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7 lvl CDC Self Test
2AX7X
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| To the greatest extent possible, how should maintenance be performed? | On a preplanned schedule basis |
| Using equipment generates what type of maintenance? | Corrective (unscheduled) |
| What are the two basic types of scheduled and unscheduled maintenance? | On-equipment and off-equipment |
| Maintenance cross-tells are used for what purpose? | To highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel, training or processes |
| What should typically be included in a maintenance cross-tell report in addition to details such as national stock numbers, part numbers, and specific location of problem areas? | Relevant background information and history |
| What are two major goals of Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program (IREP) meetings? | 1. Increase local repair capability where appropriate. 2. Reduce the overall cost of operations |
| In order of increasing capability, what are the three separate levels of maintenance? | 1. Organizational 2. Intermediate 3. Depot |
| Which level of maintenance is performed off-equipment at the backshop level? | Intermediate level |
| What level of maintenance is used for complex repairs and is located at a major repair facility? | Depot level |
| What combined maintenance approach modifies or eliminates the intermediate (off-equipment) function, where possible, by consolidating that repair function at the depot level? | 2LM Two-level |
| What type of maintenance facility is a hybrid of 2LM and 3LM and combines intermediate-level maintenance from multiple bases to one location? | Regional repair center |
| What type of specialized regional repair facility provides intermediate-level maintenance for selected commodities? | Centralized Repair Facility (CRF) |
| How can a successful R&M program be defined? | One that promotes the ability to identify and correct system deficiencies before they affect combat capability |
| What is the primary scope of the Product Improvement Working Group (PIWG)? | To address product deficiencies affecting R&M that the field unit cannot resolve and resolve DRs that the single manager assigns to them |
| Who takes the lead in identifying, tracking, assessing, and correcting R&M deficiencies on their assigned air and space equipment and also co-chairs PIWG? | Single manager |
| As an end user, what is your primary focus in the DR process? | To identify deficiencies and properly submit reports |
| What MXG agency is tasked with providing technical assistance for DRs? | Quality Assurance (QA) |
| What office assumes sole responsibility for the accuracy, currency, and integrity of the contents of an OI and for compliance with it? | Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR) |
| Can an AF civil service employee act as the POC for an OI? | Yes |
| Which section acts as the OPR for the maintenance policy guidance in the MXG? | Quality Assurance (QA) |
| What type of support agreement governs services provided by US Northern Command to US Central Command? | Inter-command |
| What flight within the MXG normally acts as the POC for SAs? | Program and resources flight |
| What is the most important thing you must know about SAs? | Learn what is in them |
| What is historical documentation as it pertains to aircraft and equipment? | A permanent record of significant maintenance actions on aerospace equipment, including aircraft engines, engine modules, and designated MDS specific -6 TO components |
| Who is responsible for determining which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting and for informing the single manager so the items can be identified for reporting? | Item managers |
| For aircraft engines, when are the printed copies of AFTO IMT 95s not required to accompany end-items upon transfer to/from another location? | When the location has access to the necessary MIS to retrieve the historical information |
| During what type of transfer do helicopter blades and tail rotors blades have to be accompanied by a printed copy of their AFTO IMT 95? | Upon transfer into the disposal system |
| Upon transfer of engines to and from a depot maintenance facility, who is responsible for ensuring all basic engine components have been accounted for? | The maintenance facility that preserves the engine |
| What aircraft engine documentation is an AFTO IMT 95 primarily used for? | To document accumulated cycles, operating time and maintenance history, as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels |
| Which maintenance information system is considered to be the standard AF base-level automated MIS? | IMDS-CDB |
| In regards to MIS data integrity, what are work center and shift supervisors responsible for doing? | Reviewing the data entered into their respective MIS by personnel under their control on a daily basis |
| What section guides the data integrity team process and is responsible for ensuring the MIS data provided to maintenance managers is meaningful and factual? | MOF MMA Section |
| What section is responsible for correcting incorrect and erroneous data entered in the MIS? | The section that entered the data |
| As roadmaps, what can maintenance management metrics, if used properly, help you determine? | Where your organization has been, where you're going, and how (or if) you're going to get there |
| What are two major categories that metrics are often divided into? | Leading and lagging indicators |
| What type of performance indicator shows a problem first, while it is impacting maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission? | Leading |
| What type of indicator shows firmly established trends? | Lagging |
| What maintenance repair priority level should be assigned to perform maintenance on primary mission aircraft, related AGE, and munitions support equipment for the first 8 hours after landing or start of recovery? | Priority 2 |
| What maintenance repair priority level should be assigned to perform scheduled maintenance to include periodic inspections, routine TCTOs, and TCIs? | Priority 4 |
| What maintenance repair priority level should be assigned to perform routine repair of AGE and repair cycle assets? | Priority 5 |
| If a change is made to the repair priority level, does the LRS parts delivery priority have to be changed to match it? | No, not necessarily. This decision should be made by the production superintendent in coordination with MOC |
| Although the "Wing Standup" meeting is used to keep the WG/CC updated about maintenance issues, what is the overall focus of the meeting? | Identifying and resolving issues/disagreements related to schedules |
| In addition to attending a monthly maintenance and flying scheduling meeting, what does the WG/CC ensure at the meetings with regard to MXG and OG interaction? | Ensures the MXG and OG participate jointly in developing an annual maintenance and flying program and a joint plan to ensure the best use of aircraft, equipment and personnel |
| Who is personally tasked as the wing FOD/DOP program manager? | The wing vice-commander (WG/CV) |
| In addition to ensuring effective FOD/DOP programs, what must the FOD/DOP program manager do on a quarterly or monthly basis? | Chair the FOD and DOP prevention committee meetings |
| Why is it important for the MXG/CC to standardize maintenance disciplines, procedures, organizational structures, compliance and management philosophy? | It leads to greater interoperability, improves maintenance quality, and ensures maintenance effectiveness |
| As well as overseeing the development and publication of all maintenance-related OIs, what specific guidance must the MXG/CC establish for cannibalization responsibilities and actions? | Guidance on individual responsibilities and specific procedures for CANN actions |
| Who is responsible for ensuring effective management of all maintenance training programs including the development of an orientation program to adequately train newly assigned MXG personnel? | MXG/CC |
| Who is responsible for chairing the daily maintenance production/scheduling meeting with representatives from throughout the MXG? | MXG/CD |
| Who doe the MXG SUPT work directly for? | MXG/CC |
| Other than acting as a technical advisor, the MXG SUPT advises the MXG/CC on what type of issues? | Personnel, morale, and welfare issues, as well as on problems not identified through maintenance data systems or QA inspection reports |
| What is the MXG SUPT's primary job as it relates to enlisted manning within the MXG? | Serves as the group's focal point for enlisted manning |
| What responsibilities does a SQ/CC have with the overall focus of upgrade training and maintenance qualification programs? | He or she must emphasize the quality of the programs and not just focus on minimum upgrade time frames |
| Even though SQ/CCs are ultimately responsible for unit deployment readiness, who do they appoint to help ensure deployment readiness? | UDM |
| If squadron manning authorizations are not right, what can the SQ/CC do to help remedy the situation? | He or she can coordinate with the wing manpower office through the group manning manger, for assistance in preparing an ACR to alter his or her manning authorization |
| What two positions within the MOS perform essentially the same duties as the MOO/MX SUPT? | MOF/CC and MOF SUPT |
| In AMXS/HMXS or MXS, who does the MX SUPT work for? | MOO |
| Who is responsible through the MOS/CC to the MXG/CC for monitoring the overall health of the fleet | MOF/CC assisted by the MOF SUPT |
| Who is responsible for developing written procedures for EOR inspections in coordination with the wing weapons manger, weapons safety manager, and airfield management? | MOO/MX SUPT in AMXS/HMXS |
| Who is responsible for reviewing consolidating monthly maintenance plan inputs from the various MXS flights/section and for forwarding them to MOF PS&D? | MXS MOO with the assistance of the MXS SUPT |
| In MOS, who are flight chiefs responsible to in the area of leadership, supervision, and training of their assigned flight personnel? | MOF/CC |
| With regards to job environment safety, what must a flight chief inform workers of? | Any hazardous conditions they may encounter on the job |
| Who is responsible for reviewing PRDs and flight aborts daily to ensure proper maintenance is being taken to correct the underlying problem? | AMU OIC/SUPT |
| Who chairs the daily maintenance production meeting to develop and modify the overall maintenance plan of attack for an AMU? | AMU OIC or SUPT |
| What is the primary job of the section NCOIC/section chief? | To act as the first-line manager and supervisor and to serve as the technical authority and advisor for his or her particular section |
| What AF IMT should a section NCOIC use to monitor, track, and document safety and health-related information about his or her workers? | AF IMT 55 |
| For section managed TMDE, what is a section NCOIC responsible for ensuring? | That maintenance and calibration requirements are accomplished |
| The section NCOIC should ensure cross-utilization training requirements do not interfere with what? | Upgrade/qualification training |
| The section NCOIC should ensure his or her section is organized with tools, equipment, and material as close to the point of maintenance (POM) as possible without jeopardizing what? | Accountability and control procedures |
| What is the primary job of an AMU flight-line Pro Super? | To direct the overall maintenance effort of his or her AMU |
| What is the grade requirement to be appointed as an AMU flight-line Pro Super? | SNCO or civilian equivalent |
| Which MOF section is responsible for monitoring and coordinating sortie and maintenance production and overall execution of the flying and maintenance schedules? | MOC |
| Who is responsible for appointing, in writing, a highly qualified individual to manage the Engine Health Management Program? | MXG/CC |
| Which MOF section is responsible for coordinating aircraft maintenance requirements and ensuring proper utilization scheduling between the OG ad MXG and any other applicable external agencies? | PS&D |
| What is the primary mission of the Maintenance Management Analysis section? | To track, analyze, and present information to help the various levels of leadership assess the health of their unit's aircraft and equipment |
| Other than teaching, what is the mission of the Maintenance Training Flight? | To serve as the MXG's single point of contact for all training matters affecting maintenance and to be responsible for the overall management and control of the Training Management subsystem of IMDS-CDB |
| What are unit training managers responsible for in addition to assisting squadron commanders with training matters? | Managing squadron enlisted specialty training programs |
| Is the MTF normally allowed to duplicate training taught on base by a locally assigned AETC Training Detachment? | No |
| Programs and Resources Flight personnel are primarily responsible for managing what programs within the MXG? | Manning, facilities, support agreements, and deployment programs |
| Within the Programs and Resources Flight, who can give technical assistance for palletizing equipment or doing a deployment site survey? | The Logistics Planner |
| What is the basic mission of an AMU? | To launch and recover aircraft and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maintenance to support daily aircraft flying operations |
| What are the standard sections of an AMU? | Debrief Aircraft Specialist Weapons Support |
| What is a definition of sortie generation? | The cumulative effort required to launch and recover sorties |
| In addition to closely monitoring aircraft status, who must the flight-line expediter notify when status and configuration changes occur? | MOC and the Pro Super |
| What are some of the references that flight-line expediters must keep close at hand to facilitate their duties? | Copies of the flying schedule, emergency action/functional checklists, base grid map with cordon overlay, IPI listing, MESL, QRL, WUC Manual, and a tracking device for aircraft status |
| Flight-line expediters must track the serial number, location, priority, status, ETIC, and configuration of all aircraft. What are some of the other items that must be tracked? | OAP condition codes, fuel load, munitions load, and remarks for each aircraft as applicable |
| What are some of the information elements that Debrief personnel enter into the applicable MIS? | Discrepancy and deviation information, utilization, and applicable flight data (including landing status, system capability, and other applicable cause codes) |
| Who is responsible for ensuring aircraft form sets are made available to the Debrief Section by the end of the day if debriefs have been suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations? | Flight-line expediter or Pro Super |
| What are some of the entries that Debrief must ensure that the aircraft commander/pilot makes on the applicable AFTO 781 IMTs/Forms during the debriefing session? | New discrepancies noted, aircraft condition codes, flying time, servicing data, and any other required entries |
| What does an aircraft landing status code of 2 mean with regard to aircraft or system condition? | Aircraft of system has minor discrepancies but is capable of further mission assignment within normal turnaround times |
| What are the three different types of crew chief positions that can be assigned to the Aircraft Section? | DCCs, ADCCs, and FCCs |
| In a general sense, what are DCCs and ADCCs charged with doing in respect to their assigned aircraft? | Managing and supervising all maintenance on their assigned aircraft |
| The Specialist Section is normally responsible for what duties? | Aircraft troubleshooting, on-equipment repairs, component R&I, reprogramming avionics system, and classified aircraft items management |
| Why is the Specialist Section NCOIC responsible for promoting cross-talk with other unit specialist sections? | To obtain information on system/component repeat, recur, and CND trends |
| Which specialist is responsible for maintaining ECS, bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems? | E&E Specialist |
| Who must the specialist expediters coordinate with in determining maintenance priorities for special support? | With the Pro Super and flight-line expediter |
| What are two standard elements in an AMU Weapons Section? | Loading and maintenance |
| Who serves as the key advisor to the AMXS MOO on factors that affect weapons training, weapons loading, and armament system maintenance capabilities for the AMU? | Weapons section NCOIC |
| What are weapons expediters responsible for monitoring with regard to the Weapons Section NCOIC? | Monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations |
| Who must the weapons expediter coordinate with for the delivery and pick-up of munitions? | With MOC or munitions control |
| Who is responsible for controlling access to an aircraft undergoing munitions loading and unloading? | Load crew chief |
| The NCOIC of the AMU Support Section must come from one of what two AFSCs? | 2AXXX or 2WXXX |
| What is the minimum amount of time that personnel are normally assigned to the Support Section? | 12 months |
| What information must Supply Support personnel keep expediters updated on? | The status of back ordered parts |
| List the nine standard flights that make up the MXS? | 1. Accessories 2. AGE 3. Armament 4. Avionics 5. Fabrication 6. Maintenance 7. Munitions 8. Propulsion 9. TMDE |
| If the MXS has more than 700 manning authorizations, what do commanders have the option of doing? | They can separate MXS into two squadrons: EMS and CMS |
| What sections are in a standard Accessories Flight? | E&E egress fuel systems hydraulic |
| What Accessories Flight section is responsible for repairing oxygen and nitrogen servicing carts? | E&E section |
| When egress explosive devices are damaged or suspected to be unsafe, who does the Egress Section request assistance from? | EOD |
| What three sections usually make up the AGE Flight? | Repair and inspection servicing, pick-up, and delivery AGE Production Support |
| What AGE section is responsible for maintaining TO files? | AGE Production Support |
| What is the overall mission of the Armament Flight? | To perform off equipment maintenance for assigned aircraft armament systems, guns, pylons, racks, launchers, and adapters |
| Who does the Armament Flight CC/Chief assist in recommending distributions of 2W1X1 personnel to satisfy on- and off-equipment weapons release and gun system maintenance? | WWM |
| Which Armament Flight section coordinates with MOF and PS&D in scheduling inspections, TCTOs, and time-changes? | Armament Maintenance |
| Which Avionics Flight section off-equipment maintenance and/or CND screening on communication and navigation components and systems, including assigned SE not maintained by TMDE? | Communication-Navigation |
| Which Avionics Flight section maintains LANTIRN pods? | Sensors |
| What section maintains, programs, and performs TCTOs on avionics components when the specified test stations and support equipment are available in the section? | Avionics Intermediate |
| What sections make up the Fabrication Flight? | Aircraft Structural Maintenance Low-observable Aircraft Structural Maintenance Metals Technology NDI |
| What two Fabrication Flight sections are responsible for corrosion control? | ASM and LO |
| What is Metals Technology tasked with doing? | Inspecting, repairing, servicing, manufacturing, fabricating, heat treating, testing, cleaning, and welding aircraft, equipment, components, and tools |
| What four sections make up the Maintenance Flight? | 1. Repair and Reclamation 2. Wheel and Tire 3. Aircraft Inspection 4. Transient Alert |
| Which Maintenance Flight removes, replaces, and rigs flight control surfaces? | Repair and Reclamation |
| What is the definition of transient aircraft? | Aircraft not assigned to the local base and are en route from one location to another that may require routine servicing |
| Which Munitions Flight section assembles, disassembles, delivers, inspects, and maintains conventional munitions, missiles, containers, and dispensers? | Munitions Production |
| Which Munitions Flight section manages unit mobility and training program? | Munitions Systems |
| Who acts as the wing focal point for propulsion maintenance programs and gives advice to wing leadership about propulsion issues? | Propulsion Flight CC/Chief |
| Which Propulsion Flight section stores, builds up, tears down, modifies, and repairs engines, quick engine change kits, and test components? | JEIM |
| Which Propulsion Flight section is responsible for maintaining, managing, and storing engine support trailers? | Engine Equipment Maintenance |
| Which TMDE Flight section performs in-laboratory and on-site calibration and repair using laboratory equipment and certification standards? | PMEL |
| Who do the PMEL QA Section evaluators report their inspection findings to? | TMDE Flight CC/Chief |
| What are the four elements of the TMDE Production Control section? | 1. Customer Service 2. Production Scheduling 3. Traffic Management 4. Maintenance Supply Liaison |
| Where is a list of formal AF-wide training courses for a specific career field normally found? | In part 2 of the career field's CFETP |
| What type of aircraft maintenance training in centrally produced but delivered to students to be accomplished at their convenience? | Distance Learning |
| Other than three airframe and powerplant courses, what is an example of an aircraft maintenance related specialized course? | Aircraft Communications/Navigation Systems |
| For maintenance personnel, when must training documentation be maintained for MSgts and above? | When they perform maintenance on aircraft, missiles or associated equipment |
| What type of maintenance tasks are normally included on the special certification roster? | Those that have a high potential for personnel injury or damage to equipment |
| What form is normally used to add someone to the special certification roster? | AF IMT 2426, Training Request and Completion Notification |
| What should supervisors do when they determine that a person is no longer qualified to perform a task he or she was added to the special certification roster to perform? | Decertify them and have them removed from the SCR for that task |
| Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time visibility of what? | The technical qualifications, certifications and training status of weapon systems and support professionals Air Force wide |
| TBA allows all officers, enlisted and civilian personnel to access their training records and the records of personnel they supervise anywhere that has what? | Network access |
| What provides notifications on TBA application problems, software release (problem corrections) projected downtimes and training update information? | The "System Messages" board |
| What determines the actions TBA allows you to perform? | The role, or roles you have been assigned by a Role Manager |
| What is a copy of the TBA production application intended for user practice and orientation on the TBA application an not for operational unit training management activities? | TBA User Practice Environment (UPE) |
| Maintenance orientation class given to newly assigned personnel is considered what phase of training under the maintenance qualification program? | Phase 1 |
| What agency is required to develop a list of all mandatory TD, MTF, and advanced distributed learning courses that maintenance personnel must attend in order to work on a specific MDS? | Lead commands |
| What course must MSgts or above attend, if available, when they will be supervising personnel on an MDS for which they have less than 1 year of experience? | Aircraft familiarization course |
| What training consists of academic and practical hands-on training courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC courses? | Maintenance qualification training |
| What phase of training includes specialty training such as engine run, hot pit refuel, and borescope training? | Phase III, Special Qualification Training |
| What does it mean when someone is showing in IMDS as AWACT without a due date for a particular training requirement? | That the initial training has not been performed or loaded |
| When an inventory of course materials is accomplished, what should also be completed in the CDC volumes before a trainee is allowed to begin work on the CDC course? | Any applicable pen-and-ink changes |
| If TBA is not used or available, which AF IMT should be used to show milestones such as date volume issued, completed, any delays, reviews of training progress, course exam ordered/passed or fail, and any other significant CDC training issues? | AF IMT 623a, On the job training record continuation sheet |
| When you are building a master training plan (MTP) for your flight/section, what should you do first? | Develop a master task list |
| What cutoff should be used to determine if a task should be a workcenter requirement? | It is performed by 51 percent or more of personnel in the workcenter |
| With some exceptions, what do core tasks identify? | The minimum task certification that must be achieved by a technician to be upgraded to either 5- or 7-level |
| What type of training tasks-both core and non-core-require third-party certification? | Critical tasks |
| What does the UDM provide a listing of? | Both funded and unfunded unit manpower requirements |
| What doe the UPMR provide a listing of? | Unit authorizations (including gains & losses) by workcenter or FAC with the name and rank of the actual person filling each position |
| What is a manning assist used for? | To alleviate a short-term manning problem caused by a temporary but unusually high work load |
| Who is the approval authority to schedule maintenance personnel to work a shift longer than 12 hours? | MXG/CC |
| What is the definition of duty time for maintenance personnel? | Defined as when an individual reports for duty until their supervisor releases them |
| Which maintenance personnel will not perform their duty related maintenance actions beyond a 12 hour continuous duty period? | Personnel required to handle, load or perform maintenance on nuclear weapons, conventional munitions and/or egress explosives |
| Why is shift rotation a key component of personnel utilization? | It allows each individual to develop personal experience and knowledge by exposing them to shift specific duties |
| Who should flight/section chiefs coordinate work shift schedule changes with to ensure sufficient people will be available to support the mission? | The Pro Super or MX Operations Officer/MX Supt |
| With the exception of MSL personnel, supply support personnel are normally listed on what UMD? | Maintenance Group's |
| In addition to coordinating maintenance and supply actions and managing supply transactions, what are workcenter supply personnel tasked with doing? | Managing the production of assets in the repair cycle and resolving supply support problems |
| Why do MSL personnel periodically visit and inspect all maintenance workcenters? | To identify and recommend corrective actions on procedural or compliance problems associated with supply support |
| What is the purpose of a readiness spares package? | To provide a prepackaged set of supplies and spare parts required to support a planned wartime or contingency operations for a specified period of time pending resupply |
| In a general sense, what are the two primary types of readiness spares packages? | Mobility readiness spares packages, and in-place readiness spares packages |
| What is the definition of peacetime operating stock (POS) as it pertains to readiness spares packages? | It is the normal day-to-day assets routinely available in the supply system to support a weapon system |
| Temporary high priority mission support kits (THPMSK) are primarily used to provide support for what type of operations? | To support contingency operations for a period less than 90 days |
| What is the primary reason for conducting an annual review of all permanent readiness spares packages? | To ensure that units are supported with the right size RSP to accomplish its wartime tasking |
| What is the purpose of a bench stock? | To provide maintainers with quick access to items needed on a day-to-day basis |
| If shop stock is stored near or adjacent to bench stock items, should they be mixed together? | No |
| In addition to clearly identifying items as "Work Order Residue," how should you also label them? | With noun, national stock number, or part number, unit of issue, and shelf life if applicable |
| Basically, what is the definition of shelf life items? | Any resource that has a specified amount of time before they must be turned in as unserviceable or inspected and remarked-provided they are still serviceable |
| What AF IMT must all requesters use when requesting the local manufacture of a specific item? | AF IMT 2005, Issue/Turn in Request |
| What AF IMT must be used when requesting local manufacture of equipment related items? | AF IMT 601, Equipment Action Request |
| Who must approve all locally manufactured, developed, or modified tools and equipment, not specifically authorized in technical data? | MXG/CC or their designated representative |
| What is a basic definition of hazardous materials (HAZMAT)? | Any substance that is toxic or flammable-be it gas, liquid or solid-which may cause injury to personnel or damage to the environment |
| What is the primary reference that should be used for HAZMAT spill prevention and response? | Local HAZMAT response plans |
| What information must be listed on a basic, non commercial, label for a HAZMAT container? | Product name, a warning or symbol, and safe handling procedures |
| What IMT should be used to document all safety related information about a specific worker? | AF IMT 55, Employee Safety and Health Record |
| What is used to document items that have been drained and purged? | AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag, or other locally produced documentation |
| What block of supply training covers general supply indoctrination subjects? | Block I |
| What block of supply training must an individual complete to perform duties as a primary or alternate equipment custodian? | Block III |
| What form must be used when items on an equipment account are loaned outside the custodian's span of control? | AFTO Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt |
| What two forms could be used to process a voluntary payment in lieu of a Report of Survey? | DD Form 1131, Cash Collection Voucher, or DD Form 362, Statement of Charges/Cash Collection Voucher |
| Special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets are coded with what ERRC codes? | XD or XF |
| Why was the Precious Metals Recovery Program established? | To promote the economic recovery of precious metals from excess and surplus materials |
| What agency is the collection point for expendable (XB3) items coded under the PMRP? | Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO) |
| What is the primary purpose of Precious Metals Indicator Codes (PIMCs)? | To identify items that were obtained through supply that contain precious metals |
| Repair cycle assets are parts with an ERRC code started with what letters? | XD or XF |
| What is the first character of the urgency justification code (UJC)? | Urgency of Need (UND) Designator |
| Which supply management document can tell what and how many of a particular item you ordered, where it's coming from, how it will be shipped, and an approximate delivery date for all your priority back-ordered parts? | Priority Monitor Report (D18) |
| Which supply management document helps to ensure an orderly and continuous flow of reparable items through the various maintenance activities and to ensure the DIFM delinquency rate is held to a minimum? | Repair Cycle Asset Management List (D23) |
| Which supply management documents provides a means to monitor and verify that each due-out is still a valid requirement? | Due-Out Validation List (M30) |
| What are some of the various types of security containers the government uses to store classified assets? | File cabinets, vaults and safes to store and secure AF classified assets |
| What form is used to show who has responsibility for handling classified material while it is in a sealed container for transit? | AF Form 12, Accountable Container Receipt |
| Who is responsible for ensuring a secure area is provided for transient aircraft on an installation? | Installation commander |
| What type of Security Forces support is normally provided for a fighter aircraft with a security priority "C" designation? | Security Response Team and a motorized patrol |
| What should an installation or activity commander to if top secret equipment is installed on aircraft without priority "A" designation? | Park the aircraft in a restricted area designed for priority "A" assets, keep the aircraft under continuous surveillance, or use an intrusion detection system which assures positive entry control |
| For supply assets requiring functional checking, units are required to identify which assets require this special handling. In addition to the repair section's organization and section code, what minimum details should be listed? | As a minimum, this list must identify the parts by national stock numbers (NSN), repair shop delivery destination code, and frequency of functional check |
| Once a unit's listing of supply assets requiring functional checking, calibration, and flight programming has been approved, how often must the list be updated and validated? | Every 6 months |
| If an asset is removed from service for bench checking and it is found that it can't be repaired locally, how should the item be processed? | Not Repairable This Station (NRTS) |
| What do expedite supply requests represent? | An urgent need for an asset from Supply in order to prevent a work stoppage or other mission degradation situation |
| Expedite customer issue requests have a UND code of "A" or "B." What supply priority response is normally assigned to these requests? | 01 thru 04 |
| Within how many minutes should Supply deliver a part that has issued with a delivery priority of "1"? | 30 minutes |
| What is the highest priority of expedite request that is used to order parts required for repair of mission essential equipment? | MICAP request |
| Who should you contact if you need to request modification of a backorder, including changing the UJC or required delivery date (RDD)? | Customer Service at LRS or your local supply support section |
| When a supply point is being established, who is responsible for providing the necessary space and facilities to store the assets? | Requesting organization |
| When a supply point reconciliation is complete, who does the supply point monitor provide the results to? | LRS Supply Point Manager |
| What document should be submitted to initially stock and replenish supply point assets? | AF IMT 2005, Issue Turn-In Request |
| Why are TNB storage locations established? | To store issued parts awaiting installation and parts removed to facilitate other maintenance |
| How are TNBs arranged? | By tail number, serial number, or identification number |
| What should be done with parts that are removed from TNB but not immediately installed? | Must be returned on the same duty day the item was removed |
| What are the two options you have available when you receive a defective part from supply? | Deficiency Report (DR) and the Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR) |
| In supply terminology, what does Credit mean when dealing with deficient assets ordered from supply? | An exchange or obligated cost credit provided to the customer upon reporting of deficient assets |
| What is a support point as it relates to the DR process? | Any activity that assists the Action Point |
| Essentially, what is the Originator in the DR process responsible for? | Discovering the deficiency, identifying its impact, and initiating a report |
| What does the Originating Point use to submit and track DRs? | Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS) |
| Which level in the DR Processing chain is the designated focal point for receipt and processing of DRs? | Screening Point |
| When should an SDR be submitted instead of a DR? | When the sole purpose is to obtain a replacement item or credit |
| If it has been more than 146 days since you submitted an SDR and you still have no indication of it being resolved, whom should you contact? | Your MAJCOM |
| What is the goal of the current AF TO modernization effort? | To provide user friendly, technically accurate, and up-to-date digital technical data at the point of use |
| What are the three levels of TO distribution activities that provide basic TO system support to base-level AF organizations? | 1. Group: Lead TODO 2. Squadron: TODO 3. Section: TODA |
| What section are MXG TODOs normally assigned to? | Quality Assurance |
| What form should be used to establish a TODO account? | AFTO IMT 43 |
| For what purpose are checklists developed? | To provide abbreviated step-by-step procedures for operation and maintenance of systems and equipment in the sequence deemed most practical |
| What MXG agency is responsible for performing an initial evaluation of a TCTO to determine its applicability? | Quality Assurance |
| Who is responsible for attending TCTO planning meetings and should thoroughly review the TCTO before the meeting so clarification requests can be made? | The flight or section performing the TCTO |
| What form should be used to submit a TO change? | AFTO IMT 22 |
| What is a preliminary TO? | An unpublished TO that is used to support review of a new TO during the development process |
| What are the two main types of TO changes? | Corrections and Improvements |
| When should a follow-up be made after submitting an AFTO IMT 22 for an Emergency TO change request? | 48 hours after submission |
| What AF IMT should be submitted to have a TO correction or improvement be considered under the IDEA program? | AF IMT 1000 |
| Why should on-scene commanders use extreme caution when waiving compliance with TO guidance during an emergency situation? | Because they could be jeopardizing the safety of personnel and equipment |
| Who may temporarily waive specific TO compliance until operational capability permits or safety of personnel is assured for forces engaged in actual combat operations or supporting EWO alert taskings, and for systems or components engaged in contingency o | AOR commanders |
| How long does a TO waiver remain in effect? | Until the OPR cancels it in writing, the publication is completely rewritten, or the waiver expires (the expiration date must be specified in the documentation granting the waiver) |
| A CANN action becomes necessary when a condition exists that prevents successful mission accomplishment. However, what should be verified before executing the CANN action? | That the asset cannot be obtained through supply in an acceptable amount of time |
| When may CA authorities authorize CANN actions before documentation is initiated? | In high priority circumstances when a required part cannot be delivered in an acceptable amount of time (i.e., red ball maintenance) |
| What should be checked prior to accomplishing a CANN made for a time change item? | The CA must ensure that enough time is left on the part being cannibalized to justify the CANN action |
| Which CANN program requires increased coordination and cooperation between flightline, aircraft inspection section, and supporting organizations? | Concurrent CANN/inspection |
| Which CANN program has the advantages of have fewer CANN aircraft per year, an increase in MC rate, and an increase in aircraft availability? | Consolidated CANN program |
| What type of wheels must be installed on all rolling equipment (including maxi-type toolboxes) used in an open fuel tank repair area? | Antistatic, nonmetal wheels |
| In addition to having enough signs stating "Caution, (or Danger)High Radiation Area" that can be seen from all accessible areas, what else is required to identify an area where radiographic inspection is taking place? | A red rotating/flashing strobe-type light and rope barrier |
| To ensure the job is performed safely, what is one of the first things that should be done before an aircraft is jacked? | Read/follow all applicable cautions, warnings and notes in the applicable TO |
| Red ball maintenance normally occurs as an aircraft is attempting to leave for a mission but can also occur during what time-frame? | Up to 2 hours prior to launch all the way thru to the time the aircrew releases an aircraft to maintenance following a mission |
| During a red ball maintenance operation, what must be reaccomplished if the aircraft status changes? | An exceptional release or conditional release |
| To alleviate safety hazards, what should be used during red ball maintenance while aircraft engines are running? | A safety observer |
| How can impoundment be defined? | The isolation or control of access to an aircraft or equipment item and applicable historical records so an intensified investigation can be completed |
| What rank must an individual have before serving as an Impoundment Official? | MSgt or above (or civilian equivalent) |
| What agency acts as the OPR for MXG impoundment procedures? | Quality Assurance |
| Who is responsible for selecting a team of highly qualified technicians dedicated to determining the cause of a problem that resulted in an aircraft/equipment impoundment? | The impoundment official |
| What is a main objective of the tool and equipment management program? | To minimize or eliminate FOD to aircraft, engines, missiles, and equipment |
| Which TO provides guidance for the periodic inspection of hand tools? | TO 32-1-101 |
| What does an MIL provide a listing of? | All contents in a particular CTK |
| What is the AF standard system for issuing tools and equipment used to perform maintenance? | Tool Accountability System (TAS) |
| Who is required to coordinate on all locally manufactured weapons related tools and equipment? | Wing Weapons Manager |
| The EID used to mark tools has nine digits. What are the first four characters collectively called? | Worldwide Identification (WWID) code |
| What is the definition of dispatch able equipment? | Items that can be checked out from a support section, tool room, or work center to perform on-/off-equipment maintenance within or outside the work center |
| What should be done if a lost tool or item is deemed an inaccessible item that poses no FOD threat and is left in place? | All information concerning the tool will be maintained in the aircraft historical file until the item/tool is recovered |
| Who is required to comply with FOD Program prevention directives? | All personnel (military, civilian, and contractors) in, on, around, or traveling through taxiways, runways, flightlines and maintenance areas |
| Who is assigned as the wing FOD prevention program manager? | WG/CV |
| Who is responsible for chairing the FOD prevention committee meeting in the absence of the WG/CV? | WG/CC |
| How often are FOD prevention committee meetings held if a unit's FOD rate is not meeting the Lead Command-established standard? | Monthly |
| As it pertains to the DOP program, what is the definition of a dropped object? | Any aircraft part, component, surface or other item lost from an aircraft during aircrew operations, unless intentionally jettisoned |
| What units are required to develop an effective Dropped Object Prevention Program? | All wings, groups, squadrons, and any other units which operate aircraft |
| Who is required to investigate dropped objects involving transient aircraft? | Local wing DOP program monitor |
| What is the definition of a maintenance recovery as it pertains to MRTs? | The repair and successful launch of an aircraft that has been unexpectedly grounded at a location other than the aircraft's home station |
| What is considered normal duty time for an MRT during maintenance recovery operation? | 12 hours of work and 12 hours of rest |
| What AFI provides valuable guidance on executing a successful maintenance recovery operation? | AFI 21-101 |
| What does the MSEP provide an objective sampling of? | The quality of equipment, the proficiency of maintenance personnel, and the compliance of Lead Command and Unit MSEP focus areas, programs, and processes |
| Who serves as the primary technical advisory agency in the maintenance organization, assisting maintenance supervision at all levels to resolve quality problems? | Quality Assurance |
| Who is responsible for developing and monitoring the MSEP program using a Lead Command-approved QA database that provides supervisors access to MSEP data? | QA OIC/SUPT |
| How much time, as a minimum, must personnel have in their unit before being selected as a QA inspector? | 6 months |
| An MSET team is required to have only one permanent member. Where does the remainder of the team come from? | Other MAJCOM agencies and field units |
| If an MSET issues an overall rating, what are the ratings that a unit may receive? | Outstanding, Excellent, Satisfactory, Marginal, and Unsatisfactory |
| How are individual evaluations normally rated by an MSET? | PASS/FAIL |
| How much is a unit MSET rating decreased for each TDV, DSV, or UCR received? | 0.5 percentage points |
| When units develop their MSEP and conduct local inspections, what is used to ensure their programs, maintenance technician proficiency, equipment condition, and other focus areas are in compliance? | AF, MAJCOM, and local directives |
| QA rates personnel evaluations based on what type of standard? | Acceptable quality level |
| A UCR indicates an unsafe or unsatisfactory condition, other than a DSV, and is chargeable to whom? | Work center supervisor |
| What is the goal of the PIP program? | To identify and correct deficiencies before they affect combat capability |
| How does the PIM emphasize and promote product improvements to ensure maintenance personnel are familiar with the PIP? | By circulating flyers/newsletters, visiting commander's calls, presenting the program at maintenance orientation briefings, and making routine visits to maintenance areas |
| Who does the PIM coordinate with to ensure proper exhibit control and handling? | With the ALC and LRS |
| What is the major role that PIMs perform when processing AFTO IMT 22s? | Proper evaluation is performed and the forms are properly filled out IAW TO 00-5-1 |
| If SMR code changes are approved, who does the PIM coordinate repair evaluation meetings with? | Affected agencies |
| When it comes to R&M deficiencies, what causes does the PIM determine? | Unit factors or local conditions versus those beyond the unit's control |
| What does aircraft configuration management provide unit managers the capability to do? | Determine the actual versus approved configuration of an aircraft |
| What section within the MXG has overall responsibility for managing the ACM database for the wing? | MOF PS&D |
| What is a formal modification proposal? | A recommendation to change the operation, use, or appearance of AF aircraft and equipment |
| Whether temporary, permanent, or safety, what is the lowest approval level needed to make a modification to an aircraft or piece of equipment? | MAJCOM |
| How often must temporary modifications be reproved with HQ USAF/A4M? | Annually |
| In addition to the system program manager maintaining system engineering integrity, what agency is responsible for fleet-wide interoperability and commonality of that system? | Lead Command |
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