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3S071 Vol 2 UREs
3S071 CDCs
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Challenges and threats of those who are opposed to United States values and interests may arise from | adversaries. |
| What are the four basic instruments of national power the US relies on for its security? | Diplomatic, economic, informational, and military. |
| The United States Armed Forces shape and employ the military instrument to defend interest and objectives guided by | national security policy. |
| What presents the fundamental principle that guides the armed forces in support of national objectives and shapes the way the armed forces think about the use of the military instrument of national power? | Doctrine. |
| What provides authoritative guidance based upon existing capabilities of our Armed Forces? | Joint doctrine. |
| The type of doctrine that states the most fundamental and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper use of Air Forces in military action is known as | Basic. |
| Doctrine that guides the proper organization and employment of forces in the context of distinct objectives, force capabilities, functional areas, and environments is referred to as | Operational. |
| Which process is considered a sequential process performed simultaneously at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war? | Joint operations planning. |
| At what level does joint operation planning involve developing military objectives and tasks to support National Security Strategy (NSS) and developing requirements necessary to accomplish these tasks? | Strategic. |
| Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of command that runs from the president through the | secretary of defense. |
| What are the joint operation planning activities that support the development of operations plans, concept plans, functional plans, and operation orders? | Mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment. |
| The planning process by which the armed forces or part of them are brought to a state of readiness for war or other national emergency describes which joint operation planning activity? | Mobilization. |
| Planning that encompasses the movement of forces and their sustainment resources from their original locations to a specific destination to conduct joint operations describes which joint operation planning activity? | Deployment. |
| The joint operation planning activity that describes how to apply military force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area is | employment. |
| What type of plan includes all required annexes, appendices, and a supporting time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD)? | Operational. |
| A plan to develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary describes which type of plan? | Concept. |
| Which joint and service planning system is the Department of Defense (DOD)-directed single, integrated joint command and control (C2) for conventional operation planning and execution? | Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES). |
| Which joint and service planning system’s objective is to enable Air Force-unique operation planning process which includes associated joint policy procedures? | Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES). |
| Which joint and service planning system provides the Air Staff, Air Force planners, and Air Force commanders with current policies, apportioned forces, and planning factors for conducting and supporting operations? | War and Mobilization Plan (WMP). |
| Which joint and service planning system is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DOD) functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the United States armed forces and certain foreign organizations? | Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS). |
| Who develops procedures for administrative support of active, reserve components, and retirees? | Functional directorates. |
| Which military department was not established by The National Security Act of 1947? | Marines. |
| American military power plays a vital role in all of the following except | politics. |
| The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both | federal and state missions. |
| Most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage back to the | 1920s and 30s. |
| The Reserves defend the United States through control and exploitation of air and space by supporting what type of engagement? | Global. |
| The readiness of the Reserves allows for rapid expansion of the total force through what form of movement? | Mobilization. |
| The Reserves bring what three things to the military environment from their civilian employment? | Talent, depth, and experience. |
| The depth of experience the Reserve forces bring to the mission and the Air Force is an invaluable | commodity. |
| Reserve friendships and team work that develop over time provide esprit-de-corps to the unit along with what other strength? | Stability. |
| To meet the national security challenges of the 21st century the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept was designed to do what for air and space forces? | organize, train, equip, and sustain. |
| Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept provides trained and ready air and space forces for what type of defense? | National. |
| The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) primary purpose is to provide | war-fighter support. |
| The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) doctrine is vital to understanding how best to employ air and space power along with understanding the proper way to do what with air and space forces? | Organize, present, and deploy. |
| The Air Force organized its total force into how many air and space expeditionary forces? | 10. |
| In order for the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) to maintain a sustainable rotational rhythm, how many AEFs are tasked at any time? | Two. |
| The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is to | equitably align available Air Force unit type codes (UTC) across 10 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities. |
| When the air and space expeditionary task force is responsible for sustaining all base operating and support functions, it normally organizes as a/an | air and expeditionary wing. |
| What group in the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct is the basic war- fighting organization of the Air Force and is the building block of the air and space expeditionary task force (AETF)? | Air and space expeditionary squadron. |
| Once an Airman arrives at a base, he or she is required to report to the | military personnel section (MPS). |
| The air and space expeditionary force (AEF) operates on a how many month life cycle? | 24-month. |
| What agency publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and publish the associated Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP)? | Joint Staff. |
| Which capability library contains a fixed capability that at any given time identifies forces that constitute the total force that has been made available or allocated for scheduling? | Air expeditionary force (AEF). |
| At any given time, how many air and space expeditionary force (AEF) block(s) and or pair(s) from each tempo band is in the AEF vulnerability period? | one. |
| A guideline used to determine when a unit type code (UTC) must be developed is when | new equipment types enter the inventory. |
| In addition to Headquarters Air Force (HAF), which agencies usually initiate the development of a unit type code (UTC)? | FAM, MAJCOM, Air National Guard (ANG), FOA, and DRU |
| What is the basic building block used in force planning and the deployment of air and space expeditionary task forces? | Unit type code. |
| Deviations to the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct may be implemented on a case-by-case basis with whose approval? | Chief of staff. |
| The concept of mobilization is associated with “calling up” Reserve Component forces. What does “calling up” do, if anything, to the active duty’s military capability? | Increases military capability. |
| The concept of mobilization can be associated with all activities necessary for the orderly transition of both active and Reserve Component forces from peacetime to | wartime posture. |
| Which is not a Title 10 United States Code (Title 10 U.S.C) most often used term for mobilization? | spatial. |
| If the president or Congress expanded the active Armed Forces up to 1,000,000 members, not to exceed 24 consecutive months, they elected what type of mobilization? | partial. |
| Which of the following is not a tenet that describes the characteristics of a successful mobilization? | Being subjective. |
| The mobilization tenet necessary to develop an appropriate response in a crisis, overcome unforeseen problems, and provide protection of the force and equipment while adapting to uncertainties and adjusting to the idea of war describes | being flexible. |
| Which mobilization tenet is achieved through rapid needs assessment, efficient mobilization procedures, and frequent exercises to test and improve procedures? | Ensuring timeliness. |
| Days that are allocated, or put aside, for use by Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard officers, noncommissioned officers, and Airmen are commonly referred to as | military personnel appropriation man-days. |
| Military personnel appropriations (MPA) man-day tours usually include a maximum of how many travel days? | one-day. |
| When performing military personnel appropriation man-days, Airmen and their families are entitled to the same medical care as active duty personnel as long as their orders specify a period of | 31 days or greater. |
| When the Secretary of the Air Force authorizes deactivation of an Air Reserve Component (Guard and Reserve), the authority may be delegated to the | major command commanders |
| The process of terminating orders, notifying individuals or units, and transferring individuals or units from federal active duty status to their previous reserve status describes | deactivation. |
| In regards to special orders and travel vouchers, deactivation or demobilization is documented by using which date? | Demobilization date authorized by the applicable MAJCOM on the DD Form 214. |
| If activated personnel experience personal, financial, or medical hardship caused by mobilization, early deactivation, or demobilization, they can request to | remain on active duty up to the original activation period. |
| Once the military personnel section receives the hardship package, reviews the package, and requests a report individual person (RIP), how many days do they have to forward the package to the appropriate agency? | Three duty days. |
| During natural disasters or national emergencies, the ability to quickly assess the status of Air Force Airmen, Department of the Air Force, nonappropriated funds civilians, and families is critical to resuming normal | operations. |
| Whose responsibility is it to make sure an up-to-date unit recall roster is maintained and forwarded to the installation command post? | Commander. |
| Why is it important to maintain a communications-out recall roster? | Local communications may be inoperative or overloaded. |
| After a catastrophic event, accountability of personnel occur within the Air Force Personnel Accountability Assessment System (AFPAAS) when | affected personnel report their whereabouts in AFPAAS. |
| When announced by the Joint Staff or Air Force leadership, which crisis action team (CAT) has the responsibility to direct personnel accountability and assessment in support of real-world or exercise events? | Air Force CAT. |
| In regards to the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system (AFPAAS), which agency serves as the primary distribution and collection point for information regarding impacted threatened personnel? | HQ AFPC/PRC. |
| In regards to the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system, which agency has the responsibility for scheduling case management training through the Defense Connect Online (DCO) with Space and Naval Warfare System Center (SPAWAR)? | HQ AFPC/DPSIA. |
| Within the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system (AFPAAS), who has the ability and access to complete a needs assessment on behalf of Airmen or family members? | Commanding officer representative. |
| What type of evacuation plan must individuals maintain in anticipation of national crisis or natural disasters? | realistic and actionable. |
| The installation personnel readiness element (IPR) serves as the military personnel sections (MPS) war planner for personnel | deployments, exercises, contingencies, and rotational matters. |
| To provide the most accurate accountability, what procedures must the personnel deployment function (PDF) establish for augmenting personnel? | In-processing. |
| Who has jurisdiction over the personnel control center (PCC)? | Military personnel section commander. |
| During an exercise, inspection, or a disaster control exercise, who serves as the personnel control center (PCC) or personnel readiness center (PRC) reporting directly to the battle staff? | Installation personnel readiness element. |
| The installation personnel readiness element (IPR) provides all of the following personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team training except | training on the reclama and shortfall process and executing personnel data system updates. |
| What document is used to monitor force build-up, identify unfilled positions, and initiate replacement actions? | Employment requirements manning document. |
| Maintaining accountability over all personnel on the ground and at their deployed and designated geographically separated locations, regardless of status, according to component command policies describes what type of accountability? | Strength. |
| Interchanging and recording of information between the individual, other agencies, and the personnel function necessary to ensure timely, accurate, and reception of personnel resources describes | preparation of movement. |
| If a member’s legal, fiscal, morale, and informational needs are not being met, what responsibility is the personnelist not fulfilling? | Personal support. |
| Personnel from what organization are eligible for assignment to the personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team? | Force support squadron. |
| When selecting personnel for the personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team, the PERSCO team chief, military personnel section, and commander must select the | most qualified personnel. |
| Who has overall responsibility for Air Force personnel readiness and accountability programs and directives? | HQ USAF/A1PR. |
| Which activity is considered the reach back enabler that plans and delivers versatile Air and Space power to the right place at the right time to support commander Air Force forces’ (COMAFFOR) mission needs? | HQ AFPC/DPW. |
| Which activity serves as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for deployment availability codes and duty status reporting programs? | HQ AFPC/DPWR. |
| Overseeing air and space expeditionary force unit type code reporting tool (ART) to ensure postured personnel unit type codes (UTC) meet all deployment capabilities is the responsibility of the | mission support group commander. |
| Making sure that military personnel section (MPS) provides prompt support to deployed commanders and base personnel during contingency, wartime, exercise, and emergency operations is the responsibility of the | military personnel section commander. |
| The requirements in specific contingency situations must be continuously monitored and reviewed by the | Component command personnel planner. |
| Which phase begins once a real-world situation develops requiring Air Force personnel and resources to respond? | Execution. |
| During an increased readiness posture, personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team members must be able to arrive at their assigned military personnel section within the timelines outlined in the | designed operation capability response time. |
| Personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team must arrive at the military personnel section (MPS) within six hours of the original alert order or deployment notification as | ready-to-deploy. |
| The current operations plan or concept plan should be reviewed, if available, to prepare for personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team deployment requirements upon receipt of a (n) | warning order. |
| Who has the responsibility to ensure the equipment custodian (EC) completes an annual inventory of supplies and equipment? | Personnel support for contingency operations team chief. |
| Equipment custodian (EC) for personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO), logistics force packaging system (LOGFOR) equipment and Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment is appointed by the | Force support squadron commander. |
| Which unit type code (UTC) is considered or called the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) accountability team and is the only stand alone PERSCO team? | RFPF1. |
| It is imperative the personnel support for contingency operation team maintain a hard copy of the accountability file because | electronic information can be lost at any time due to equipment malfunction. |
| During the reception process, the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) team is required to collect what documents? | Two copies of the contingency/exercise/deployment orders and a completed AF Form 245. |
| Personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) team will coordinate with all deployed support agencies and become involved in the process on how, when, and where to most efficiently process personnel when the | reception control center is not established. |
| Which phase is a transition phase from a build-up or surge phase, where the majority of the main operating force has arrived and completed in-processing actions? | Sustainment. |
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