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HMC Mock Exam
Chief Exam Questions
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is the preferred method for testing color vision? | Farnsworth Lantern |
| The first priority of the investigator of a mishap is to determine who caused the mishap (T or F) | False |
| What is an important step when using ethelyne oxide gas for sterilization? | Providing an aeration period |
| Do not use what for PPD administration? | Hypodermic jet injector |
| Personnel should empty, disassemble, and clean all refillable hand held cleansing agent dispensers at what interval? | Weekly |
| MTFs and DTFs have what type of programs to monitor resource use and to recommend ways to balance assigned mission statements with existing health care resources? | Utilization review |
| What patient decon procedure is the most frequently used? | Dilution |
| What is the appropriate length for a splint? | Long enough to reach past the joints above and below the fracture |
| An avulsion injury is? | Traumatic removal of tissue |
| What OPNAV instruction requires supervisors to ensure their personnel are aware of safety precautions, the site is safe, and personnel wear protective clothing? | 5100.19B |
| What equipment and supplies will not be used aboard ship unless authorized by the MAGTF commander? | LF Class VIIIA |
| Why are the mouthpiece and earpiece of the sound powered telephone interchangeable? | They can be interchanged and undesireable noises can be fed into the system |
| Tickler files are NOT used to determine | Ships movement/port schedule |
| At the command BACKWARD MARCH take steps to the rear at how many inches? | 15 |
| Directives can be canceled by issuing authorities subordinate to the originator (T or F) | False |
| BUMED submits a QA summary report required by DoD Directive 6025.13 how often? | Annually |
| What are the essential elements of US sea power | Merchant Marines, Military Sealift Command, coast Guard, and the Navy |
| What type of letter should you use to correspond officially with addresses in the DoD? | Standard |
| Who is authorized emergency care ONLY? | Nonmilitary federal prisoners |
| Navy Type (2) duty is in reference to which type of duty | Sea |
| Duty performed in overseas land based activites which does not require the SM to be absent more than 150 days per year, but is credited as sea duty due to the relative undesireabilty of the geographic area is what type of duty? | Type 3- Overseas remote land based sea duty |
| Mdeical has responsibility for what aspect of the Physical Readiness Program? | Obesity research |
| The number of micro-organisms contaminating an object sometimes known as bioload or microbial load is? | Bioburden |
| Specialty marks became a part of the enlisted uniform in what year? | 1866 |
| What is the approximate total capacity of the adult bladder? | 600ml |
| Best urine specimen is taken when? | First morning |
| Ability of muscles to regain original form after being stretched | elasticity |
| May be used to clean the lenses on a microscope | Xylene |
| What is not considered a classification of bacteria? | Temp and moisture content |
| Personnel assigned duties in sterilization will receive additional documented training in sterilization and what other technique? | Aseptic |
| The impulse receptors of a nerve are called | Dendrites |
| Naval Medical Departmental policy, procedures, and responsibilities for naval DTFs ashore and afloat were issued in 1987 and incorporated into this intruction in what year? | 1989 |
| The head of the humerus is called? | glenoid fossa |
| Medical record is considered delinquent if all record components are not completed within how many days of patient discharge? | 30 |
| Ensuring persons giving lectures and signing quals can communicate well with others is what element of an effective training program? | Postive leadership |
| The CO of the transferring command will ensure each service and family member is screened within how many days of receipt of transfer orders? | 30 |
| Who is responsible for maintaining adequate supplies for the decon and treatment of CBR casualties? | Medical officer |
| Under Terrorist Force Protection Conditions, please name the Force Protection condition declared when an incident occurs or intellligence is received indication that some form of terrorisst action against intallations, vessels or personnel is imminent | CHARLIE |
| Who interprets Department of Defense (DoD), Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV), and CNO policies and provides guidance for Navy-wide QA program implementation? | BUMED |
| Which form is used as a record-keeping tool to track actions taken on directives and should be maintained for each directive issued? | Directives Record Card (OPNAV 5215/8) |
| NAVENPVNTMEDUs will submit routine reports to NAVENVIRHLTHCEN no later than what day of each month? | 15th |
| What are equipment or methods which isolate or remove bloodborne pathogens from the workplace? | Engineering controls |
| Dental procedures usually generate aerosol particles that average how many microns in diameter? | 1.3 |
| Each Surg Co contains 60 beds and how many operating rooms? | 3 |
| A medical patient is prescribed therapeutic bed rest primarily for what reason? | To prevent further damage to body systems |
| A metabolic response to epinephrine includes? | Increased blood pressure |
| Per what instruction should you file classified directives in separate binders from unclassified directives to safeguard? | SECNAVINST 5510.36 |
| The space through which a nerve impulse passes from one neuron to another is called a/an | synapse |
| EKGs are performed routinely as part of a member’s physical examination once the member reaches the age of 35. ( T or F) | False |
| The purpose of what is to establish patient accountability and to provide a means to document assessment of condition and treatment rendered by HSS personnel? | FMC (Field Medical Card) |
| What is the form number for the DON Memo (8-1/2 x 5-1/2) | OPNAV 5218/144B |
| Excision and corticosteroid therapy is early treatment for the bite of | Brown Recluse |
| The process which destroys all types and forms of micro-organisms is called what? | Sterilization |
| What person of the duty station to which a person with tuberculosis disease was attached at the time of the diagnosis of his or her disease, is responsible for the tuberculosis contact investigation? | Commanding Officer or Officer In Charge |
| Commanding Officers shall maintain all system evaluation reports for how many years? | 3 |
| The total T/E and AMALs/ADALs are designed to support a MEF in an estimated worst case scenario for a period of combat of how long? | 60 days |
| A dilute solution of what substance will neutralize alkali burns to the skin? | Vinegar |
| NAVMED 6320/19 Morning Report of the Sick, must be submitted to the commanding officer daily by what time? | 1000 |
| Animals that carry disease and can transmit those diseases to human or animal hosts to cause illness or injury are called? | Vectors |
| A surgical entry into the tissues, cavities, organs, or repair of major traumatic injuries is what type of procedure? | Invasive |
| What is often the first to receive medical intelligence from on-site care providers due to multiple communications and information links available to sections within the FSSG combat service support operations center (CSSOC)? | Health Service Support Element (HSSE) |
| Glutaraldehyde-Based Solutions are classified as what level disinfectant or sterilants? | High-level |
| Region FMOs are responsible for Reviewing frequently used Region forms yearly, and all Region forms every how many years to identify opportunities for standardizing, eliminating duplicate or unnecessary forms, and improving the effectiveness of forms? | 2 |
| The pulse pressure is the difference between which of the following measurements? | Systole and diastole |
| What is the destruction or inhibition of most viruses and bacteria while in their active growth phase? | Chemical disinfection |
| What is the term used for the volume of erythrocytes expressed as a percentage of the volume of whole blood in a sample? | Hematocrit |
| Agents that inhibit the growth of microorganisms without necessarily killing them are known as? | antiseptics |
| Fleet surgical teams (FSTs) are HSS augmentation teams assigned to the fleet CINCs. Combined, the Pacific and Atlantic fleets have how many teams that are considered the fleet CINC’s assets in both peacetime and wartime? | 9 |
| When, during childbirth, the baby’s head presents, why should you apply gentle pressure to the head? | To prevent an explosive delivery |
| As a minimum you should perform biological monitoring how often? | Weekly |
| What entity is responsible for setting the physical standards for entry into the U.S. Navy? | Department of Defense |
| Military prisoners are authorized care under all of the following conditions EXCEPT when? | they require continued hospitalization after their discharge |
| Fertilization of an ovum normally takes place in the? | fallopian tubes |
| At a command with an automatic data processing (ADP) system, what officer is responsible to the security manager for the protection of classified information in the ADP system? | The ADP security officer |
| A prescribed NMC or MTF form (Echelon IV) is required to be used by the prescribing NMC or MTF and all Echelon what subordinate commands? | Echelon V |
| When search, recovery, and identification operations continue for more than 36 hours, a progress report will be made to BUMED and MEDDEN Affairs every _____ hours. | 24 |
| The Surgeon General and Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery is the principal advisor to whom on the provision of centralized, coordinated policy development, guidance, and professional advice on health service programs for Department of the Navy? | CNO |
| Every firearm used by Navy personnel has some type of safety device built in.(T or F) | True |
| The meninges, membrane layers covering of the brain and spinal cord, are composed of all of the following EXCEPT the? | foramen magnum |
| The primary role of a beach evacuation station is to evacuate assault force casualties to designated what? | CRTSs |
| Which chemical preparation is frequently used to detect fungi? | Potassium hydroxide (KOH) |
| What are used to issue changes to instructions and, under some circumstances, notices? | Change Transmittals |
| If you are using a word processing package, you should set an automatic save at what intervals? | 5 or 10 minutes |
| Deformity at a joint, coupled with pain, discoloration, and immobility of and around the joint, is characteristic of what disorder? | Dislocation |
| All treatment facilities must fully integrate into their QA program Risk Management procedures requiring review of cases and events that represent liability or injury risk to patients and staff, and must recommend methods of decreasing what? | Liability risk |
| How often must inventory of controlled substances be conducted? | Monthly |
| HSS logistics is normally a Service responsibility. However, in joint operations, what system may be designated to provide central logistical support to all participating Services in the combatant CINC’s area of responsibility? | Single Integrated Medical Logistics Manager (SIMLM) |
| What are made from live attenuated mycobacteria strains are commonly used in some countries in an attempt to prevent vaccines from becoming infected with tuberculosis? | BCG Vaccines |
| Immunizations given at an interval shorter than the recommended interval may not provide adequate immune response and should not be counted as part of a primary series, unless part of what schedules accepted by the CDC? | catchup |
| What is the form number for Correspondence Document Control Cards? | OPNAV 521 1/7 |
| Labial herpes is an infection that results in what condition? | Fever blisters |
| What function of the medical plan must anticipate requirements for rapid movement of HSS units to support combat forces during operations? | Mobility |
| Information requirements (reports) fall into one out of how many collection types? | 4 |
| After local confirmation of Malaria and in the absence of confirmation capability, forward what to the nearest NAVENPVNTMEDU for confirmation following local interpretation? | Smears |
| The CDC estimates that HBV infection in health care personnel actually results in some 600 hospitalizations and how many deaths annually? | 200 |
| In the prescription block of DD 1289, what part lists the names and quantities of the ingredients prescribed? | Inscription |
| The ACIP general recommendations suggest that persons be observed for how many minutes after being immunized? | 15 to 20 |
| What is the highest precedence normally authorized for administrative messages? | Priority |
| Screening is required for all other personnel, such as those in low-risk areas (e.g., active duty and reserve shore-based personnel in the United States), at least how often? | 3 years |
| There are how many major C2 areas? | 4 |
| The first line of the letterhead shall be centered on which line from the top of the page? | 4th |
| The bones of the wrist are classified as what kind of bones? | Short |
| What two forms of Directives are there? | Internal and External |
| Cerebral spinal fluid is made where | In the ventricals of the brain |
| The Mobile Medical Augmentation Readiness Team is a peacetime version of the Medical Augmentation Program. (T or F) | True |
| What is the most effective method of rewarming a victim of hypothermia? | “Buddy warming” |
| What is the Navy Medicine Records Management Program instruction? | BUMEDINST 5210.10 |
| What will be submitted for specific medical events that include selected communicable diseases, injuries, and outbreaks? | MER's |
| Infection control in prosthodontics and orthodontics is divided into two distinctly different areas, what are they? | DTR and the dental laboratory |
| The Naval Medical Research and Development Command conducts basic clinical and applied field research directly related to military requirements and operational needs. It is located where? | Bethesda, MD |
| During the movement phase of amphibious operations, who has overall responsibility for HSS services to embarked personnel? | Commander, Amphibious Task Force (CATF) |
| A suspected outbreak occurring among military personnel is considered an urgent reportable medical event and must be reported within what time frame to the cognizant NAVENPVNTMEDU by whatever means available? | 24 hrs |
| The mechanical transmission of sound from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear is a function of which of the following? | Auditory ossicles |
| What type of authority is issued to Special Assistants on matters pertaining to their expertise and position? | By-direction |
| Correspondence transmitted in what means has the same authority as if it were the original? | Facsimile machine |
| What is a floating surgical hospital? | T-AH |
| In cases where tuberculin reactors are known to be close contacts of a person or persons with demonstrated INH-resistant tuberculosis, what may be substituted for INH? | Rifampin |
| A schedule III drug | Nonbarbiturate sedative |
| A review of the QA program effectiveness must be completed with revision as necessary every how often? | Annually |
| Unless otherwise directed by the physician, when one is applying a cast to an arm, the patient’s wrists is generally in what position? | In the neutral position |
| The Naval School of Health Sciences in Bethesda Maryland will conduct how many educational workshops each year in the principles, components, and management of QA programs for naval Medical Department personnel? | 2 |
| NAVENPVNTMEDUs will submit urgent reports to NAVENVIRHLTHCEN no later than how many hours after receipt? | 24 |
| The AOE is designed to operate at what approximate distance between itself and the ship it’s replenishing? | 200ft |
| Budget and accounting files are terminated and new files begun at what time(s)? | Annually, at the end of the fiscal year |
| Formally established as the Military Blood Program in 1952 by Presidential Order as part of the National Blood Program, the Armed Services Blood Program consists of approx 116 blood banks and blood donor centers worldwide, including how many(FDA) licensed | 43 |
| After serving all identification purposes, the personal effects of a deceased naval member are disposed of as directed in the? | NAVSUP Manual |
| The form used to record dental treatment is the? | EZ 603A |
| Limit using the SSN of a military member or civilian employee unless essential for identification and authorized for use by authority of which Executive Order? | 9397 |
| The effects of marijuana on the emotions and senses of the user depend on which of the following factors? | Both- the amount and strength of the substance and the social setting and expected effects |
| In an operational environment, the dental battalion’s primary mission is to provide dental health maintenance with a focus on what type of care? | Emergency |
| Air Force: military members with permanent medical exemptions require a medical evaluation board and/or a flying waiver in accordance with what instruction | AFI 48–123 |
| Personal and medical information learned about a patient as the result of your position as a Hospital Corpsman is privileged and must not be divulged to unauthorized individuals. (T or F) | True |
| The Medical Department Journal contains a chronological record of events concerning the Medical Department and should include all of the following EXCEPT? | medical histories of personnel |
| What would NOT be appropriate treatment for a sucking chest wound? | giving oral fluids |
| Special Assistants report to Chief, BUMED as subject matter experts and to the Chief of Staff for issues involving what? | Staff administration |
| Entries to the Chronological Record of Medical Care, SF 600, when not typewritten, should be made in which color(s) of ink? | Black or blue-black |
| An alternate name for an absorbable suture material is? | gut |
| which function as the accessory organs of digestion for the small intestines? | Pancreas, liver, gallbladder |
| The Quality Assurance program was originally issued in what year to standardize QA activities within Naval Meical Command MTF’s? | 1984 |
| The hemacytometer is designed primarily for what purpose? | To count red and white blood cells |
| An insufficient secretion of thyroxin is NOT characterized by | profuse sweating |
| Contaminated laundry may be laundered on-site if OSHA and CDC guidelines are followed. A wash cycle must be of at least 25 minutes duration with a water temperature of at least what temperature? | 160 degrees Fahrenheit |
| Menu design will incorporate principles of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans (U.S. Departments of Agriculture) and the Food Guide Pyramid (U.S. Department of Agriculture). The MDRIs will be met, when averaged, over a period of how long? | 5 to 10 day period |
| You should not transport infectious waste in what two methods? | Chutes or dumbwaiters |
| What are the two elements of a ship’s organization? | Battle organization and administrative organization |
| Quick time is cadence at how many steps per minute? | 120 |
| The operating forces of the Navy are combat or combat-support oriented. ( T or F) | True |
| What is required on all Navy and Marine Corps letters, messages, directives, forms, and reports? | SSIC numbers |
| On examination of the chest, you detect distinct "crackling" sounds. What condition should you immediately suspect? | A punctured lung |
| Where will you find the prescribed intervals for periodic physical examinations | MANMED |
| With exposure to Adamsite, which, if any, of the following actions must be taken to minimize or inhibit the symptoms of exposure? | Don a protective mask and continue duties as vigorously as possible |
| Who is the principal advisor for financial resources and fiduciary processes in response to OPNAV, SECNAV, SECDEF, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and Congress. Develops principles, policies, and procedures ensuring effective financial resource man | M8, Deputy Chief of Staff for Resource Management/Comptroller |
| EPA classifies disinfectants as what, based on the contact time of the solution and the biocidal activity of an agent against bacterial spores, mycobacterum tuberculosis, lipid and nonlipid viruses, and vegetative bacteria? | High, intermediate, or low level |
| The ICO must review and revise all infection control policies and procedures at least how often? | Annually |
| The secretion of digestive fluids and the absorption of digested foods and liquids is the chief function of which tissue? | Columnar |
| What stance does the U.S. take on chemical and biological weapons? | We will do all we can to prevent their use |
| Body size. Reference measures for weight and height of military members are how many pounds and how many inches for men, and how many pounds and how many inches for women | 174/69 Men:136/64 Women |
| Most reportable medical events are routine, and must be submitted no later than the what day of of each month to the cognizant NAVENPVNTMEDU? | 1st |
| Intentional wrongful or improper use of government resources. | Abuse |
| If one is applying a tourniquet to a traumatic amputation of the hand, where should the tourniquet be applied? | Just below the elbow |
| Who must maintain case files for all approved surveys? | FMO |
| What is spread by the bite of infective larval mites and may be a source of morbidity in populations encountering primitive field conditions? | Scrub typhus |
| Instructions for preparing and submitting the Medical Event Report can be found in which of the following publications? | NAVMED P-5038 |
| What is a determination concerning a monitor outcome confirmed throught he peer review process? | Validation |
| The Flag Council Flag-level advisory and information forum meets how often? | Quarterly |
| which type of radiation has the greatest penetrating power? | Gamma |
| What is a casualty tag printed in a set which provides a tough original copy for attaching to the casualty (whether wounded or deceased). A carbon copy is retained by the hospital corpsman rendering initial treatment? | Field Medical Card (FMC) |
| With regard to smallpox vaccine, a specific preâimmunization screening form that assesses the date of the last menstrual period is required. For women whose last menstrual period was more than how many days, a pregnancy test is recommended? | 28 |
| What disease is characterized by a deficiency of the antidiuretic hormone? | Diabetes insipidus |
| Proper first aid treatment for a patient suffering a convulsive seizure episode consists of what procedure? | Protecting the victim from injury |
| The number of calories generated by each gram of protein, fat, and carbohydrate, respectively is? | 4, 9, 4 |
| No two words hurt naval writing more than what? | It is |
| On an instruction pages are numbered consecutively, beginning with the second page, how many inches from the bottom of the page in the center? | 1/2 |
| Partner referral services shall be afforded to every patient who is HIV positive to identify and initiate the notification process of past sexual and needle sharing partners, the equivalent state form to the CDC Form 73.2936S shall be completed for each n | 10 |
| Bones that develop within a tendon are known as which of the following? | Sesamoid |
| Some facsimile machines still use “thermal paper”, which can deteriorate in as few as how many months? | 6 months |
| Per what instruction should you file classified directives in separate binders from unclassified directives to safeguard? | SECNAVINST 5510.36 |
| The most frequent cause of marginal gingivitis is? | poor oral hygiene |
| The presence or reasonably expected presence of blood or other potentially infectious material on an item or surface is said to be what? | Contaminated |
| You should soak reusable impression trays in an EPA-registered disinfectant for how long, scrub in soapy water, and seal in peel packs before autoclaving? | 10 minutes |
| When two or more commands have the same form requirement, the form can either be adopted or what? | Prescribed |
| What are the medical equipment and supplies required to support the patient during evacuation, e.g., ventilators, vital sign monitors, and blankets? | Patient Movement Items |
| All semicritical category items should receive what level disinfection? | High-level |
| What is a bacterial endospore test designed to assess whether sterilization has actually occurred? | Biological Monitor |
| Which of the following programs can only be activated upon the enactment of special legislation? | Return of Remains Program |
| For warfare in the future where helicopter evacuation may not be viable, personnel in which of the following treatment categories will receive evacuation triage? | II and III |
| The body’s primary thermo-regulatory action is a function of dilating and contracting blood vessels and the? | sebaceous glands |
| A Sailor reports for her periodic physical examination and states that no changes have occurred in her medical status since her last physical. What entry, if any, would be appropriate to put in block 25 of her SF 93, Report of Medical History? | "No significant interval history" |
| Which of the following are the two most prominent mineral elements of bone? | Phosphorus and calcium |
| What is a replica of an official image created by computer software that is the best exactness of the official image that the software allows. Some variants may be fonts, margins, and size of entry field? | Mirror-Like Image |
| Refined and processed sugars should make up no more than what percent of an individual’s total caloric intake? | 10 |
| Who may elect to have a fleet-wide medical and dental QA program under the cognizance of the fleet medical and dental officer? | TYCOMS |
| To clean uncarpeted floors and other horizontal surfaces regularly and when spills occur use launderable mops with a detergent and an EPA-registered disinfectant or a detergent with sodium hypocholorite at what dilution? | 1:100 dilution |
| Usually, no MDRI is established if there is no what for a given nutrient? | RDA or DRI |
| Duty performed in US land-based activities where service members are not required to be absent from their duty station in excess of 150 days per year is what type of duty? | Type 1-Shore Duty |
| Who provides MTFs for resuscitative surgery, medical treatment, and temporary holding of casualties from supported forces.They also prepare and evacuate casualties whose medical requirements exceed the established theater evacuation policy? | Surg Co |
| What is a field production activity of the Defense Intelligence Agency? It is the sole producer of medical intelligence in the Department of Defense (DOD). | Armed Forces Medical Intelligence Center (AFMIC) |
| Whenever vaccines are administered, at least how many people present must be trained and current in basic Cardio Pulmonary Resuscitation, oralpharyngeal airway management, and recognition and initial treatment of anaphylaxis with epinephrine? | 1 |
| Some operational rations are designed for special situations. These rations provide for the increased nutritional requirements imposed by exposure to an extreme environment. This includes which Meal? | Cold Weather |
| Navy medical and dental radiological systems must meet what standards for procurement and initial/periodic evaluation to ensure safe and proper operation? | Federal |
| What type of blood and other potentially infectious liquid waste which cannot be safely decanted or which has not been solidified shall be placed into rigid containers that are double-lined with plastic bags for transport and incineration? | Bulk |
| The pulse pressure is the difference between which of the following measurements? | Systole and diastole |
| BUMED submits a QA program summary report required by DoD Directive 6025.13 how often? | Annually |
| Signature authority should be delegated to what level? | Lowest legal and practical level |
| Waste from patient diagnosis, treatment, or immunization may be subdivided into two categories, what are they? | Infectious and noninfectious |
| Dental examinations of family members performed by civilian providers within the past how many months are considered current? | 6 |
| A vaccine, antibiotic, or other product in an IND status may be mandatory for military members, if who has approved a waiver of the requirement for informed consent? | POTUS |
| Dilated pupils in a patient receiving artificial ventilation is an indication of? | insufficient ventilation |
| The venous system that carries digested materials from the intestinal tract is called the? | portal |
| Within the Navy, who has ultimate responsibility for establishing and maintaining the Information and Personnel Security Program? | Secretary of the Navy |
| Patient rights and responsibilities are standards addressed by what organization? | Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) |
| Talk is permitted when you are in which of the following formation positions? | Rest |
| When a military member is tried in a U.S. court, the military will pay the attorney fees and court cost. (T or F) | False |
| When placing a person on report, you may orally notify the chain of command (COC). (T or F) | True |
| Milk or milk products may interfere with the absorption of what drug? | Tetracycline hydrochloride |
| Environmental hygiene is directed toward producing a healthy environment and includes such practices as maintaining unit cleanliness and? | providing for adequate ventilation • limiting noise levels • proper disposal of soiled articles |
| What is the preferred method of cleaning an operating room floor between operations? | Wet vacuum |
| In what document would you find the contents of each contingency block outlined? | MMART Manual |
| The CO of the transferring command will ensure service members complete medical assignment screening not later than how many days after returning to duty following a period of medically restricted duty or a finding of fit for continued Naval service | 15 |
| What report is used when a member is expected to return to full duty status after being placed on limited duty? | Abbreviated Temporary Limited Duty (TLD) Medical Board |
| The Region Forms and Reports Management Officer will be responsible for the Ensuring Region forms do not duplicate which forms in any way? | Higher authority |
| Documentation and analysis of all accidents and injuries is provided for which of the following reasons? | To identify and correct safety deficiencies |
| Which form is used as a record-keeping tool to track actions taken on directives and should be maintained for each directive issued? | Directives Record Card (OPNAV 5215/8) |
| Properly prepared differential slides require a longer rinse time than stain time. (T or F) | False |
| Who may authorize local reproduction for paper/specialty forms with an annual usage less than 100 forms and are not available from DAPS? | BUMED FMO |
| What meeting forum is used to share current information on upcoming BUMED activities/responsibilities and policy changes and facilitate timely communication across Codes. Attendees include Code EAs and Administrative Assistants? | BUMED Executive Assistant Meeting |
| CO’s should not purchase new ethylene oxide equipment, it may not survive in today’s dental health care environment because ethylene oxide is a serious problem of what sort? | OSHA problem |
| Although considered privileged, release of information in the health record is required under the Freedom of Information Act. (T or F) | FALSE |
| HIV, syphilis, chancroid, gonorrhea, and chlamydia are what in every State? | Reportable diseases |
| Destroyers were first used effectively for antisubmarine warfare during what war? | World War I |
| A notice usually remains in effect for less than how many months, and is not permitted to remain in effect for longer than how long? | 6 / 1 year |
| Marijuana falls into which of the following categories of drugs? | Hallucinogen |
| Macrolides are effective against which of the following organisms? | Gram-positive cocci |
| Which of the following vaccines should not be administered to individuals who are sensitive to egg products? | Influenza |
| What term is used to describe the lowest temperature at which spontaneous combustion occurs? | Ignition point |
| Military personnel doing heavy work or involved in prolonged, vigorous physical training may have energy requirements that exceed what percent of the MDRI for energy? | 125 |
| Infectious waste must be placed in closable, leak-proof containers or bags that are labeled as a what? | Biohazard |
| What FSSG is a supply operation directly responsible to the FSSG supply battalion commanding officer? | Med Log Co, Supply Battalion |
| Congress enacted the Merchant Marine Act in what year? | 1936 |
| Who advises the commander on the health of the command and the adequacy of internal FSSG HSS? | Group surgeon |
| Circulation and respiration are controlled primarily from what area of the brain? | Medulla oblongata |
| Who will establish and implement mechanisms to ensure menus meet nutritional standards? | Commander, Naval Supply Systems Command, United States Navy (USN) |
| What command is responsible for the development of naval concepts and integrated naval doctrine? | COMNAVDOCCOM |
| Which of the following organizations offers the only supplemental insurance endorsed by the Navy? | Navy Mutual Aid Society |
| If you need to find the rules for transmitting classified material, you should refer to what SECNAV instruction? | 5510.36 |
| Any family member who has not received ACIP recommended immunizations is medically unsuitable to accompany an active duty member to an overseas assignment. Annotate Part 1 of which form, | NAVMED Form 1300/1 |
| Seemingly unrelated cases of disease and injury occurring on different ships or stations may be medically significant when viewed on what basis? | Regional |
| During a fire evacuation, which of the following procedures is NOT considered appropriate? | Clear all possible exits |
| Established for DoD-wide use are what level forms? | Second Level Forms |
| The health jackets of flag or general officers should be annotated to reflect their rank. (T or F) | True |
| The Surgeon General and Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery is the principal advisor to whom on the provision of centralized, coordinated policy development, guidance, and professional advice on health service programs for Department of the Navy? | CNO |
| A command endorsement is required on a formal medical board. (T or F) | True |
| What minimum amount of blood loss usually causes a person to go into shock? | 2 pints |
| NAVMED 6320/18, Binnacle List, is used to list all personnel falling into what status? | Excused from duty for 24 hours or less because of illness |
| What respirator cartridge color should be used when working around organic vapors? | Black |
| What pupillary sign is an indication of a central nervous system disorder? | Constricted and Unresponsive pupils |
| Who classifies chemical disinfectants that are sporicidal as disinfectant or sterilants? | EPA |
| What is the time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to provide information to a Federal agency called? | Burden |
| What receive, store, and distribute blood within the theater of operations? | Blood Supply Units (BSUs) |
| What inspection is scheduled by higher authority, without the knowledge of the commanding officer, to determine if the ship is fit for continued Naval service? | • INSURV |
| Exposure to infectious waste that could result in disease is more likely to occur in what settings that generate, transport, store, treat, or dispose of potentially infectious materials? | Occupational |
| The term Operational Assignment is used in this instruction to designate an assignment to any DON unit which can be expected to deploy from its home base or port for a period of more than how many days? | 30 |
| In administering anesthesia, the preferred method is to inject the agent directly into a vein or artery located within 1/2 inch of a wound. (T or F) | False |
| (Echelon V and below). Navy Medicine Activity Form. Forms established by a Navy Medicine Activity for use in more than one Navy Medicine command within a given Activity are what level forms? | Seventh Level Forms |
| In peacetime, the majority of operating forces’ units are manned at slightly more than two-thirds of their mobilization strength, while HSS units are generally manned only with what percentage of the personnel required to carry out their wartime mission | 50% |
| NAVENPVNTMEDU’s must keep all MER’s on file for how many years? | 5 |
| What is the Department of Defense (DoD) forms manual? | DoD 7750.07-M |
| On noncargo ships, in what position should compressed gas cylinders be stored? | Vertically, valve up |
| Medical event disease surveillance is particulary important in military populations where medical events can have what type of effects? | Mission-degrading |
| Paper/specialty forms with an annual usage greater than how many forms will be printed by the Document Automated and Production Service (DAPS) in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania, and will be stocked and available for order at Navy Forms Online? | 100 |
| Differences between on-hand quantity, location of stock, or other stock record data should be reconciled in accordance with what publication? | NAVSUP P-485 |
| The health record of a military member may be used for what purposes? | ⢠Aid in determining claims ⢠Determine physical fitness ⢠Provide data for medical statistics |
| A shift from leukocytosis toward leukopenia in a patient with a systemic bacterial infection is a good sign. (T or F) | False |
| What items are instruments, equipment, or materials that do not normally penetrate or contact mucous membranes but which are exposed to splatter, spray, or splashing of blood, or are touched by contaminated hands? | Noncritical |
| In what year was the Alvin, a deep diving vehicle, tested at 6,000-foot depths? | 1965 |
| The plan for a PMI exchange system and the return of AE equipment and PMI to the originating MTF should be addressed in the what respective plan? | Operation Plan (OPLAN) |
| The serum cholesterol level of adults over the age of 30 should be less than? | 200 mg/dl |
| A patient presents exhibiting signs of anaphylactic reaction to a bee or wasp sting. Of the following, which is NOT considered appropriate treatment? | Warm packs over the sting site |
| True or False: The commanding officer or officer in charge can delegate signing documents that establish policy? | False |
| Which of the following terms is interchangeable with Fundamentals of Leadership? | Basic principles of Leadership |
| Of the following, which is the most likely area of damage in a victim who has ingested a strong alkali? | Esophagus |
| Which of the following repair parties is responsible for propulsion areas? | Repair 5 |
| Through the various treaties with other countries in the world, what portion of the land area are we committed to defend? | 50% |
| What is the function of leukocytes? | To control various disease conditions |
| In what year did the WHO declare the global eradication of naturally occurring smallpox? | 1980 |
| Whose approval is required before the purchase or lease of an infectious waste treatment system? | Bureau of Medicine and Surgery |
| There are seven types of casts or sediments found in urine, which may be attributed to lupus? | Fatty casts |
| DON forms (SECNAV, OPNAV, and Navy Marine Corps (NAVMC)). Forms established by DON for use in more than one Naval command are what level forms? | Third Level Forms |
| Who has jurisdiction at the Arlington National Cemetery? | Department of the Army |
| Billet numbers on the watch, quarter, and station bill consist of either four numerals or a letter and three numerals. What do the last two numerals indicate? | Section seniority |
| Morphine is an acceptable analgesic in patients with which of the following symptoms? | Painful skin burns |
| Who are personnel who are required to be licensed but are not included in the definition of health care practitioners? | Clinical Support Staff |
| Paper copies of forms cannot be generated from a what? | Previously printed paper copy |
| The Navy Environmental Health Center and its supporting activities establish and disseminate preventive medicine and environmental protection policy recommendations for whom? | BUMED |
| Dental fixed and portable x-ray units require evaluation at what interval? | 36 month |
| What is the statement on a form that provides information to the individual completing the form so that they can make an informed decision about whether to provide the information? | Privacy Act Statement |
| Instructions may be classified at what level? | SECRET or CONFIDENTIAL |
| Exposure to fresh air and allowing wind to blow across wide open eyes is generally sufficient treatment for which of the following agents? | Lacrimators |
| For warfare in the future where helicopter evacuation may not be viable, personnel in which of the following treatment categories will receive evacuation triage? | II and III |
| Family member screening is required even if a service member is accepting unaccompanied orders to an overseas duty station. (T or F) | False |
| What will not be used beyond the manufacturer’s potency expiration date, unless the appropriate surgeon general or CG–11, USCG authorizes extension in exceptional circumstances? | Immunizing agents |
| What function of the medical plan must integrate and comply with the commander’s plan? | Conformity |
| The inner part of the eye derives its nourishment primarily from the vascular structure of what tissue? | Choroid |
| Which casualty has been exposed to ionizing radiation but is not contaminated. These casualties are not radioactive and pose no radiation threat to medical care providers. Casualties who have suffered exposure to initial nuclear radiation fit into this ca | Irradiated |
| Whose primary mission is to perform those emergency medical and surgical procedures that, if not performed, could lead to death or loss of limb or body function? | Medical battalions |
| Use of a chlorhexidine gluconate preoperative rinse of what percentage significantly decreases the infectivity of an aerosol? | 0.12 percent |
| Chlorhexidine Gluconate antiseptic is an effective antiseptic for reducing transient and resident microbial hand flora, has a sustained antimicrobial effect and does not appear to affect what adversely? | Skin |
| On the first line of letterhead stationary, DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY is centered horizontally 5/8 of an inch from the top edge of the sheet in what point type? | 10 or 12 |
| A review of the QA program effectiveness must be completed with revision as necessary every how often? | Annually |
| Who advises the commander on the health of the command and the adequacy of internal FSSG HSS? | Group surgeon |
| What source is considered the most frequent reservoir of infectious agents pathogenic to man? | Man |
| Measles, mumps, and rubella Persons born in 1957 or earlier are presumed to be immune through infection. Ensure military personnel born after 1957 have received how many lifetime doses of MMR vaccine or have positive serologic test results? | 2 |
| The Family Support Program does NOT include which of the following services? | Equal Opportunity Program |
| What is the form number for the Correspondence Signal Tab Form? | OPNAV 521 6/139 |
| The order that references appear in reference block of a naval letter is based on which of the following factors? | The order in which they appear in the text |
| The enzymatic action of amylase results in the chemical breakdown of? | fats to fatty acids |
| When aboard ship, you should refer to what publication for the procedures used to relieve an armed watch? | SOP |
| What are essential to casualty identification and recording? | Identification tags |
| Severe inflammation of the tooth pulp is known as? | acute pulpitis |
| All active duty patients presenting for evaluation of a possible STD shall be tested for serological evidence of HIV infection per what reference? | SECNAVINST 5300.30D |
| The oxygen breathing apparatus (OBA) is a valuable adjunct in rescue operations for what reason? | It generates its own oxygen |
| What is a structured approach which continuously analyzes clinical and administrative processes within pre-established boundaries using various analytic tables? | Continuous Quality Improvement |
| BUMED submits a QA program summary report required by DoD Directive 6025.13 how often? | Annually |
| Commanding Officers shall ensure medical x-ray units (fixed or mobile) ashore and on hospital ships are evaluated how often? | Annually |
| What is the preferred form on which to record admission to the hospital? | SF 509, Medical Record-Progress Report |
| An infection is considered nosocomial if it first becomes apparent how many hours (or more) after admission? | 72 |
| What is the form number for the Routine Reply, Endorsement, Transmittal, or Information Sheet? | OPNAV 5218/158 |
| Which of the following writing practices is the best approach to a subject when writing a directive? | Write directly to a user |
| In a survival situation with less than 1 quart of water per day, you should avoid eating what type of food? | Highly flavored |
| What is a casualty management system? | Patient movement |
| (Echelon IV). Navy Medicine Activity form. Forms established by a Navy Medicine Activity for use in more than one Navy Medicine command within a given Activity are what level forms? | Sixth Level Forms |
| Sterilization of individual strands of suture is acceptable for which of the types listed? | Stainless steel sutures only |
| Eligibility for medical care at a military medical treatment facility is established by the ___________ and verified by the _____________? | Personnel office, medical treatment facility |
| A shift from leukocytosis toward leukopenia in a patient with a systemic bacterial infection is a good sign. (T or F) | False |
| What provide rapid peacetime response teams of pre-identified medical department personnel trained to augment elements of the operating forces? | MMARTs |
| The Soviets restrict their naval power projection to the waters around the Soviet Union and the East Coast of the United States.(T or F) | True |
| Fixed MTF’s and DTF’s meeting applicable criteria must gain and maintain what by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations? | Accreditation |
| All Navy Medical Department Personnel must ensure copies of forms are generated from the approved source of supply. No more than supply of what quantity may be maintained? | 30-day supply |
| Which tuberculin tests produce significant numbers of both false-positive and false-negative test results, and are ot to be used except on the specific recommendation of the are NAVENPVNTMEDU? | Multiple-puncture |
| The limitations imposed upon a healthcare provider are based on local regulations and which of the following elements? | The provider’s training and experience |
| Whose mission is to provide integrated automation of the theater medical environment? | TMIP's |
| Where personal signing is impractical a commanding officer may authorize others to use what that duplicates his or her signature? | Signature Stamp |
| If command sponsored, suitability screening is required for each family member. Screening conducted within the past how many months meets this requirement? | 12 |
| A differential blood count is the percentage of distribution in the blood of which of the following types of cells? | Lymphocytes |
| petty officer can take certain measures to correct minor infractions under which of the following articles of the UCMJ? | 15 |
| Naval Medical Department policy, procedures, and responsibilities for naval DTFs ashore and afloat were issued in 1987 and incorporated into this instruction in what year? | 1989 |
| What is the destruction or inhibition of most viruses and bacteria while in their active growth phase? | Chemical disinfection |
| What function of the medical plan must ensure that HSS resources in short supply are efficiently employed and used effectively to support the planned operations? | Coordination |
| What is an acceptable method of cleaning and disinfecting? | Spray-Wipe-Spray |
| For prolonged periods of work in full cold-weather gear, energy needs may reach how many calories/kg body weight? | 60 |
| Which of the following structures provides some bacteria with a means of movement? | Flagellum |
| What is the primary purpose of an inventory? | To ensure balance on hand match stock record cards |
| Which of the following components of a nuclear weapon constitutes the most probable hazards in the in the event of an accident? | High explosives and plutonium |
| If the location or type duty you wish to request is not listed on the back of the Enlisted Duty Preference Form, what should you do? | Check OPNAVINST 3111.14U and Look in chapter 25 of the TRANSMAN |
| Who exercise fiscal oversight of subordinate commands? | Regional Commanders |
| What is the DoD memorandum addressing SSN usage? | DTM-07-015 |
| As part of our military team, the Army focuses on what type of operations? | Land |
| The Casualty Assistance Calls program is administered by the which of the following commands? | Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command |
| Which of the following is/are a recommended step(s) in treating deep frostbite? | Comfort victim with hot tea or coffee |
| Problems concerning arrangements for a Navy escort within CONUS should be referred to the? | Area commander |
| Who shall receive case reports from HETU’s (with patient names blacked out) and will conduct on-going analysis of behavioral risk information and outbreak clusters? | Navy and Marine Corps Public Health Center |
| The fundamental objective in performing an x-ray examination is to obtain optimum diagnostic information with minimum what? | Patient exposure |
| Which of the following statements describes a correct GQ route to follow? | Aft in the passageways and down ladders on the port side |
| A single pus-filled cavity in the true skin of the nape of the neck would be classified as a? | furuncle |
| What training prevention program is specifically aimed at the junior Sailor? | PREVENT 2000 |
| The skin harbors two types of flora. What are they? | Resident and Transient |
| Who is the principal staff advisor for Navy Medicine Total Force (active duty, reserve, civilian, and contractor) manpower, personnel, training and education (MPT&E) policies, programs, and practices? | M1, Deputy Chief of Staff for Human Resources |
| A poison that is introduced into the body in one location and affects the body in another location is displaying what effect? | Remote |
| The Privacy Act governs the disclosure of documents compiled and maintained by government agencies. (T or F) | False |
| When preparing the DTR after each patient, remove the handpiece, lubricate and run for how long? | 30 seconds |
| NAVENPVNTMEDUs will submit routine reports to NAVENVIRHLTHCEN no later than what day of each month? | 15th |
| The mere mechanical action of rubbing the hands together and rinsing them under running water is effective in removing what? | Transient bacteria |
| When a liquid diet has been ordered by the attending physician or dietician, the feedings should be ____ ounces and administered every ____ hours. | 6-8, 2-3 |
| What is a directive that has a one-time or brief nature and has a self-canceling provision, and it has the same force and effect as an instruction? | Notice |
| Who shall perform global medical event surveillance and monitoring of reportable medical events? | Commanding Officer, NAVENVIRHLTHCEN |
| What software program is the preferred method of reporting? | NDRS |
| Commanding officers shall submit what type of naval message when a medical event may attract high level Navy interest or affect operational readiness? | OPREP-3 Navy Blue |
| Reports are submitted electronically via the internet or by mailing a what to the cognizant NAVENPVNTMEDU? | 3.5 diskette |
| What will be submitted for specific medical events that include selected communicable diseases, injuries, and outbreaks? | MER’s |
| In situations when timeliness is critical, what method of reporting with follow on correspondence to the cognizant NAVENPVNTMEDU is acceptable? | Direct telephone or E-Mail |
| NAVENPVNTMEDU’s must keep all MER’s on file for how many years? | 5 |
| Most reportable medical events are routine, and must be submitted no later than the what day of of each month to the cognizant NAVENPVNTMEDU? | 1st |
| If an operational unit must send an urgent MER by message, it should be sent as what classification? | Unclassified |
| Who is the primary action addressee on MER’s? | Cognizant NAVENPVNTMEDU |
| NAVENPVNTMEDUs will submit urgent reports to NAVENVIRHLTHCEN no later than how many hours after receipt? | 24 |
| A successful communicable disease and injury control program depends on what of suspected or confirmed cases? | Early notification |
| NAVENPVNTMEDUs will submit routine reports to NAVENVIRHLTHCEN no later than what day of each month? | 15th |
| Commanding Officer, NAVENVIRHLTHCEN shall validate, on what basis, a sample of MER’s as directed by NAVENVIRHLTHCEN? | Annually |
| A suspected outbreak occurring among military personnel is considered an urgent reportable medical event and must be reported within what time frame to the cognizant NAVENPVNTMEDU by whatever means available? | 24 hours |
| The Medical Event Reports replaced which Report? | Disease Alert |
| When a reportable medical event is suspected or confirmed, unit senior medical department representatives shall submit MER’s using what system? | Naval Disease Reporting System (NDRS) |
| What must be submitted by the medical department of the command with primary responsibility for the health of the affected individual? | MER |
| All message MER’s must be identified by what report control symbol in the subject line? | MED 6220-3 |
| Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) reporting is not performed using MER. HIV infections should be reported to whom and to appropriate state authorities? | BUMED |
| What is defined as a communicable condition with a suspected common source, or which occurs in one or more clusters among personnel in a particular location, work center, berthing compartment, day care, or involving more than an expected number of individ | A reportable outbreak |
| What NEC is awarded to Equal Opportunity Advisors (EOA’s)? | 9515 |
| It is recommended that the CMEO Manager be what rank? | E7 to E9 or an officer with four or more years of service |
| Who issues policies and procedures as a separate instruction on Department of the Navy Civilian Discrimination Complaints Program? | Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Navy Civilian Human Resources (DASN CHR) |
| What is the course number for CPPD’s Command Assessment Team Course? | NAVEDTRA 7523F |
| Which article states that Navy personnel are prohibited from participating in organizations that support supremacist causes? | 1167 |
| Who shall maintain overall control of the Military Equal Opportunity Assessment (MEOA), and provide information, assessment, and status reports on minority affairs matters as required by higher authority? | Diversity and Women’s Policy Branch |
| Whose objective is it to promote positive command morale and Quality of Life by providing an environment in which all personnel can perform to their maximum ability, unimpeded by institutional or individual biases based on race, color, ethnicity, national | Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) |
| Who shall provide a summary of hotline allegations involving unlawful discrimination and Sexual Harassment by November 15th annually to the Navy EO Office? | NAVINSGEN and Echelon 2 Inspector Generals (IGs) |
| OJAG shall provide summary of fiscal year UCMJ article 138, and U.S. Navy Regulations, article 1150, actions relating to unlawful discrimination and Sexual Harassment annually to the Navy EO Office by what date? | November 15th |
| Who shall ensure leadership opportunities and an equitable assignment process exist for all personnel? | Deputy Chief of Naval Operations (DCNO) |
| What are prohibited under this instruction regardless of who originates the action? | Reprisals |
| What is the course number for CPPD’s Command Training Team Indoctrination training course? | CIN A-050-0001 |
| Immediate Superiors In Command (ISIC) shall ensure subordinate commanders assess their command climate within how many days of assuming command, and annually follow-up with assessments during their command tenure? | 90 days |
| Who shall ensure that unlawful discrimination is absent in administrative and disciplinary proceedings? | Commanders, Commanding Officers (CO’s), and (OIC’s) |
| Who shall ensure General Military Training (GMT) includes annual EO/SH training and grievance procedure instructions as required? | Center for Personal and Professional Development (CPPD) |
| Commanding Officers should assess their command climate within how many days of assuming command? | 90 days |
| Who shall advocate the EO program for Navy military and civilian personnel, and report Navy-wide climate assessment survey results to the fleet? | Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) |
| Who shall provide overall direction, guidance, support and leadership for the management of fleet and force command climates? | Navy Equal Opportunity Office (NEO) |
| How often shall the Navy Equal Opportunity Office (NEO) provide an EO Climate Assessment describing the “health” and organizational effectiveness of the Navy (using the data collected from Naval Inspector General (NAVINSGEN), Office of the Judge Advocate | Annually |
| Who shall monitor Equal Opportunity status within subordinate commands? | Echelon 2 commanders |
| What has the Navy historically relied upon to define the bounds of acceptable personal relationships among its members? | Custom and Tradition |
| Prejudice to good order and discipline or discredit to the naval service may result from which circumstances? | Call into question a senior’s objectivity, preferential treatment, undermining authority, compromising chain of command |
| Over how many years of seagoing experience demonstrates that seniors must maintain thoroughly professional relationships with juniors at all times? | 220 |
| Prejudice to good order and discipline and discredit to the naval service may occur when what happens? | senior's objectivity is called into question |
| Who will ensure training throughout the Navy on Fraternization? | Director, Military Personnel Plans and Policy Division |
| What has traditionally defined proper senior-subordinate relationships? | Military customs and courtesies |
| The responsibility for preventing inappropriate relationships must rest primarily on the? | Senior Member |
| This instruction and the prohibition of fraternization found in Article 1165 of the US Navy Regulations are _______ effective without further implementation. | Lawful General Orders |
| Compatible with sea/shore rotation policy and the needs of the service, service members married to each other will not be assigned? | In the same chain of command |
| Commands are expected to take what action as necessary to correct inappropriate behavior? | Administrative and Disciplinary |
| Proper social interaction among officer and enlisted members has always been encouraged as it enhances? | Morale and esprit de corps |
| A printed report from the electronic ITS, in PHS Form 731, SF 601 (Health Record–Immunization Record), or DD Form 2766C (Adult Preventive and Chronic Care Flowsheet) (Continuation Sheet) format, accompanied by an official clinic stamp and the authorized s | Official paper |
| There are 2 types of exemptions from immunization. What are they? | Medical and Administrative |
| For Service personnel, immunization exemptions for religious reasons may be granted according to Service–specific policies to accommodate doctrinal religious beliefs. Whose decision is this ultimately? | Command decision made with medical and chaplain advice |
| Breastfeeding women may be immunized in accordance with what current guidelines? | ACIP guidelines |
| Cases warranting what type of medical exemption due to a vaccine–related adverse event will be reported to the Vaccine Adverse Events Reporting System (VAERS)? | Permanent |
| Recommended immunization schedules will not be what? | Compressed |
| Permanent exemptions for religious reasons will not be granted in what branch? | Air Force |
| Whenever vaccines are administered, at least how many people present must be trained and current in basic Cardio Pulmonary Resuscitation, oralpharyngeal airway management, and recognition and initial treatment of anaphylaxis with epinephrine? | 1 |
| Live–virus immunizations typically are given simultaneously or at an interval of how many or more weeks? | 4 |
| Within how many days before separation or retirement, Service personnel may be exempt from deployment (mobility) immunizations (see app D) if certain conditions are met? | 180 |
| Who will prescribe speific immunization and chemoprophylactic requirements for their units per requirements established by this publication and additional guidance provided by the appropriate surgeon general or United States Coast Guard (USCG), Coast Guar | Command medical authority |
| Exemptions apply to civilian employees and contractor personnel who will leave a position subject to immunization with how many days or less? | 30 |
| Over how many cases of Tuberculosis occur annually in the United States? | 20,000 |
| Tuberculis screening is required for personnel in operational units and in units with a high risk for tuberculosis exposure or outbreaks how often? | Annually |
| Pulmonary tuberculosis causes the most concern because of the potential to transmit the infection to others by what route? | Airborne |
| Low strength of the Mantoux method is how many tuberculin units? | 1 |
| Persons infected with M. tuberculosis are in the what category if the person has symptoms, signs, radiographic, or laboratory evidence of pulmonary, meningeal, miliary, or extrapulmonary tuberculosis? | Active disease |
| All personnel first entering duty in the regular Navy, the Naval Reserve, the Marine Corps, and the Marine Corps Reserve for periods of duty in excess of how many days, must have the result of a tuberculin skin test documented in their medical treatment r | 30 |
| What refers to the Mantoux method of skin testing for tuberculosis? | Tuberculin Skin Test |
| All personnel must have a tuberculin skin test documented within what time period before separation from the naval service? | One year |
| An infected person has about what percentage of a lifetime risk of developing tuberculosis disease, if there is no intervention? | 5 |
| Commands in high-risk-areas, as identified by the cognizant area Navy environmental and preventive medicine unit, must extend the active duty program to whom? | Dependents |
| Who is a person with an area of induration to a 5 TU tuberculin skin test (or to a 1 TU tuberculin skin test) when read 48 to 72 hours after administration? | Tuberculin Reactor |
| Persons infected with M. tuberculosis are in what stage if the person has no symptoms, signs, or radiographic evidence of active disease, but does have evidence of infection, as indicated by the presence of a positive tuberculin skin test? | Tuberculosis Infection |
| What constitutes an important opportunisitic infection among individuals infected with the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)? | Tuberculosis |
| Who is a person with an area of induration of less than 5 mm (usually no reaction or zero mm induration) to a 5 TU tuberculin skin test? | Tuberculin Nonreactor |
| Screening is required for all other personnel, such as those in low-risk areas (e.g., active duty and reserve shore-based personnel in the United States), at least how often? | 3 years |
| Which persons applying for permanent entry into the United States are required to be screened for tuberculosis? | Foreign-born |
| The Tuberculosis Control Program for what and its units is to be equivalent to the program for active duty personnel? | Military Sealift Command |
| What are made from live attenuated mycobacteria strains are commonly used in some countries in an attempt to prevent vaccinees from becoming infected with tuberculosis? | BCG Vaccines |
| Intermediate strength of the Mantoux method is how many tuberculin units of PPD? | 5 |
| Who is the Uniform Board guided and established by? | SECNAV AND CNO |
| What is the hair regulation for women in while in uniform? | The hair may touch, but not fall below the horizontal line level with the lower edge of the back of the collar. With the jumper uniform, hair may extend a maximum of 1½ inches below the top of the jumper collar |
| What it the policy on military creases? | Military creases are an individual option, sewn in creases are not authorized |
| When may former members of the Armed Forces wear a military uniform? | Former members who served honorably during a war and whose most recent service was terminated under honorable conditions may wear the uniform of the highest grade held |
| When are cover's required to be worn while out to sea? | On specific watches or on ceremonial occasions |
| What is the correct wear of the beret for women? | Wear the beret toward the front of the head approximately ¾ inch from the forehead hairline, and tilted slightly to the right, align insignia above the left eye |
| On what side do men and women coats button? | Women’s coats button on the left and men’s button to the right |
| How many rings are authorized while in uniform? | One ring per hand, plus wedding/engagement ring set |
| When is it authorized to wear covers indoors? | Those member's in a duty status and wearing side arms |
| How shall the hair above the ears and around the neck for men be? | Tapered from the lower natural hairline upwards at least ¾ inch and outward not greater than ¾ inch to blend with hairstyle; hair must not touch the collar |
| Who is responsible for paying for the soiled uniforms that are damaged due to lack of adequate protective garments? | Command |
| Where may former members of the Armed Forces wear a military uniform if they are authorized to wear one? | Military funerals, memorial services, weddings, inaugurals and patriotic parades or ceremonies which any active or reserve United States military unit is taking part |
| What elements are grooming standards based on? | Neatness, cleanliness, safety, military image and appearance |
| As a part of a full sea bag how many sets of utilities are required? | 4 |
| What will an ensign wear on their sleeve? | One ½ inch stripe |
| What is the size of the CPO cap device? | 1-3/4 inch |
| How are men and women belts to be worn? | Men wear the belt with clip to the left of the buckle and women wear the belt with clip to the right of the buckle |
| When is the Service Dress Blue uniform authorized for wear while traveling? | Anytime |
| What is the cap device for commissioned officers? | Consists of two gold crossed fouled anchors with burnish silver shield surmounted by a burnish silver spread eagle facing the wearer’s right |
| What is the cap device for commissioned warrant officers? | Consists of two gold crossed fouled anchors, of a size to be inscribed in a circle 2-1/4 inches in diameter |
| Women's uniforms were designed to duplicate what? | Fashion Trends |
| What will a Fleet Admiral wear on their sleeve? | One 2 inch stripe with four ½ inch stripes above it |
| What kind of military creases are not authorized with the uniform? | Sewn in |
| What are the widths of the stripes that are worn on the sleeve of officers? | 2 inch, ½ inch or ¼ |
| What are men authorized to wear to cover natural baldness or a physical disfigurement? | Wig or Hairpiece |
| What will a Rear Admiral (Lower Half) wear on their sleeve? | One 2 inch stripe |
| How far above the eyebrows should the garrison cap be worn? | 1 inch |
| When a hairstyle of multiple braids is worn, braids shall be small in diameter approximately? | ¼ inch |
| How should the watch cap be worn? | Wear squarely on the head, double folded approximately 2-1/2 inches to 3 inches, with the bottom edge parallel to and 1-1/2 inches above the eyebrows |
| Who is responsible for uniform policy afloat? | Senior Officer Present (SOPA) |
| What is the regulation for stencils? | Stencil letters shall be approximately 3/8 inch high blocked letters |
| Historically, uniforms have been the product of a sailor's environment by what three things? | Physical, Geographical, and Technical |
| Which personnel are not authorized to wear any facial hair? | Brig awardees, brig prisoners, and restrictees |
| As a part of a full sea bag how many pairs of coveralls are required? | 2 |
| In the event that ordering special uniform items is not practical, Navy women are authorized to wear what male uniform items until when? | Peacoat, all-weather coat, jacket and sweaters, shoes, rating badges, coveralls, belts and buckles, utility shirts and trousers, working Khaki shirts and trousers; as long as they are serviceable |
| What is the maximum length that the mustache may be? | ½ inch |
| What it the maximum length a man can have his hair? | No longer than 4 inches and may not touch the ears, collar, extend below the eyebrows when headgear is removed show under front edge of headgear or interfere with the proper wear of headgear |
| Who is responsible for monitoring and ensuring individuals with shaving waivers are following the treatment regimen? | Supervisor |
| When the Commanding Officer authorizes a deserter’s uniforms to be sold what should done to the uniforms? | The name of the former owner shall be obliterated with a red “D.C.” stamp and the purchaser’s name shall be placed above, below, or next to it |
| What is the size of the CPO collar device? | 1 inch |
| How far above the visor shall the insignia for a ball cap be placed? | 1-1/4 inch above the visor |
| What is the regulation for embroidery on the utilities and coveralls? | ½ inch high blocked letters on the utilities and ¾ inch high blocked letters on the coveralls |
| What will a Captain wear on their sleeve? | Four ½ inch stripes |
| What is on the visor of flag officers? | 2 rows of gold leaves and acorns |
| What is the annual clothing replacement allowance? | A cash allowance provided for replacing a minimum quantity of each required uniform and paid over the estimated useful life of the articles |
| What is the size of the CPO miniature cap device? | 1-1/4 inch |
| What is the maximum of small barrettes/combs/clips that are similar to the hair coloring be used? | 2 |
| What is the maximum bulk of hair for men and women? | Shall not exceed approximately 2 inches as measured from the scalp |
| What are the earring uniform regulations for women? | One earring per ear centered on the earlobe, 4mm – 6mm approximately 1/8 to ¼ inch plain with shiny or brushed matte finish, screw on or with post |
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