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Question | Answer |
---|---|
Perfluoropropane and sulfur hexafluroide are used to | keep pressure on retina |
which pharmacologic agent constricts pupils | acetylcholine |
trephine is used in which pricedure | keratoplasty |
the normal condition of the lens of the eye is | transparent and biconvex |
name for traction sutures used to manipulate the globe | bridle |
replacement device for cataract lens | IOL |
lacrimal gland is located | upper lid, outer angle of orbid |
where do lacrimal ducts drain tears | nasal cavity |
procedure with internal malfunction or loss of contents with no recovery of site gives best cosmetic | evisceration |
which procedure treats glaucoma | iridectomy |
name for cystic structure caused by inflammatory response to material strapped n meibomian gland | chalazion |
an inward turning of the eyelid with corneal irritation | entropian |
instrument to remove cataract lens for lens placement | phacoemulsification hand piece |
name of locking and unlocking needle holders | castroviejo |
misalignment or deviation from coordinated movement of the eye is | strabismus |
right eye of a patient and assigning clock positions 12,3,6,9 to rectus eye muscle which is correct | 12 superior, 3 medial, 6 inferior, 9 lateral |
which is the term for cross eyed | estropia |
how many tunics comprise the globe | three |
which 2 structures form the outer tunic of the eye | cornea and sclera |
all are methods of intraocular lens insertion except | fan folded |
how would detached retina be obtained if hemorrhage is in the eye | surgical vitrectomy |
name of gelatin like fluid that fills the post cavity of the eye | vitreous humor |
which surgical procedure would an ocutome be used | vitrectomy |
condition of the lens that is treated by cataract extraction | opacified |
which procedure would sutures not be necessary | extracapsular cataract extraction |
name of the opening in outer tunic for vitreous | sclerotomy |
tetracaine drops are used to | numb surface of the eye |
which techniques uses a laser to treat retinal tears or proliferative diabetic retinopathy | endophotocoagulation |
which procedure may be done in conjunction with vitectomy if surgeon is unable to gain visualization of the posterior cavity | lensectomy |
term for 6 muscles that provide movement of the eye | extrinsic |
what structure is a vascular, external and function is to refract light rays | cornea |
cryotherapy uses which to seal retinal tears and holes | cold |
which procedure involves adjusting sutures after the patient has recovered within 24 hours | recession/restriction |
what is the name of the narrow, double angle retractor frequently used in oral procedures | mouth prop |
which countable sponge is used in oral procedures to prevent bone or tooth fragments and other forge in matter from becoming lodged in the pharynx | throat pack |
coral would be classified as what type of graft material | xenograft |
all of the following are configurations of fixation plates for maxillofacial fracture reduction except | W |
strands of wire used to attach arch bars to the upper and lower jaw should be pre stretched and cut to which length | 10 mm |
which of the following statements regarding arch bars is correct | they are thin, malleable bars with hooks facing up for maxilla and down for mandible |
which sequence of steps for plate fixation is correct | place plate, drill one hole at a time measure with depth gauge, tap, insert, screw, and repeat steps for remaining holes |
tapping of the bone is done in fixation procedure to reduce: | torque pressure on screws |
how many craniofacial bones make up the orbit? | seven |
irrigation and what other item is used anytime dental drill is used during odontectomy | suction |
which diameter fixation screw would most likely be used for a fracture of the mandible | 4.0 mm |
care must be taken when pre auricular and submandibular incisions are made to protect which cranial nerve | seven |
which of the following must accompany the patient to the PACU who has undergone maxillomandibular fixation | wire cutters |
which of the following is the most common type of mid facial fracture and is also known as transmaxillary fracture | le fort |
what should the surgical technologist do before handling a _ to the surgeon for __ orbital floor fracture? | moisten it with saline |
surgical treatment of which anatomical area might result in a postoperative complication of malocclusion | jaw |
the hard palate is the | roof of the mouth |
what orle is the surgical technologist often required to fill during oral and maxillofacial procedures | assistant |
which hemostatic agent is used during oral and maxxillofacial procedures that requires advising the anesthesiologist provider of its use | epinephrine |
in which instrument tray would you find a ballenger swivel knife, cottle elevator and takahashi forceps | SMR |
an otorhinolaryngologist is | ENT |
what is the name of the structure that separates the outer and middle ear canals from one another | tympanic membrane |
in mytingotomy procedures what does PE stand for | pressure equalizing |
what chronically occuring condition is often the reason for placement of myringotomy tubes in both ears | otitis media |
what is an important step for the surgical technologist to remember to perform when changing burrs on a pneumatic drill | pt hand piece on safety |
epistaxis is known as an acute | nosebleed |
what is an alternate name for the boy nasal projections known as turbinates | conchae |
all of the following are methods of performing a turbinectomy except | percutaneous |
what is the most common cause of nasal polyps | allergic rhinitis |
walters, caldwell, lateral and submental are used to establish | sinus cavity |
which procedure would the surgical tech need to have a spreader and hook for use | tracheostomy |
a tmj decompression is performed | lateral jaw |
topical cocaine 4% is used in nasal surgery for | anesthesia |
antostomy rasps are used in procedures involving which anatomical structures | facial sinuses |
what is a double action cupped forward angle forcep used to resect portions of the nasal septum | jansen middleton |
a procedure performed in ICU ER or PACU | tracheotomy |
how should micro ear instruments be cleaned intraoperative | with a micro sponge wipe |
baron, frazier and house are | suction |
davis and mcivor are names of which type of instruments | mouth gags |
how many degree classifications of skin burns are there | 4 |
split-thickness skin graft are used to cover which type if burned tissue | denuded areas of third degree burns |
what is the term for the process of removing necrotic tissue or eschar prior to skin grafting | debridment |
what does a mesh graft device do | expands the size of the skin graft |
which of the following statements regarding routine prepping for skin graft procedures is correct | donor site is prepped first and considered clean |
any of the following may be used topically for hemostats for the STSF donor site EXCEPT | phenylephrine |
relaxtion and hypertrophy of the eyelid skin is also known as | dermatochalasis |
cheiloplasty and palatoplasty are corrective procedures for which of the following | cleft lip and palate |
for which would the surgical technologist prepare a tumescent solution | liposuction |
the pinna, helix, crus, and tragus are all portions of the | ear |
which type of scissors would most likely be used to trim a full-thickness skin graft FTSG to size | tenotomy |
which of the following letters represents the incisional configuration most commonly used for scar revision procedures | Z |
which type of incision is most frequently used to excise excess skin in a blepharoplasty procedure | elliptical |
in which procedure would the proceures and corrugator muscles be ablated avulsed resected or sparated | endoscopic brow lift |
which of the following terms is more commonly referred to as a full face lift | rhytidectomy |
which method of anesthesia is preferred to rhytidectomy procedures | MAC (monitored) |
a full thickness skin graft may be taken from the inner thigh or labial fold to re create which area | areola |
crescent, benelli, and benelli lollipop lifts are techniques used during | mastopexy |
anchor shaped incisions with joining of tissue envelope folds are performed in which procedure | mastopexy |
which cranial nerve must not be compromised by retractor placement during rhytidectomy | seventh |
which type of suture would most likely be used during a cleft lip repair | fine absorbable |
which nerves passes through the carpel tunnel | median |
what suturing technique would the surgeon use to attach tendons in a toe to thumb transfer procedure | figure 8 |
which of the following terms means surgical fixation of joint, eventually resulting in international bone fusion | arthroplasty |
wat is the medical term for the congenital deformity commonly called club hand | radial dysplasia |
a patient scheduled for centralization of radial dysplasia would be about what age | 12 months old |
which of the following statements describing variations of polydactyly is not correct | the digits of the hands and feet may be involved |
before closure in augmentation mammoplasty what is done to verify correct size | temporary sizers are placed and filled with saline and the table is raised to siting postion to evaluate appearance |
why would two separated setps be required for immediate reconstruction following mastectomy | to prevent seeding of cancer cells if same instruments are used for both |
which sterile device will be used during TRAM flap reconstruction to verify the blood supply of the remains instant | doppler probe |
which of the following is not a type of liposuction | electrosurgery |
which muscles are tightened in an abdominoplasty procedure | rectus abdominis |
under which muscle is the pocket for breast implant often crated for greater support | pectoralis major |
which type of grafted tissue would have skin sensation preserved | full thickness |
which type of specialized retractor enhances visualization in many breast and abdominoplasty procedures | fiber optic |