | -acquisition of new characteristics by the host cell, -transduction of specific genes, -immunity to reinfection by the same phage |
| An infection protein is a | prion |
| An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps? | release |
| An example of a latent viral infection is | cold sores |
| The most common route of accidental AIDS transmission to health care workers is... | needlestick |
| To which group does a small, nonenveloped single stranded RNA virus most likely belong? | Picornavirus |
| Bacteriophages derive what from the host cell? | -nucleotides, -amino acids, -tRNA |
| Generally, in DNA-containing virus infection, the host animal cell supplies.. | -tRNA, -RNA polymerase, -nucleotides |
| Viruses that have reverse transcriptase are in _______ and _______ | Hepadnaviridae; Retrovirdae |
| What is true of viruses? | contain a protein coat, -use the anabolic machinery of the cell, -contain DNA or RNA but never both |
| To which group does a small, nonenveloped single stranded RNA virus most likely belong? | Picornavirus |
| Bacteriophages derive what from the host cell? | -nucleotides, -amino acids, -tRNA |
| Generally, in DNA-containing virus infection, the host animal cell supplies.. | -tRNA, -RNA polymerase, -nucleotides |
| Viruses that have reverse transcriptase are in _______ and _______ | Hepadnaviridae; Retrovirdae |
| What is true of viruses? | contain a protein coat, -use the anabolic machinery of the cell, -contain DNA or RNA but never both |
| Nontoxic strains of Vibrio cholerae can become toxic when they are in the human intestine with toxic strains of bacteria. This suggest that the toxin genes are acquired by | transduction |
| An oncogenic RNA virus must have what enzyme? | reverse transcriptase |
| Most RNA viruses carry what enzyme? | RNA-dependant RNA polymerase |
| A commensal bacterium may be an | opportunistic pathogen |
| _____ refers to different organisms living together | Symbiosis |
| A nosocomial infection is acquired during the course of | hospitalization |
| Koch's postulates don't apply to disease because all diseases aren't caused by.. | microorganisms |
| What are some diseases that spread by doplet infection? | Diptheria, -tuberculosis, -common cold, -measles |
| Mechanical transmission differs from biological transmission in that mechanical transmission doesn't | involve specific diseases |
| What infection can cause septicemia? | focal infection |
| Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota because transient micrbiota are | present for a relatively short time |
| One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in .. | increased susceptibility to disease |
| What is a fomite? | A hyperdermic needle |
| What is true of biological transmission? | the pathogen may require the vector as a host, -pathogens may be injected by the bite of the vector, -pathogen may enter the host in the vector's feces, -the pathogen reproduces in the vector |
| A disease that develops slowly and last for months is | chronic |
| A inital illness is a | primary infection |
| A short lasting primary infection is | acute |
| Infection characteristic of a carrier state is | inapparent |
| The science that deals with the point in time when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called... | epidemiology |
| A cold transmitted by facial tissue is an example of... | vehicle transmission |
| Influenza transmitted by an unprotected sneeze is an example of... | droplet transmission |
| A sexually transmitted disease is an example of | direct contact |
| Gastroenteritis acquired from roast beef is an example of | vehicle transmission |
| A needlestick is an example of a | fomite |
| The yeast Candida albicans does not usually cause disease because of | antagonist bacteria |
| What contributes to the incidence of nosocomial infections? | lapse in aseptic techniques, -lack of insect control, -lack of hand washing, -formation of biofilms |
| The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the | mucous membranes of the respiratory tract |
| What diseases are usually contracted by the respiratory route? | measles, -tuberculosis, -pneumonia |
| How do most pathogens gain access through the skin? | enter through hair follicles and sweat glands |
| Kinase destroys | fibrin clots |
| ________ breaks down substances between cells. | Hyaluronidase |
| ________ destroys neutrophils | Leukocidins |
| _______ lyse red blood cells | Hemolysins |
| What is true of exotoxins? | have specific methods of action, -composed of proteins, -more potent than endotoxins, -produced by gram positive bacteria |
| Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to | viral infections |
| What contributes to symptoms of fungal disease? | allergic response to the host, -toxins, -capsules |
| Methods of avoiding host antibodies | Invasims, -IgA protease, -antigenic change |
| Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with animal | transferrin |
| Botulism is caused by an exotoxin; therefore, it could easily be prevented by | boiling food prior to consumption |
| (298) What organisms can produce exotoxin? | Staphylococcus aureus, -corynebacterium diphtheriae, -clostridium tetani, -clostridium botulinum |
| The symptoms of tetanus are due to the exotixin produced by | Clostridium tetani |
| What is true of staphylococcal enterotoxin? | causes vomitting, -diarrhea, -is an exotoxin |
| Septic shock due to gram positive bacteria is caused by | superantigens |
| A needlestick is an example of what portal of entry? | parenteral route |
| The mechanism by which gram negative bacteria can cross the blood brain barrier is by | indusing TNF |
| Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by the | Limulus amoebocyte lysate test |
| Endotoxins in injectable drugs could cause | nerve damage |
| Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat... | gram negative bacterial infections |
| The body's defenses against any kind of pathogen is | innate immunity |
| What are some physical factors to protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection? | tears, -saliva, -layers of cells |
| Removing microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract is the function of the | ciliary escalator |
| What are some characteristics of inflammation? | pain, -swelling, -redness, -local heat |
| The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative pathway, and lectin pathway beginning with the activation of_____ | C3 |
| Adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels is | margination |
| What is normally found in serum? | complement |
| What is an effect of complement activation? | increased blood vessel permeability, -opsonization, -bacterial cell lysis, -increased phagocytic activity |
| Defensive cells such as T cells identify pathogens by binding | toll like receptors |
| What are some effects of histamine? | redness, -pain, -vasodilation, -swelling |
| A _____ is a sign the body temperature is rising | chill |
| Complement fixation results in | activation of C3b, -cell lysis, -opsonization, -immune adherence |
| Neutrophils with defective lysosomes are unable to produce | toxic oxygen products |
| Activation of C5-C9 results in | leakage of cell contents |
| What is involved in adaptive immunity? | lymphocyte |
| What is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths? | Eosinophil |
| Macrophages arise from what? | monocyte |
| Bacteria have siderophores that capture iron; humans counter this by | transferrins |
| What are some effects of fever? | increases production of T cells, -increases interferon activity, -increases transferrin production |
| Bacterial enzymes such as a catalase and superoxide dismutase can protect bacteria from | phagocytic digestion |
| A type of immunity resulting from vaccination is | artificially acquired active immunity |
| The type of immunity resulting from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by means of injection is | artificially acquired passive immunity |
| Immunity resulting from recovery from mumps is | naturally acquired active immunity |
| Newborns immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta is | naturally acquired passive immunity |
| T-cells are activated by | interaction between CD$ and MHC II |
| The specificity of an antibody is due to | the variable portions of the H and L chains |
| Characteristics of cellular immunity | --it can inhibit the immune response, --the cells originate in bone marrow,--cells are processed in the thymus gland |
| Plasma cells are activated by | an antigen |
| The antibodies that can bind to large parasites are | IgE |
| In addition to IgG, the antibodies that can fix complement are | IgM |
| Definition of antigen | A chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies |
| Definition of antibody | a protein made in response to an antigen that can combine with that antigen |
| (346) Patients with an inherited type of colon cancer called familial adenomatous polyposis have a mutation in the gene that codes for | apoptosis |
| Chemical signals sent between leukocytes are | interleukins |
| Natural killer cells | destroy tumor cells--destroy virus infected cells--destroy cells lacking MHC-I |
| Antigens coated with antibodies are susceptible to | phagocytosis |
| Cell death caused by perforin and granzymes is caused by | cytotoxic T lymphocytes |
| Antigen-antibody binding may result in | complement activation-- opsonization of the antigen--agglutination of the antigens--neutralization of the antigen |
| What are normally used in vaccinations? | Parts of bacterial cells, inactivated viruses, toxoid, live attenuated bacteria |
| If a patient shows the presence of antibodies against diptheria toxin, this indicates | The patient may have been vaccinated, or a recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies, or the patient may have had the disease and has recovered, or the patient may have the disease |
| Antibodies for serological testing can be obtained from | Vaccinated humans, monoclonal antibodies, vaccinated animals |
| A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called | precipitation reaction |
| A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called | an agglutination reaction |
| An indirect version of what test using antihuman globulin may be used to detect patient's antibodies against Treponema pallidum? | Immunofluorescence |
| Toxoid vaccines such as the vaccines against diptheria and tetanus elicit | an antibody response against these bacterial toxins |
| What type of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral antigens? | Nucleic acid vaccine |
| Purified protein from B.pertusis is a | subunit vaccine |
| What type of vaccine is live measles virus? | Attenuated whole agent vaccine |
| A test used to identify Streptococcus pyogens in a patient is the | direct fluorescent antibody test |
| What is a pregnancy test used to find the fetal hormone HCG in a woman's uterine using anti HCG and letex spheres? | Passive agglutination reaction |
| What is a test to determine patient's blood type by mixing patient's red blood cells with antisera? | direct agglutination reaction |
| What is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in patient's saliva? | precipitation reaction |
| Inactivated tetanus toxin is a | toxoid vaccine |
| To detect botulinum toxin in food, the suspect food is injected into two guinea pigs. The guinea pig that was vaccinated against botulism survives, while the one that was not vaccinated dies. This is an example of | neutralization |
| Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in | an inactivated whole agent vaccine |
| What is the third step in a direct ELISA test? | Antihuman immune serum |
| (372) What uses red blood cells as the indicator? | complement fixation |
| The circumsporozite antigen of Plasmodium can be used to | produce monoclonal antibodies, decrease recurring infections, vaccinate healthy people |
| Hypersensitivy is due to | an altered immune response |
| The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are | found in basophils and mast cells |
| What may result from systemic anaphylaxis? | shock |
| Graft versus host disease will most likely be a complication of | a bone marrow transplant |
| Cancer cells may escape the immune system because | tumor cells shed their specific antigens |
| Autoimmunity is due to | IgG and IgM antibodies |
| Immunotoxins can be used to treat cancer because they | poison cells |
| Worldwide, the primary method of transmission of HIV is | heterosexual intercourse |
| A hypersensitivity reaction occurs | on a second or subsequent exposure to an antigen |
| Type IV hypersensitivities | The symptoms occur within a few days after exposure to an antigen, they contribute to the symptoms of certain diseases, they are cell mediated, the symptoms are due to lymphokines |
| Reactions of antigens with IgE antibodies attached to mast cells causes | release of chemical mediators |
| Hay fever is an example of | Type I hypersensitivity |
| Transfusion reactions are an example of | Type II hypersensitivity |
| What is true of HIV | Bone marrow can be a reservoir for future infection, HIV can be transmitted by cell to cell contact, the T cell response triggers viral multiplication, viral infection of T-h cells results in signs elswhere in the patient |
| Likely vaccines against HIV | Glycoprotein, protein core, subunit, antibodies against streptococcus |
| What causes damage to kidney cells in glomerulonephritis? | complement fixation |
| HIV is transmitted by | Human milk, homosexual activity, heterosexual activity, hypodermic needles |
| Drugs such as AZT and ddC that are currently used to treat AIDS act by | stopping DNA synthesis |
| What describes a cytotoxic autoimmune reaction? | antibodies react to cell surface antigens |
| Clinical AIDS is diagnosed when | the CD4 T cell count is <200 |
| MMR vaccine contains hydrolyzed gelatin. A person receiving this vaccine could develop an anaphylactic reaction if the person has | antibodies against gelatin |
| Penicillin was considered a "miracle drug" because | It inhibits gram positive cell wall synthesis, it doesn't affect eukaryotic cells, has selective toxicity |
| The first antibiotic discovered was | penicillin |
| Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against | bacteria |
| What antibiotics are bactericidal? | Cephalosporins, penicillin, aminoglycosides, rifampin |
| What antimicrobial agent has the fewest side effects? | penicillin |
| Act by competitive inhibition | Ethambutol, Isoniazid, Sulfonamide |
| What method of action would be bacteriostatic? | inhibition of RNA synthesis |
| What antimicrobial agent is recommended for used against fungal infections? | Amphotericin B |
| More than half of our antibiotics are produced by | bacteria |
| Flucytosine would be most useful to treat | candidiasis |
| Antibiotics that interfere with cell wall synthesis | semisynthetic penicillins, cephalosporins, natural penicillins, vancomycin |
| The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are | tetracylines |
| Acyclovir inhibits | DNA synthesis |
| Amantadine inhibits release of | viral nucleic acid |
| Fluroquinolone inhibits | DNA synthesis |
| Protozoans and helminths diseases are difficulty to treat because | their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells |
| What causes drug resistance? | May be due to increased uptake of a drug, may be transferred from one bacterium to another during conjugation, may be carrier on a plasmid |
| Advantages of using two antibiotics together | Lessening the toxicity of individual drugs, providing treatment prior to diagnosis, prevention of drug resistance |
| Drug resistance occurs when antibiotics are used | indiscriminately |
| What would be selective against the tubercle bacillus? | Ethambutol because it inhibits mycolic acid synthesis |
| In the presence of penicillin, a cell dies because it undergoes | osmotic lysis |
| Niclosamide prevents ATP generation in mitochondria. You would expect this drug to be effective against | helminths |
| What are some bactericidals? | Semisynthetic penicillin, bacitracin, streptomycin, natural penicillin |
| Mebendazole is used to treat cestode infections. It interferes with microtubule formation; there fore it would not affect | bacteria------(does affect protozoa, human cells, fungi, helminths) |
| The antibiotic actinomycin D binds between adjacent G-C pairs, thus interfering with | transcription |
| Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic resistant bacteria because | the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal |
| What are normal microbiota of the skin? | Pityrosporum, staphylococcus, corynebacterium, propionibacterium |
| The etiologic agents of warts is | papovavirus |
| What are transported by respiratory route? | smallpox, chicken pox, german measles |
| What are causes by herpesvirus? | Keratoconjunctivitis, chicken pox, shingles |
| Thrush and vaginitis are caused by | Candida albicans |
| The greatest single cause of blindness in the world is | trachoma |
| What causes ringworm? | Trichophyton, microsporum, epidermophyton |
| What is sensitive to penicillin? | streptococcus |
| What infections are caused by S. Aureus? | Sty, Carbuncle, furuncle, pimples |
| What are some causative agents of conjunctivitis? | herpes simplex, adenovirus, hemophilus aegyptii, chlamydia tachomatis |
| Congenital rubella syndrome- | it is contracted in utero, may result in deafness, blindness, and mental retardation, may be fatal |
| The etiologic agent of fever blisters is | herpes simplex |
| Trifluridine is used to treat | epidemic herpetic keratitis |
| What is used to treat sporotrichosis? | fungicide |
| Scabies is a skin disease caused by a | mite |
| A patient has pus filled vesicles and scabs on her face, throat, and lower back. She most likely has | chicken pox |
| Herpes gladiatorium is transmitted by | direct contact |
| (438) A 17 year old male pus filled cysts on his face and upper back. Microscopic examination reveals gram positive rods. This infection is | acne |
| Encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because | antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier |
| Leprosy is | rarely fatal, diagnosis may be based on the lepromin test, it is transmitted by direct contact |
| Rabies | hydrophobia is an early symptom, it is not fatal in bats, caused by Rhabdovirus, diagnosis is based on immunofluorescent techniques |
| The symptoms of tetanus are due to | clostridial neurotoxin |
| The treatment for tetanus is | antibodies |
| The most effective control of a vectorborne diseases is | elimination of the vector |
| Treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized person is | tetanus immune globulin |
| Treatment for tetanus in an immunized person is | tetanus toxoid |
| The most common route of central nervous system invasion by pathogens is through | the circulatory system |
| The most common cause of meningitis in children is | Haemophilus influenzae |
| A 30 yo female was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. One examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. What is most likely to provide rapid identification of the cause of her symptoms? | Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid |
| What are caused by prions | sheep scrapie, kuru, transmissible mink encephalopathy, Creutzfeldt Jakob disease |
| (452) A diagnosis of rabies is confirmed by a direct | fluorescent antibody test |
| Streptococcal pneumonia is treated with | antibiotics |
| Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals amoeba. What is the organism? | Naegleria |
| Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive rods. What is the organism? | Listeria |
| A vaccine is available for | tetanus, neisseria meningitis, Haemophilus meningitis, rabies |
| What are acquired by ingestion? | Poliomyelitis, listeriosis, botulism |
| Septicemia | Symptoms are due to bacterial endoxin, symptoms include fever and decreased blood pressure, it may be aggravated by antibiotics, lymphangitis may occur |
| What are treated with penicillin? | pericarditis, anthrax, listeriosis |
| What is a symptom of brucellosis? | Undulant fever |
| What are transmitted in raw milk? | Brucellosis, listeriosis, anthrax |
| Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis | found in soil, forms endospores, gram positive |
| Symptoms of gangrene are due to | proteolytic enzymes, necrotizing exotoxins, hyaluronidase, microbial fermentation |
| High incidence of what diseases is increased by unsanitary and crowded conditions? | endemic murine typhus, epidemic typhus, plague, relapsing fever |
| (466) Toxoplasmosis | can be congenital, caused by protozoan, the reservoir is cats, is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route |
| Caused by bacterium | plague, epidemic typhus, relapsing fever, tickborne typhus |
| Septicemia may result from | contamination through the parenteral route, pneumonia, a focal infection, a nosocomial infection |
| Schistosomiasis | the intermediate host is an aquatic snail, a parasite of birds causes swimmers itch in humans, the cercariae penetrate human skin, it is caused by a flatworm |
| Human to human transmission of plague is usually by | respiratory route |
| A characteristic symptom of plague is | bruises on the skin |
| A predisposing factor for infection by Clostridium perfreinges is | gangrene |
| Arthropods can serve as a reservoir for | Brucellosis |
| Diseases transmitted to humans from domestic cats | Bartonella, Toxoplasmosis, plague |
| What can be treated with antibiotics | Lyme disease, Tularemia, plague |
| A patient complains of fever, severe muscle and joint pain and a rash. The patient reports returning from a Caribbean vacation one week ago. What do you expect? | Dengue |
| What is evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme, Connecticut, was due to bacterial infection? | Treatable with penicillin |
| What is the usual cause of septic shock? | Endotoxin |
| What is true about Group B streptococci | they cause gram positive sepsis, they are present in healthy carriers, they cause neonatal sepsis |
| A patient persents with inflammation of the heart valves, fever, malaise, and subcutaneous nodules at the joints; the recommended treatment is | anti inflammatory drugs |
| What is true about otitis media? | caused by Staphylococcus aureus, caused by streptococcus pyogens, transmitted by swimming pool water, a complication of tonsillitis |
| A diagnosis of strep throat is confirmed by | serological test, gram stain, hemolytic reaction, bacitracin inhibition |
| Penicillin is used to treat | scarlet fever, streptococcal sore throat, diptheria, pneumococcal pneumonia |
| What microorganism causes symptoms most like tuberculosis? | histoplasma |
| A person can have a positive tuberculin skin test because | she has been vaccinated, she has tuberculosis, she is immune to tuberculosis, she has had tuberculosis |
| What causes an infection of the respiratory system that is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route? | Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
| What is the reservoir for Psittacosis? | parakeets |
| What is the reservoir for Tuberculosis? | cattle |
| What is the reservoir for Histoplasmosis? | soil |
| What is the reservoir for Pneumocystis? | humans |
| What produces exotoxin? | streptococcus pyogenes, corynebacterium diptheriae, bordetella pertussis |
| What produces the most potent exotoxin? | Corynebacterium diptheriae |
| The recurrence of influenza epidemics is due to | antigenic shift |
| What etiologic agents results in the formation of abscesses? | Blastomyces |
| Infection by what is often confused with viral pneumonia? | Mycoplasma |
| What causes a disease characterized by a red rash? | Streptococcus |
| Inahalation of arthroconidia is responsible for infection by what? | Coccidioides |
| Legionella is transmitted by | airborne transmission |
| Infection that begins in the lungs and spreads to the skin | Blastomyces |
| Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows thick walled cysts. What is the etiology? | Pneumocystis |
| A patient has a paroxysmal cough and mucus accumulation. What is the etiology of the symptoms? | Bordetella |
| What respiratory infection can be contracted by ingestion? | Tuberculosis |
| What produces small "fried egg" colonies on a medium containing horse serum yeast extract? | Mycoplasma |
| What is required for tooth decay? | acid producing bacteria, capsule forming bacteria, sucrose |
| What is true of salmonellosis? | it requires a large infective dose, a healthy carrier state exists, it is a bacterial infection, it is often associated with poultry products |
| What disease of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route? | Mumps |
| The symptoms of trichinellosis are due to the | encystement of larval Trichinella in muscles |
| Poultry products are a likely source of infection by | Salmonella enterica |
| What feeds on red blood cells? | Entamoeba histolytica |
| What is true of staphylococcal food poisoning? | suspect foods are those not cooked before eating, it can be prevented by refrigeration, it is treated by replacing water and electrolytes, it is characterized by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms |
| The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is probably | Escherichia coli |
| Thorough cooking of food will prevent | salmonellas, beef tapeworm, trichinellosis |
| Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in | the large intestine |
| What organisms is likely to be transmitted via contaminated shrimp? | vibrio |
| What organism is likely to be transmitted via contaminated pork? | Trichinella |
| What are transmitted by water? | Cryptosporidium, Hepatitis A virus, Salmonella, Cyclospora |
| "Rice water stools" are characteristic of | cholera |
| Most gastrointestinal infections are treated with | water and electrolytes |
| Vibrio parahaemolyticus gastroenteritis is treated with | tetracycline |
| The most common mode of HAV transmission is | contamination of food during preparation |
| The easiest way to prevent outbreaks of gram negative gastroenteritis is to | cook food thoroughly |
| Microscopic examination of a patient's fecal culture shows spiral bacteria. The bacteria probably belong to the genus | Campylobacter |
| Feces from a patient with diarrhea lasting for weeks with frequent, watery stools should be examined for | Cyclospora |
| Helicobacter can grow in the stomach because it | makes NH-3 |
| Eukaryotes that cause gastroenteritis | Entamoeba, Giardia, Cryptosporidium, Cyclos pora |
| Hepatitis C | --diagnosed by PCR--incubation of 4 to 22 weeks--transmitted by the parenteral route--it is a flavivirus |
| Delicatessen meats | Listeria |
| Milk | Campylobacter |
| Oysters | Vibrio |
| Beef | E.Coli |
| (528)Predisposing factors to urinary tract infections | diabetes mellitus, toxemia, tumors, kidney stones |
| Pyelonephritis may result from | cystitis, ureteritis, urethritis, systemic infections |
| Cystitis is most often caused by | gram negative rods |
| The reservoir for leptospirosis is | domestic dogs |
| Trichomoniasis is primarily a | sexually transmitted disease |
| Syphillis is treated with | penicillin |
| What can cause congenital infections or infections of the newborn? | genital herpes, gonorrhea, nongonococcal urethritis, syphilis |
| (535)Genital warts recurs at the | initial site of infection |
| Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused by | Trichomonas vaginalis, Mycoplasma homini, streptococci, Candida albicans |
| Candidiasis can be caused by an | opportunistic infection |
| Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by | E. coli |
| Glomerulonephritis is | an immune complex disease |
| The most common reportable disease in the United States is | gonorrhea |
| What is the most difficulty to treat with chemotherapeutic agents? | Genital herpes |
| Leukocytes at the infected site is a symptom of | trichomoniasis |
| What is caused by Chlamydia? | Lymphogranuloma venereum |
| What forms lesions similar to those of tuberculosis? | Syphilis |
| What disease causes a skin rash, hair loss, malaise, and fever? | Syphilis |
| Staphylococcus saprophyticus causes | cystitis |
| Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused by | ureaplasma, mycoplasma, chlamydia |
| A patient is experiencing profuse greenish yellow foul smelling discharge form her vagina; she is complaining of itching and irritation. What is the most likely treatment? | Metronidazole |
| A 25 year old male presents with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. The etiology could be | Rickettsia, Borrelia, Streptococcus, Treponema |
| A 25 year old male presented with fever, malaise, and rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was made based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis tow months earlier. This disease can be treated with | penicillin |
| A pelvic examination of a 23 year old female showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neiseeria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. What is probable? | Genital herpes |
| (552)Whare are some habitats for extremophiles? | inside rocks, 100 degree water, salt evaporating pond, acid mine wash |
| What animal would you expect to find a specialized organ that holds cellulose degrading bacteria and fungi? | termite |
| The addition of untreated sewage to a freshwater lake would cause the biochemical oxygen demand to | increase |
| Sludge digestion takes place under | anaerobic conditions |
| When does primary sewage treatment take place? | the amount of oxygen doesn't make any difference |
| Eighty one percent of microorganisms in the soil are | bacteria |
| Most of the microorganisms in the soil are found at a depth of | between 3 and 8 |
| Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are capable of | nitrification |
| What process is done by Rhizobium and certain cyanobacteria? | Nitrogen fixation |
| What wastewater treatment process is responsible for removal of most of the BOD in sewage? | Secondary sewage treatment |
| Residual chlorine must be maintained in | water treatment |
| Sedimentation of sludge occurs in | primary sewage treatment |
| The product of what process contains the highest BOD? | Primary sewage treatment |
| Zoogloea form flocculent masses in | secondary sewage treatment |
| Anaerobic respiration occurs in | anaerobic sludge digestion |
| Filtration to remove protozoa occurs in | water treatment |
| Bacteria can increase the Earth's temperature by | producing CH4, which is a greenhouse gas |
| The bacteria contributing most of the bacterial biomass to soil are | actinomycetes |
| The bacteria that grow first in the microbial succession in a compost pile are | anaerobic mesophiles |
| The release of phosphate containing detergents into a river would | increase algal growth |
| What is true about releasing untreated sewage into a river? | it decreases the dissolved oxygen, it is a health hazard, it increases BOD |
| Spoilage due to can leakage after processing is | spoilage by mesophile bacteria |
| Spoilage of canned foods stored at high temperatures, accompanied by gas production is | thermophilic anaerobic spoilage |
| Spoilage of canned foods due to inadequate processing NOT accompanied by gas production is | flat sour spoilage |
| What alternative fuels (energy source) is produced by bacteria? | methyl alcohol, hydrogen, ethyl alcohol, methane |
| What food additives are produced by microorganisms? | Citric acid, amylase, protease, Glutamic acid |
| Wine is made from fruit juices by | anaerobic fungal growth |
| Commercial sterilization differs from true sterilization in that commercial sterilization may result in | the survival of thermophiles |
| Microbial products can be improved by | modifying culture conditions, mutating existing strains, isolating new strains, genetically engineering strains |
| Cellulase attached to a membrane filter will | degrade cellulose |
| What are produced using microbial fermentation? | yogurt, sour cream, blue cheese |
| Methane made from biomass is produced by | anaerobic respiration |
| Ethanol for automobile fuel is produced from corn by | fermentation |
| As cheese ages it gets more | acidic |
| Your friend says he had stored a semisoft cheese (blue cheese) in his refrigerator for three weeks. He asks you why the outer "skin" of the cheese is so much thicker than it was when he originally purchased the cheese. You tell him that | fungi have been growing |
| You are growing Bacillus subtilis in a bioreactor and notice that the growth rate slowed and the pH has decreased. What could you do? | Add oxygen |
| Radiation is used for | killing Trichinella, killing insects eggs and larva, for foods that cannot be heated, preventing sprouting |
| Canning preserves food by | heating |
| Canning works to preserve foods because of | anaerobic environment and heat |
| Radiation works to preserve foods because of | lethal mutations |
| Fermentation works to preserve foods because of | pH |
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