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3D0X2 Vol1

URE

QuestionAnswer
(001) What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network? 2
(001) What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called? Intranetwork
(001) What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols? Heterogeneous network
(001) What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system? Homogeneous network
(001) What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area? Local area network (LAN)
(001) What type of communications network links a broad geographical region? Wide area network (WAN)
(001) What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region? Global area network (GAN)
(001) How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network? 2-10
(001) How many users are in a single-server network? 10-50
(001) How many users are in a multi-server network? 50-250
(001) How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network? 250-1,000
(001) What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe? Enterprise network
(002) What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network? Media access control address
(002) How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into? 4
(002) What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96? 01100000
(002) What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24? 131.10.230.0
(002) What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24? 0.0.0.120
(002) How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask? 64
(003) What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information? 33
(003) What Air Force instruction provides policy,direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG)? AFI 33–115v1
(003) According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)? 1
(003) What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers? Network control center (NCC)
(004) What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity? Network management server
(004) Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures? Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed
(004) What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties? Centralized
(004) What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients? Hierarchical
(004) What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause? Interactive
(004) What level of network management activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand? Proactive
(005) Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories? Monitoring and tuning
(005) Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network? Monitoring
(005) What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information? Security
(005) What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault? Tolerance parameters
(006) Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the operational system interface (OSI) model? Session
(006) What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices? Management information base
(006) What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment? Private
(006) What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system? Agent
(006) What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for a specific instance of management information? Get
(006) What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP)message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead? GetNext
(006) What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information? Set
(006) What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager? Trap
(007) What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB)? Neighbor probe
(007) What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application? Domain manager
(007) What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application contains knowledge of available domain managers? Broker
(007) What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) notifications? Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events
(007) What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) alarm log indicates one or more events? Purple
(008) How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network? 21
(008) What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software? Protocol analyzer
(008) What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol? Protocol statistics
(008) What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers? Media access control (MAC) node statistics
What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated? Node discovery
(008) What provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes? Connection statistics
(009) What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information? Authentication
(009) What are three primary ways to authenticate one-self? Something you know, something you have, or something are.
(009) Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something you know
(009) The Air Force requires a network password to be at least how many characters long? 9
(010) What regulation covers remanence security? AFSSI 8580
(010) Storage media that retains data after power is removed is considered sensitive
(010) Which standard form is used to annotate storage media has been sanitized? 711
(010) Who can declassify storage media that has been sanitized? Information owner
(010) What is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods? Destroying
(010) What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field? Degaussing
(010) What is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media? Degaussing
(011) What is a comprehensive evaluation and validation of an Air Force information system (IS) to establish the degree to which it complies withassigned information assurance (IA) controls based on standardized procedures? Certification
(011) What is a formal declaration by a designated approving official (DAA) that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk? Accreditation
(011) What is the Department of Defense process for certifying and accrediting information systems to operate on the global information grid (GIG)? Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP)
(011) What documentation is required to permanently connect to the global information grid (GIG) system? Authorization to operate (ATO)
(011) What documentation signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global information grid (GIG)? Denial of authorization to operation (DATO)
(011) What process, along with AFI 33–210, Air Force Certification and Accreditation (C&A) Program (AFCAP), provides the basic framework of the certification & accreditation (C&A)? Information technology (IT) lean reengineering
(011) What do you call the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere to when fielding a system? Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU)
(011) What is the database of record for registering all systems and applications? Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR)
(011) What is a collection of computing environments connected by one or more internal networks under the control of a single approval authority and security policy? Enclave
(011) How many non-secure internet protocol router network (NIPRNet) gateways does the Air Force possess? 16
(012) Which agency must approve all information protection tools prior to their use? Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)
(012) What device is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks? Intrusion detection system (IDS)
(012) What are examples of network attacks that bypass the firewall? Tunneling and application-based attacks
(012) What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall? Tunneling
(012) A base web-server that interfaces with the public must be placed in what area of a base network? De-militarized zone (DMZ)
(012) What is the simplest and least expensive way to stop inappropriate network addresses? Packet Filtering
(012) What type of firewall consists of a screening router and a set of rules that accept or reject a message based on information in the message’s header (a packet): the source address, the destination address, and the port? Packet Filtering
(012) What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas? Bastion Host
(012) What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes? Bastion Host
(012) What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations? Vulnerability scanners
(012) What action represents one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal networks? Network-connected computer systems with modems that make calls to and accept calls from the public-switched network.
(012) What do you call a current and perceived capability, intention, or attack, directed to cause denial of service? Threat
(012) An information system on your network that is not set to require the use of a common access card (CAC) or password would be considered a vulnerability
(012) A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is a virus
(012) What type of malicious logic can form large networks that can be used to launch a variety of attacks without an information system owner’s knowledge? Bot
(012) What type of malicious logic can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file? Worm
(013) What is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers? Public key infrastructure (PKI).
(014) What can be used to encrypt a message so that it can only be decrypted by the recipient? Public Key
(014) What is a file that is kept with you and will allow you to decrypt files encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code? Private Key
(014) What is an electronic document that officially links together a user’s identity with his public key? Public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate.
(014) Which component of the public key infrastructure (PKI) is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates? Certificate authority
(015) The two ways key establishment can occur are key transfer and agreement
(015) Which public key algorithm is exclusively a key establishment protocol? Diffie and Hellman
(016) What is the primary unclassified public key infrastructure (PKI) token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the Air Force? Common access card
(017) Which team provides a communication link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities? Initial communications support teams
(018) Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds 30 days
(018) Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency? Sustained communications support teams
(018) What program is known as a state of the art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base? Theater deployable communications (TDC)
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