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1M 1998-2005
Collection of Dental Board Tests
| Multiple Choice | Answer |
|---|---|
| 1. Which of the following nerves innervates the inferior buccal mucose of the floor of the oral cavity? A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Lingual D. Mylohyoid E. Hypoglossal | B. Trigeminal |
| 2. Each of the following structures increases the surface area of the small intestine EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Villi B. Rugae C. Microvilli D. Brush border E. Circular folds | B. Rugae |
| 3. The inferior parathyroid gland develops from which of the following structures? A. Second pharyngeal arch B. Fourth pharyngeal arch C. Fifth pharyngeal arch D. Third pharyngeal pouch E. Fourth pharyngeal pouch | D. Third pharyngeal pouch |
| 4. Which of the following controls parathyroid gland function? A. Thyroxin B. Calcitonin C. Blood levels of calcium D. Blood levels of magnesium E. Thyroid stimulating hormone | C. Blood levels of calcium |
| 5. The splenic artery is a branch of which of the following arteries? A. Celiac B. Left hepatic C. Left gastric D. Musculophrenic E. Superior mesenteric | A. Celiac |
| 6. Which of the following muscles participates in flexion at the gleno-humeral and the humero-ulnar joints? A. Deltoid B. Brachialis C. Biceps brachii D. Triceps brachii E. Coracobrachialis | C. Biceps brachii |
| 7. Cell bodies of sympathetic fibers in the nerve of the pterygoid canal come from which of the following? A. Facial nerve B. Superior cervical ganglion C. Greater petrosal nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve E. Otic ganglion | B. Superior cervical ganglion |
| 8. which of the following represents a hallmark of lymphatic vessels in upper limb? A.Contain valves B.Follow the veins C.Always travel in pairs D.Only found on the anterior surface of the limb E.Contain fenestrations to allow passage of fluids into | B.Follow the veins |
| 9. Which of the following nerves is associated with the second pharyngeal arch? A. Vagus B. Glossopharyngeal C. Accessory D. Mandibular E. Facial | E. Facia |
| 10. The muscles of facial expression are derived from which of the following? A. Frontonasal process B. First arch C. Second arch D. Third arch E. Fifth arch | C. Second arch |
| 11. Each of the following cranial nerves is associated with the cavernous sinus EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Facial B. Abducens C. Trochlear D. Trigeminal E. Oculomotor | A. Facial |
| 12. Which of the following nerves innervates the taste buds of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue? A. Vagus B. Facial c. Trigeminal D. Hypoglossal E. Glossopharyngeal | B. Facial |
| 13. A deviation of the tongue, when protruded, away from the midline results from damage to which of the following cranial nerves? A. V B. VII C. X D. XI E. XII | E. XII |
| 14. Which of the following exhibits phagocytic activity in the central nervous system? A. Ependymal cell B. Microglial cell C. Oligodendrocyte D. Fibrous astrocyte E. Protoplasmic astrocyte | B. Microglial cell |
| 15. Each of the following cell layers is derived from oral epithelium EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Dental follicle B. Stellate reticulum C. Stratum intermedium D. Inner enamel epithelium E. Outer enamel epithelium | A. Dental follicle |
| 16. The nerves of the internal thoracic wall lie immediately deep to which layer of the wall? A. External intercostal B. Internal intercostal C. Transversus thor cis D. Parietal pleura E. Subcostals | B. Internal intercostal |
| 17. Which represents the condition in which a radiograph of a 10-year-old patient's maxilla shows that two succedaneous teeth are absent? A. Mesiodens B. Gemination C. Dens in dente D. Latent odontogenesis E. Partial anodontia (hypodontia) | E. Partial anodontia (hypodontia) |
| 18. Where is the channel of communication between the maxillary sinus and the nasal cavity situated? A. superior nasal meatus B. sphenoethmoidal recess c. middle nasal meatus, at the semilunar hiatus D. anterior extremity of the inferior nasal m | c. middle nasal meatus, at the semilunar hiatus |
| 19. In the temporomandibular joint, a very dense collection of organized elastic fibers is found in which of the following areas of the articular disc? A.Posterior-inferior lamina of the bilaminar z B.Posterior-superior lamina of the bilaminar z | B. Posterior-superior lamina of the bilaminar z |
| 20. Which of the following represents a muscle that might assist in depressing the mandible? A. Masseter B. Stylohyoid C. Temporalis D. Geniohyoid E. Medial pterygoid | D. Geniohyoid |
| 21. The organic component of dentin is comprised primarily of A. keratin. B. reticular fibers. C. type I collagen. D. type II and Ill collagen. E. oxytalan fibers. | C. type I collagen |
| 22. Each of the following structures leaves the cranium by way of the jugular foramen EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Cranial nerve IX B. Cranial nerve X C. Cranial nerve XI D. Cranial nerve XII E. Sigmoid sinus - internal jugular vein | D. Cranial nerve XII |
| 23. Each of the following venous channels has direct connections with the pterygoid venous plexus EXCEPT one. Which one? A. Maxillary vein B. Vertebral vein C. Deep facial vein D. lnfraorbital vein E. Posterior superior alveolar vein | B. Vertebral vein |
| 24. Stimulation of the lesser petrosal nerve in an adult causes secretion by which of the following glands? A. Parotid B. Lacrimal C. Sublingual D. Submandibular E. Glands of the hard palate | A. Parotid |
| 25. Ameloblasts will not differentiate from preameloblasts unless they A. contact dentin B. are touched by odontoblast processes C. are touched by stratum intermedium D. contact stellate reticulum E. contact neural crest mesoderm | B. are touched by odontoblast processes |
| 26. Cells that will form the vertebrae have their origin in which of the following? A. Notochord B. Neural arch C. Dermamyotome D. Two pairs of somites E. Intermediate mesodermal plate | D. Two pairs of somites |
| 27. The nasolacrimal duct drains into which of the following? A. Middle meatus B. Inferior meatus C. Superior meatus D. Sphenoethmoidal recess | B. Inferior meatus |
| 28. The carotid sheath encloses each of the following structures EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Vagus nerve B. External carotid C. Internal jugular vein D. Common carotid artery | B. External carotid |
| 29. Following eruption and initial occlusal contact in the oral cavity, a tooth will continue to erupt in order to compensate for occlusal wear. In response to this continuous eruption, what is deposited at the apex of the root? | Cellular cementum |
| 30. Which of the following cells is most likely to be engaged in mitosis at any given time? A. Osteocyte B. Macrophage C. Plasma cell D. Chondrocyte E. Basal keratinocyte | E. Basal keratinocyte |
| 31. Fibrocartilage normally occurs in A. epiglottis. B. external ear. C. epiphyseal plate. D. intervertebral discs. E. C-shaped rings in the wall of the trachea. | D. intervertbral discs.. |
| 32. There is a distinct change in the type of surface epithelium at the junction of the A. oropharynx and esophagus. B. esophagus and stomach. C. fundus and pylorus. D. duodenum and jejunum. E. ileum and colon. | B. esophagus and stomach. |
| 33. In which of the following would fenestrated capillary plexi be found? A. Predentin B. Dental pulp C. Cellular cementum D. Periodontal ligament E. Reduced enamel epithelium | B. Dental pulp |
| 34. Submucosal glands are usually located in the A. fundus of stomach. B. duodenum. C. appendix. D. jejunum. E. colon. | B. duodenum. |
| 35. Difficulty in raising the shoulder might be the result of damage to which of the following cranial nerves? A. v B. VII C. X D. XI E. XII | D. XI |
| 36. A stab wound creating a pneumothorax on the left side will usually result in collapse of which of the following? A. The left lung only B. The right lung only C. Both lungs D. The rib cage on the left side E. The left lung and pericardia! sac | A. The left lung only |
| 37. Sharpey's fibers from the periodontal ligament insert into which of the following structures? A. Bundle bone and dentin B. Cortical plates and dentin C. Bundle bone and cementum D. Cortical plates and cementum E. Haversian bone and cementum | C. Bundle bone and cementum |
| 38. In an adult, a Babinski sign indicates damage to A. the dorsal horn. B. lower motor neurons. C. upper motor neurons. D. the lateral spinothalamic tract. E. the dorsal spinocerebellar tract. | C. upper motor neurons. |
| 39. Cell bodies of neurons mediating proprioception from the periodontal ligament of the maxillary first molar lie primarily in the A. semilunar ganglion. B. motor nucleus of V. C. spinal nucleus of V. D. chief sensory nucleus of V. E. mesencephalic | E. mesencephalic |
| 40. In hydrocephalus, excess cerebral spinal fluid is found within which of the following? A. Ventricle B. Subdural space C. Cisterna magna D. Subarachnoid space E. Superior sagittal sinus | A. Ventricle |
| 41.Intelligence and sensory-motor functions of a patient appear to be intact. The patient lacks self-discipline and has exhibited anti-social behavior. Unable to plan for the future or to organize behaviors into logical sequences. A lesion likely found? | Frontal Lobe |
| 42. The neurons of the central nervous system that innervate muscles derived from branchial arches are found in which of the following nuclei? A. Nucleus ambiguus B. Hypoglossal nucleus C. Dorsal motor nucleus of X D. Nucleus of Edinger-Westphal E. | A. Nucleus ambiguus |
| 43. Which of the following represents the basis for the topical application of fluorides in dental caries prevention? A.Fluoride penetrates the enamel through the lamellae. B.Acid solubility of the surface enamel is reduced by the fluoride. | B. Acid solubility of the surface enamel is reduced by the fluoride. |
| 44. Which of the following represents the primary mineral component of alveolar bone in the periodontium? A. Osteoid B. Elastin C. Collagen D. Hydroxyapatite E. Ground substance | D. Hydroxyapatite |
| 45. Which of the following represents the primary function of cementum? A. Attach Sharpey's fibers B. Protect the root from caries C. Repair traumatic injuries of the root D. Supply nutrition to the periodontal ligament E. Maintain the width of the p | A. Attach Sharpey's fibers |
| 46. The junction between the tooth surface and the crevicular epithelium is composed of which of the following? A. Cementoid B. Tight junction C. Intermediate filaments D. Basal lamina-like structure E. Interstitial crevicular fluid | D. Basal lamina-like structure |
| 47. Mucosa of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue develops primarily from A. Rathke's pouch. B. tuberculum impar. C. foregut endoderni. D. hypobranchial eminence. E. lateral lingual swellings. | E. lateral lingual swellings. |
| 48. Initially, the developing heart is A. induced by the notochord. B. positioned posterior to the notochord. C. positioned anterior to the prochordal plate. D. between the prochordal plate and the notochord. | C. positioned anterior to the prochordal plate. |
| 49. Melanocytes migrate to the lamina propria of the oral mucosa from which of the following? A. Myotome B. Dermatome C. Sclerotome D. Neural crest E. Rathke's pouch | D. Neural crest |
| 50. Blood from the cephalic vein drains into which of the following veins? A. Basilic B. Braciocephalic C. Axillary D. Internal thoracic E. Superior vena cava | C. Axillary |
| 51. Coupled respiration requires each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. ADP B. Oxygen c. Carbon dioxide D. Electron donor E. Inorganic phosphate | c. Carbon dioxide |
| 52. If the anticodon on transfer-RNA is 5'ACG3', then which of the following is its corresponding codon on messenger-RNA? A. 5' CGT 3' B. 5' CGU 3' C. 5' TGC 3' D. 5' UAG 3' E. 5' UGC 3' | B. 5' CGU 3' |
| 53. Which of the following is the major storage form of iron in the body? A. Transferrin B. Hemosiderin C. Apoferritin D. Hemoglobin E. Ferritin | E. Ferritin |
| 54. When a mammalian red blood cell is placed in 0.3 per cent sodium chloride, water moves across the cell membrane by which of the following processes? A. Osmosis B. Hemolysis C. Pinocytosis D. Active transport E. Diffusion | A. Osmosis |
| 55. Free fatty acids in plasma are A. metabolically inert. B. mainly bound to [beta]-lipoproteins. c. independent of epinephrine secretion. D. mainly associated with serum albumin | D. mainly associated with serum albumin |
| 56. Each of the following is required for normal blood clot formation EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. ca++ B. Plasmin C. Thrombin D. Vitamin K E. Proteolysis | B. Plasmin |
| 57. Which of the following combines with heparin to inhibit blood clotting? A. Anti-thrombin Ill B. Platelets C. Fibrinogen D. Plasminogen E. Thrombin | A. Anti-thrombin Ill |
| 58. Each of the following is an anticoagulant EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Heparin B. Vitamin K C. Dicumarol D. Sodium citrate E. Any antithrombin substance | B. Vitamin K |
| 59. The characteristic of the aorta that is most responsible for the maintenance of diastolic blood pressure is its A. wide lumen. B. elastic distensibility. C. proximity to the heart. D. great peripheral resistance. E. active contraction. | B. elastic distensibility. |
| 60. Colloid osmotic pressure of the blood is important because it A. nourishes blood cells. B. aids in blood clotting. C. prevents excess loss of fluid from capillaries. D. prevents entrance of tissue fluid into capillaries | C. prevents excess loss of fluid from capillaries. |
| 61. Which of the following is most likely to promote depolymerization of extracellular matrix? A. Cortisone B. Collagenase C. Chymotrypsin D. Hyaluronidase | D. Hyaluronidase |
| 62. Which portion of the nervous system contains the cardiac, vomiting, and vasomotor centers? A. Medulla B. Thalamus C. Cerebrum D. Cervical region of the spinal cord | A. Medulla |
| 63. The concentration of which of the foliowing amino acids can be used to determine whether or not dentin has contaminated a purified enamel preparation? A. Lysine B. Proline C. Hydroxyproline D. Phosphotyrosine E. Phosphoserine | C. Hydroxyproline |
| 64. Calcium is transported in the blood in combination with which of the following? A. Albumin B. Citrate C. Hemoglobin D. Beta-globulin | A. Albumin |
| 65. Sympathetic stimulation most likely produces which of the following? A. Glycogen synthesis B. Bronchial dilation C. Decreased mental activity D. Decreased metabolic rate E. Increased blood flow to the skin | B. Bronchial dilation |
| 66. Which of the following is the same value for intracellular and interstitial fluid? A. [Na+] B. [Ci-] C. [K+] D. Colloid osmotic pressure E. Total osmotic pressure | E. Total osmotic pressure |
| 67 Explains why an increased filling of the ventricle during diastole causes a more forceful heart beat? The increased ventricular volume A diminishes the refractory period of the ventricle. B. increases end-diastolic fiber length | B. increases end-diastolic fiber length. |
| 68. Prior to surgery, an anxious patient has a higher systolic blood pressure than previously noted. Which of the following represents the most likely reason A. Atrial fibrillation B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Decreased arterial compliance | C. Decreased arterial compliance |
| 69. Reduced renal blood flow can cause hypertension by which of the following? A. Release of renin B. Reflex vasoconstriction C. Retention of potassium in blood D. Increased output of epinephrine | A. Release of renin |
| 70. What describes the effect of a drug that inhibits renal carbonic anhydrase? A. It decreases urea clearance. B. It increases the Tm for glucose. C. It increases the acidity of the urine. D. It decreases sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule. | D. It decreases sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule. |
| 71. The composition of plaque is most similar to which of the following? A. Bone B. Enamel C. Calculus D. Oral bacteria E. Saliva | D. Oral bacteria |
| 72. Which of the following substances is the predominant source of ATP at MODERATE levels (for greater than 60 minutes) of activity? A. Amino acids B. Fatty acids C. Carbohydrates D. Proteins | B. Fatty acids |
| 73. Which of the following substances has a clearance rate that is greater than the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? A. Para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) B. Potassium C. Glucose D. Urea | A. Para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) |
| 74. What is the biological significance of the extensive degeneracy of the genetic code? A. Alters the amino acid sequence of proteins encoded by the DNA B. Minimizes the deleterious effect of mutations | B. Minimizes the deleterious effect of mutations |
| 75. Which of the following types of blotting can be used to identify DNA restriction fragments? A. Eastern B. Southern C. Northern D. Western | B. Southern |
| 76. The catabolism of which of the following results in no energy production in the form of ATP? A. Lipid B. Protein C. Nucleotide D. Carbohydrate | C. Nucleotide |
| 77. Which of the following substances is released by blood platelets and causes platelets to stick together? A. Thrombin B. Fibrinogen C. Phospholipids D. Thromboxane A2 E. Prostacyclin 12 (Pgl2) | D. Thromboxane A2 |
| 78. Peptide hormones generally exert their effect through which of the following? A Receptors on the cell membrane and stimulating protein synthesis B. Receptors on the cell membrane and altering the specific activity of certain enzymes | B Receptors on the cell membrane and altering the specific activity of certain enzymes |
| 79. During the period of isovolumetric contraction, which of the following happens? A. The semilunar valves are open. B. The left ventricular pressure is rising rapidly. C. The aortic pressure is slightly less than the left ventricular pressure. | B. The left ventricular pressure is rising rapidly. |
| 80. Glucose reabsorption in the nephron is usually completed in which of the following? A. Distal tubule B. Loop of Henle C. Collecting duct D. Proximal tubule | D. Proximal tubule |
| 81. Which of the following represents the correct size and characteristic of the nerve fibers that conduct sensory input of pain from the oral-facial region? A. Large diameter, myelinated B. Small diameter, myelinated C. Small diameter, unmyelinated | C. Small diameter, unmyelinated |
| 82. As blood flows through the periodontal membrane, tremendous pressures occur in response to forceful occlusion. Blood flow is temporarily reduced, but platelets do not aggregate because of the presence of A. thromboxane A2. B. prostacyclin (Pgl2). | B. prostacyclin (Pgl2). |
| 83. An example of synergism is the effects of A. insulin and glucagon on blood glucose. B. estrogen and progesterone on uterine motility. C. growth hormone and thyroxine on skeletal growth. D. antidiuretic hormone and aldosterone on potassium excretio | C. growth hormone and thyroxine on skeletal growth. |
| 84. The jaw jerk reflex is an example of which of the following reflexes? A. Load B. Flexor C. Withdrawal D. Dynamic stretch | D. Dynamic stretch |
| 85. The stretch reflex is an example of which of the following reflexes? A. Withdrawal B. Nociceptive C. Polysynaptic D. Monosynaptic | D. Monosynaptic |
| 86. A patient bites down rapidly on an unexpected hard surface while chewing. Cessation of motor unit recruitment in a jaw closing muscles is caused by stimulation of muscle spindles. A. mucosa! mechanoreceptors. B. periodontal mechanoreceptors. | B. periodontal mechanoreceptors. |
| 87. Which of the following statements about norepinephrine is correct? A. Causes cardiac acceleration B. Causes general vasodilation C. Causes vasodilation in vessels of the skin D. Has a negative inotropic effect on the heart | A. Causes cardiac acceleration |
| 88. Which of the following molecules causes the activation of myosin kinase and the contraction of smooth muscle A. Actin B. Troponin C. Calmodulin D. Calcitonin E. Cholecalciferol | C. Calmodulin |
| 89. Which of the following is the primary difference between juxtamedullary and cortical nephrons? A. Length of the distal tubule B. Length of the proximal tubule C. Length of the thin segment of the loop of Henle | c. Length of the thin segment of the loop of Henle |
| 90. Which of the following is an essential element found in all cytochromes? A. Co B. Cu C. Fe D. Mg E. Zn | C. Fe |
| 91. Acute cyanide poisoning would most likely lead to which of the following? A. Increased oxygen concentration in arterial blood B. Increased carbon dioxide concentration in venous blood C. Decreased oxygen extraction by peripheral tissues | C. Decreased oxygen extraction by peripheral tissues |
| 92. Chondroitin sulfate is a major component of which of the following? A. Hair B. Mucin C. Cartilage D. Bacterial cell walls E. Blood group substance | C. Cartilage |
| 93. Which of the following characterizes both active transport and facilitated diffusion? A. Hydrolysis of ATP B. Competitive inhibition C. Transport bidirectional D. Transport against a concentration gradient | B. Competitive inhibition |
| 94. Which of the following has the most effect in stimulating respiration? A. Increase in blood pH B. Decrease in arterial p02 C. Increase in arterial pC02 D. Decrease in blood pH E. Decrease in arterial pC02 | C. Increase in arterial pC02 |
| 95. Which of the following proteins is involved with bacterial aggregation and subsequent elimination from the oral cavity? A. Gustin B. Statherin C. Lactoferrin D. Secretory lgA | D. Secretory lgA |
| 96. Thyroid hormones are synthesized from which of the following amino acids? A. Tyrosine B. Dopamine C. Histidine D. Threonine E. Tryptophan | A. Tyrosine |
| 97. Which of the following enzymes is responsible for inactivating catecholamines? A. Phosphodiesterase B. Monoamine oxidase C. Amino decarboxylase D. Tyrosine hydroxylase | B. Monoamine oxidase |
| 98. Protein and RNA synthesis occur in each of the following phases of the cell cycle EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Go B. G1 c. s D. G2 E. M | E. M |
| 99. Which main product of protein nitrogen metabolism is found in human urine? A. Urea B. Ammonia C. Creatine D. Uric acid E. Creatinine | A. Urea |
| 100. Each of the following is expected to be active during fatty acid biosynthesis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Tricarboxylic acid cycle B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase C. Amino acid catabolism D. Beta oxidation E. Glycolysis | D. Beta oxidation |
| 101. Which of the following statements best describes the roots of a maxillary first molar? A.The mesiofacial root usually tips mesially in its apical one-third. B.The palatal root has a concave facial surface. | B.The palatal root has a concave facial surface. |
| 102. Which of the following represents the location of the lingual height of contour on the crown of the mandibular second premolar?, A. Middle third B. Occlusal third C. Same third as that tooth's buccal height of contour | B. Occlusal third |
| 103. When viewed from the facial aspect, the crown of the mandibular first premolar has an occlusal outline that normally exhibits which of the following characteristics? | C. Disto-occlusal slope which is longer than the mesio- occlusal slope |
| 104. Two pulp canals are most commonly found in the A. root of a mandibular central incisor. B. facial root of a maxillary first premolar. C. distal root of a mandibular first molar. D. mesial root of a mandibular first molar. | D. mesial root of a mandibular first molar. |
| 105. In the triangle formed by the projection of the orifices of the canals of a maxillary first molar, the A.line connecting mesial with lingual is longest. B.line connecting distal with lingual is longest. | A.line connecting mesial with lingual is longest. |
| 106. Which of the following attaches the root surface to the alveolar bone? A. Cementum B. Attached gingiva C. Dentinal tubules D. Periodontal ligament E. Cementoenamel junction | D. Periodontal ligament |
| 107. Which of the following anatomic structures is found just lingual to the maxillary central incisors? A. Incisive foramen B. Canine eminence C. Maxillary tuberosity D. External oblique ridge E. Greater palatine foramen | A. Incisive foramen |
| 108. Which of the following papillae would normally be found in the buccal vestibule? A. Parotid B. Incisive C. Fungiform D. lnterdental E. Circumvallate | A. Parotid |
| 109. The bulk of a tooth consists of A. pulp. B. crown. c. dentin. D. enamel. E. cementum | c. dentin. |
| 110. The part of the tooth which, at a given moment, is exposed to the oral cavity is A. the anatomic crown. B. the clinical crown. C. the functional clinical crown and root. D. measurably larger in young persons than in older persons. | B. the clinical crown. |
| 111. The anatomic crown is that portion of a tooth that is A. in occlusion. B. exposed to oral fluids. C. coronal to the cervical line. D. occlusal to the gingival margins. | C. coronal to the cervical line. |
| 112. A patient has an extremely wide, notched tooth in the mandibular left central incisor position. Clinical and radiographic examinations reveal 28 teeth have erupted, but four third molars have not erupted. Which of the following conditions exists? | Gemination |
| 113. When compared to a maxillary first molar, the roots of a maxillary second molar A. are longer. B. are more divergent. C. are fewer in number. D. have less potential for fusion. E. are greater in distal inclination. | E. are greater in distal inclination. |
| 114. Which of the following teeth is the most likely to have a bifurcated root? A. Maxillary central incisor B. Maxillary lateral incisor C. Mandibular lateral incisor D. Maxillary canine E. Mandibular canine | E. Mandibular canine |
| 115. Which of the following primary teeth does a second premolar replace when it erupts into the oral cavity? A. Canine B. First premolar C. Second premolar D. First molar E. Second molar | E. Second molar |
| 116. Which of the following describes the contact relationship between a maxillary central incisor and a maxillary lateral incisor and and a maxillary lateral incisor? | C. Lingual embrasure is larger than the facial embrasure. |
| 117. In the horizontal plane, as the mandible moves in a lateral excursion, the midline of the mandible moves A. straight anteriorly. B. straight posteriorly. C. straight laterally. D. anteriorly and laterally. E. posteriorly and laterally | D. anteriorly and laterally. |
| 118. A patient presents with symptoms of an acute abscess on the maxillary left lateral incisor. There are no clinical signs of decay or restoration. Radiographically, which of the following will most likely be shown as the cause of the abscess | Dens in dente |
| 119. Each of the following can be found in the dental pulp EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Nerve tissue B. Blood vessels C. Cementoblasts D. Lymph vessels | C. Cementoblasts |
| 120. Which of the following molar roots is wide faciolingually and concave on both mesial and distal surfaces? A. Distofacial of a maxillary first B. Lingual of a maxillary first C. Mesia! of a mandibular first D. Distal of a mandibular first | C. Mesia! of a mandibular first |
| 121. The distolingual cusp of which of the following molars might be absent? A. Maxillary first B. Mandibular first C. Mandibular third D. Maxillary third | D. Maxillary third |
| 122. In a right working movement, the lingual cusp of a maxillary right second premolar passes through which of the following mandibular structures | D. Embrasure between the right second premolar and the right first molar |
| 123. The proximal contact areas between anterior teeth are incisal to the middle third of the teeth. Which of the following is an EXCEPTION to this rule? A. The mesial contact of a maxillary canine B. The distal contact of a maxillary canine | B. The distal contact of a maxillary canine |
| 124. When the mandible performs a laterotrusive movement, the laterotrusive-side condyle moves primarily about which of the following axes? A. Vertical B. Sagittal C. Horizontal D. Transverse | A. Vertical |
| 125. During a visual examination of a patient who has a severe clenching habit, which muscle would one expect to see enlarged? A. Masseter B. Temporalis C. Medial pterygoid D. Lateral Pterygoid | A. Masseter |
| 126. From the occlusal aspect, which of the following represents the most frequently seen form of a maxillary second molar? A. Round B. Square C. Trapezoidal D. Rhomboidal E. Heart-shaped | D. Rhomboidal |
| 127. Initiation of calcification for the mandibular central incisor normally occurs at A. 3-4 months of age. B. 1 year of age. C. 2-3 years of age. D. 4-5 years of age. E. 6-7 years of age. | A. 3-4 months of age. |
| 128. The oblique ridge of the maxillary molars extends between which two cusps? A. Mesiofacial and distofacial B. Mesiolingual and distolingual C. Mesiolingual and distofacial D. Mesiofacial and mesiolingual E. Mesiofacial and distolingual | C. Mesiolingual and distofacial |
| 129. At age 8, the maxillary first molar has A. a mesial contact with the primary first molar. B. a distal contact with the second molar. C. no mesial contact. D. no distal contact. E. not yet erupted. | D. no distal contact. |
| 131. Which groove of the mandibular first molar does the maxillary mesiolingual cusp pass through in a lateral excursive movement on the working side? A. Buccal B. Lingual C. Central D. Distobuccal | B. Lingual |
| 132. Which of the following premolars frequently has only one pulp horn? A. Maxillary first B. Mandibular first C. Maxillary second D. Mandibular second | B. Mandibular first |
| 133. The incisal embrasure is the smallest between which of the following two teeth? A. Maxillary central incisors B. Mandibular central incisors C. Maxillary lateral incisor and canine E. Mandibular lateral incisor and central incisor | B. Mandibular central incisors |
| 134. When in its normal position relative to the arch form, the crown of a mandibular first molar inclines A. distally and facially. B. mesially and facially. C. mesially and lingually. D. distally and lingually. | C. mesially and lingually. |
| 135. Which of the following teeth might possess three cusps? A. Maxillary second premolar and maxillary first molar B. Maxillary second molar and mandibular first premolar C. Maxillary second molar and mandibular second premolar | C. Maxillary second molar and mandibular second premolar |
| 136. Each of the following grooves originates in the central pit of the maxillary second molar (four cusp type) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION A. Buccal B. Central C. Distolingual D. Transverse grooves of oblique ridge | C. Distolingual |
| 137. When the mandible moves from maximum intercuspal position distally, any tooth contacts that occur are called A. retrusive contacts. B. protrusive contacts. C. mediostrusive side contacts. D. laterotrusive side contacts. | A. retrusive contacts. |
| 138. Between which of the following permanent teeth is the lingual embrasure smaller than the facial embrasure? A. Mandibular first molar and mandibular second molar B. Mandibular first premolar and mandibular second premolar | B. Mandibular first premolar and mandibular second premolar |
| 139. On a mandibular first molar, the distofacial groove serves as an escapeway for the mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary first molar during which of the following mandibular movements? A. Working B. Non-working C. Protrusive D. Centric slide | B. Non-working |
| 140. Which of the following primary grooves uniting in the distal pit on the occlusal surface of the mandibular second molar represents the one that normally has no counterpart in the distal pit of the first molar A. OF triangular B. DL triangular | A. OF triangular |
| 141. Which best describes the cervical margin on facial crown surface of maxillary first molar? A. Straight B. Evenly convex toward apex C. Evenly convex toward occlusal D. Irregularly convex toward apex E. Irregularly convex toward occlusal | D. Irregularly convex toward apex |
| 142. Which of the following represents the most common type of root anomaly on the mandibular first premolar? A. Dwarfing B. Elongation C. Bifurcation D. Concrescence E. Trifurcation | C. Bifurcation |
| 143. Which of the following teeth represents the one most likely to present with three roots? A. Mandibular central incisor B. Mandibular second premolar C. Mandibular canine D. Maxillary first premolar E. Maxillary second premolar | D. Maxillary first premolar |
| 144. Which of the following represents the structure in the maxillary alveolar bone that maxillary premolar roots occasionally penetrate? A. Antrum B. Nasal septum C. Frontal sinus D. Zygomatic arch E. Mandibular fossa | A. Antrum |
| 145. Which of the following jaw positions is determined almost exclusively by tooth contact? A. Rest position B. Terminal hinge C. Maximum opening D. Maximum protrusive E. lntercuspal position | E. lntercuspal position |
| 146. In a CUSP TO FOSSA contacting relationship in intercuspal position, the maxillary first premolar is most likely to articulate with which of the following mandibular teeth? A. First premolar B. Canine and first premolar | A. First premolar |
| 147. Which of the following is least likely to contribute to or affect stability of the dental arch form? A. Periodontal health B. Plane of occlusion C. Occlusal contact forces D. lnterproximal contact form E. Forces exerted by the lips and tongue | B. Plane of occlusion |
| 148. When viewed from the frontal plane and progressing posteriorly, the axial inclination of the crowns of maxillary posterior teeth A. remains vertical. B. inclines lingually. C. inclines distally. D. inclines mesially. E. inclines buccally. | E. inclines buccally. |
| 149. When viewed from the sagittal plane, the axial inclination of the anterior teeth A. remains vertical. B. inclines facially. C. inclines mesially. D. inclines distally. E. inclines lingually. | B. inclines facially. |
| 150. The presence of mamelons on a 19-year-old patient suggests which of the following conditions? A. Fluorosis B. Malformation C. Malnutrition D. Delayed eruption E. Anterior open bite | E. Anterior open bite |
| 151. In osteomalacia, bones are weak because of the failure of A. remodeling of bone. B. bone matrix formation. C. osteoblast proliferation. D. bone matrix calcification. E. interstitial growth of cartilage | D. bone matrix calcification. |
| 152. Which of the following is the most common location for an atherosclerotic induced aneurysm? A. Thoracic aorta B. Abdominal aorta C. Coronary arteries D. Arch of the aorta E. Common iliac arteries | B. Abdominal aorta |
| 154. Which of the following can result if an individual having reactivation of latent varicella zoster virus transmits virus to a seronegative ndividual? A. Shingles B. Chickenpox C. Herpes labialis D. Infectious mononucleosis | B. Chickenpox |
| 155. Which of the following conditions might be an initial manifestation of early, acute HIV infection? A. Kaposi's sarcoma B. Wasting syndrome C. Oral hairy leukoplakia D. Mononucleosis-like syndrome E. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia | D. Mononucleosis-like syndrome |
| 156. Which of the following pathogens is the single most common cause of sexually transmitted disease in the U.S.? Treponema pallidum B. Haemophilus ducreyi C. Chlamydia trachomatis D. Herpes simplex virus E. Human immunodeficiency virus | C. Chlamydia trachomatis |
| 157. Which of the following represents the mechanism of action of diphtheria toxin? A. Activates cAMP B. Causes cytolysis C. Inhibits translation D. Inhibits transcription E. Inhibits DNA replication | C. Inhibits translation |
| 158. Each of the following fluids is considered one that can transmit HIV EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Semen B. Serum C. Saliva D. Amniotic fluid E. Breast milk | C. Saliva |
| 159. Which represents the anaerobic organism that is cultured from gingival scrapings and that forms black colonies on hemin-containing culture media? A. Sarcina lutea B. Bacillus anthracis C. Veillonella alcalescens D. Porphyromonas gingivalis | D. Porphyromonas gingivalis |
| 160. Beta 1-4 linkages connect N-acetyl glucosamine and N-acetyl muramic acid. The resulting polymer is found in bacterial A. flagella. B. capsules. C. cell walls. D. metachromatic granules. | C. cell walls. |
| 161. Rough pneumococci that are grown in the presence of DNA from smooth pneumococci develop capsules. This process is termed A. translation. B. transduction. C. transformation. D. conjugation. | C. transformation. |
| 162. During an outbreak of gastroenteritis caused by Salmonella, a strain of the species suddenly appears to be resistant to several antibiotics. Which of the following best explains why? | Parent strain has acquired a plasmid. |
| 163. Which of the following karyotypes is found in Turner syndrome? A. 45, XO B. 45, YO C. 46, XX D. 47, XXY E. 47, XYY | A. 45, XO |
| 164. Which of the following viruses are frequently associated with eye infections? A. Mumps and measles viruses B. Coxsackievirus and rhinoviruses C. Adenoviruses and reoviruses D. Herpes simplex virus and adenoviruses | D. Herpes simplex virus and adenoviruses |
| 165. In humans, the mumps virus is transferred by A. food. B. feces. C. flies. D. saliva. | D. saliva. |
| 166. Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) Class I molecules are found on which of the following? A. All nucleated cells B. CD4+ T cells only C. Epithelial cells only D. HLA Class II+ cells only E. Mesenchymal cells only | A. All nucleated cells |
| 167. Soft and hard tissue necrosis characterizes which of the following fungal diseases? A. Mucormycosis B. Cryptococcosis C. Histoplasmosis D. Coccidioidomycosis E. Candidiasis | A. Mucormycosis |
| 168. Nongonococcal urethritis is often caused by microorganisms of which of the following genera? A. Chlamydia B. Treponema C. Neisseria D. Hemophilus | A. Chlamydia |
| 169. Which of the following is least likely to produce acute abdominal symptoms? A. Cholelithiasis B. Acute pancreatitis C. Ampulla of Vater cancer D. Carcinoma of the tail of the pancreas | D. Carcinoma of the tail of the pancreas |
| 170. Which of the following represents the arthritis that is usually associated with aging? A. Osteoarthritis B. Gouty arthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Psoriatic arthritis | A. Osteoarthritis |
| 171. Multiple, lytic lesions of bone characterize each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? A. Multiple myeloma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Osteogenesis imperfecta D. Hyperparathyroidism | C. Osteogenesis imperfecta |
| 172. Osteoporosis can be associated with each of the following EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? A. Prolonged corticosteroid administration B. Prolonged immobilization C. Chronic malnutrition D. Hypervitaminosis D E. Advanced age | D. Hypervitaminosis D |
| 173. In general, enzyme-deficiency diseases are inherited by which of the following modes? A. Polygenic B. X-linked dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. Autosomal dominant | C. Autosomal recessive |
| 174. Which of the following anemias results from drug induced bone marrow suppression? A. Aplastic B. Sickle cell C. Pernicious D. Hemolytic E. Myelophthisic | A. Aplastic |
| 175. Multiple drug resistance is associated with A. plasmids. B. recombination. C. point mutations. D. specialized transducing phages. E. generalized transducing phages. | A. plasmids. |
| 176. Which of the following statements best describes bacterial transformation? A. RNA coding for protein synthesis B. Acquisition of an inheritable trait by bacteria mediated by DNA C. Acquisition of an inheritable trait by bacteria mediated by RNA | B. Acquisition of an inheritable trait by bacteria mediated by DNA |
| 177. Plasmid-mediated antibiotic resistance has been observed in diseases caused by each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Bordetel/a pertussis | A. Streptococcus pyogenes |
| 178. Each of the following can produce a genotypic change EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? A. Conjugation B. Lysogenization C. Transformation D. Exposure to tetracycline | D. Exposure to tetracycline |
| 179. The human immunodeficiency virus preferentially infects which of the following cells? A. NK B. Helper T C. Cytotoxic T D. Suppressor T | B. Helper T |
| 180. Which of the following viruses is most likely to be isolated from feces? A. Rubella B. Hepatitis C C. Influenza A D. Coxsackievirus E. Herpes simplex | D. Coxsackievirus |
| 181. Cellular tropism by viruses is dependent on which of the following? A. Host cell DNA homology to viral DNA B. Temperature of host cell incubation C. Gamma-interferon production D. Cell surface receptors E. Viral enzyme synthesis | D. Cell surface receptor |
| 182. A 5-year-old child with vesicular lesions limited to the palate and the posterior oropharyngeal mucosa has an oral temperature of 101°F (38°C). The most probable diagnosis is A. chickenpox. B. herpangina. C. recurrent oral herpes. | B. herpangina. |
| 183. Which of the following cells are the most radiosensitive? Neurons B. Fibroblasts C. Lymphocytes D. Chondrocytes E. Epithelial cells | C. Lymphocytes |
| 184. During repair, which of the following substances is essential for precollagen fibers to transform into collagen fibers? A. Cortisone B. Carotene C. Ascorbic acid D. Prothrombin E. Thromboplastin | C. Ascorbic acid |
| 185. Which of the following conditions represents an intoxication rather than an infection? A. Anthrax B. Botulism C. Chancroid D. Bacteroidosis E. Salmonellosis septicemia | B. Botulism |
| 186. The tensile strength of a healing mucosa! wound depends on which of the following? A. Wound hormones B. Epithelial regeneration C. Formation of collagen fibers D. Activation of fibrinolysis E. Formation of elastic fibers | C. Formation of collagen fibers |
| 187. The chemotactic accumulation of leukocytes at the site of immune complex deposition is a result of A. steroids. B. histamine. C. complement. D. antihistamines. | C. complement. |
| 188. Which of the following has the least ability to regenerate? A. Bone B. Liver C. Striated muscle D. Collagen E. Smooth muscle | C. Striated muscle |
| 189. Healing is retarded by each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Trauma B. Immobilization C. Infection D. Hemorrhage E. lschemia | B. Immobilization |
| 190. Escape of plasma from capillaries into an area of inflammation is favored by an increase in which of the following? A. Hyaluronidase B. Leukocyte migration C. Vascular permeability D. Osmotic pressure of plasma | C. Vascular permeability |
| 191. Each of the following conditions predisposes a patient to develop cancer EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Asbestosis B. Anthracosis C. Hepatitis C D. Gardner's syndrome E. Ulcerative colitis | B. Anthracosis |
| 192. Metastatic calcifications are most likely to be the result of A. gallstones. B. atherosclerosis. C. hyperparathyroidism. D. osteogenic sarcoma. E. lymphatic spread of lung cancer. | C. hyperparathyroidism. |
| 193. Difficulty in swallowing refers to A. dyspnea. B. achalasia. C. dysphagia. D. hemetemesis. | C. dysphagia. |
| 194. Each of the following viruses is potentially capable of causing cell transformation EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Retrovirus B. Herpesvirus C. Picornavirus D. Hepatitis B virus E. Human papillomavirus | C. Picornavirus |
| 195. Which of the following terms refers to the presence of digested blood in the stool? A. Hemosiderosis B. Hemochromatosis C. Hematoma D. lcterus E. Melena | E. Melena |
| 196. Chlamydia trachomatis might cause each of the following diseases EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Trachoma B. Lymphogranuloma venereum C. Inclusion conjunctivitis D. Non-gonococcal urethritis E. Primary atypical pneumonia | E. Primary atypical pneumonia |
| 197. Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with acute pancreatitis? A. Chronic alcohol abuse B. Diabetes mellitus C. Physical trauma D. Viral infection E. Hypercalcemia | A. Chronic alcohol abuse |
| 198. Each of the following is attributable to hepatic failure EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Tremor B. Gynecomastia C. Mallory bodies D. Hypoalbuminemia E. Spider telangectasia | C. Mallory bodies |
| 199. Red hepatization refers to which of the following? A. Early stage of acute hepatitis B. Late stage of acute hepatitis C. Cirrhosis caused by hemochromatosis D. Stage of lobar pneumonia | D. Stage of lobar pneumonia |
| 200. Acute passive congestion often accompanies which of the following? A. Edema B. Inflammation C. Contusion D. Hematoma | A. Edema |
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