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PTCB Harris 2022
Practice Questions Pharmacy Tech
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is the difference between capsules and caplets? | Capsules can be pulled apart unlike caplets |
| Forms of tablets that are not meant to be swallowed, but dissolved in the mouth, which releases medicine slowly | Lozenges and Troches |
| A very small rod inserted under the skin. of May be used in woman's upper arm to provide birth control. It's invisible and prevents pregnancy for up to 4 years. | Implant |
| Solid pieces of material that holds a specific amount of medicine to be released in to the skin over time | Patches |
| Sugar based solutions that have medication dissolved into them | Syrup |
| Agents contain dissolved medication in either an alcohol or water base, or a mixture of both | Elixir |
| What are sprays composed of | Composed of various bases such as alcohol or water in a pump-type inhaler |
| Inhalants and Aerosols | For direct medicinal source of inflammation |
| APAP ES 650mg i tab PO Q4H PRN pain | Acetaminophen Extra Strength 650 milligrams, Take one tablet by mouth every 4 hours as needed for pain |
| Hydrocortisone supp. i pr TID x 2 wk | Hydrocortisone suppository, Insert 1suppository rectally 3 times a day for 2 weeks |
| SMZ/TMP DS i tab PO Q12H | Sulfamethoxazole with Trimethoprim Double Strength, Take one tablet by mouth every 12 hours |
| IBU 600mg i tab PO TID PC | Ibuprofen 600 milligrams, Take 1 tablet by mouth 3 times a day after meals |
| PB 1/4 gr i tab PO TID | Phenobarbital 1/4 gram, Take 1 tablet by mouth 3 times a day |
| APAP c Codeine elix 10 cc PO Q4-6H for 12 days, what is the sig and quantity? | Acetaminophen with codeine elixir, Take 10 cubic centiliters (CC)(2 tsp) by mouth every 4-6 hours for 12 days. 720 cc or ml |
| Cortisporin opth ung apply 1/2 in ribbon OD Q3H | Cortisporin ophthalmic ointment, Apply a 1/2 inch ribbon in right eye every 3 hours |
| Triamcinolone 0.1% cr apply aa BID | Triamcinolone 0.1% cream, apply as directed twice a day |
| ii tab PO stat, then i tab PO Q4H until gone | Take 2 tablets by mouth immediately, then 1 tablet by mouth every 4 hours until gone |
| i tab sl q5min PRN chest pain, NTE 3 doses/15mins | Place 1 tablet sublingually every 5 minutes as needed for chest pain, not to exceed 3 doses in 15 mins |
| ii puffs Q4H PRN sob/wheezing | Inhale 2 puffs every 4 hours as needed for shortness of breath or wheezing |
| i cap BID c food | Take 1 capsule by mouth twice daily with food |
| i tab PO QID | Take i tablet by mouth four times a day |
| i-ii gtt os Q2H x 1-2 days, then Q4-6H thereafter | Place 1-2 drops in left eye every 2 hours for 1-2 days, then every 4-6 hours thereafter |
| 0.3mg IM x 1 | Inject 0.3 milligrams intramuscularly x 1 injection |
| Apply 1/2 inch strip od TID-QID | Apply 1/2 inch strip in right eye 3-4 times daily |
| 17 units SQ TID ac | Inject 17 units subcutaneously 3 times daily before meals |
| ECASA 81mg i tab po QAM | Enteric-coated aspirin 81 milligrams, Take 1 tablet by mouth every morning |
| TCN 500mg i cap PO Q6H | Tetracycline 500 milligrams, Take 1 capsule by mouth every 6 hours |
| i-ii tab PO Q6H PRN pain | Take 1-2 tablets by mouth every 6 hours as needed for pain |
| Absorption | The taking in or incorporation of a chemical agent across natural barriers in the body system |
| Bioavailability | The amount of drug that reaches its intended destination by being absorbed into the blood stream |
| Bioequivalence | The difference between a drug that is manufactured in a different dosage form or by a different company |
| Distribution | The ability of a drug to pass into the blood stream |
| Excretion | Process of elimination of medicinal agents |
| Half-Life | The amount of time it takes a chemical to decrease by one half |
| Inhale | To breathe in |
| Instill | To place into |
| Metabolism | Process that breaks down drugs for excretion |
| OTC | Over the counter medications |
| Parenteral | Medication given by injection |
| Pharmacokinetics | Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism and Excretion |
| CD | Controlled-Diffusion |
| CR | Controlled-Release |
| CRT | Controlled-Release tablet |
| LA | Long-Acting |
| SA | Sustained-Action |
| SR | Sustained/Slow Release |
| TD | Time-Delay |
| TR | Time-Release |
| XL | Extra-Long |
| XR | Extended-Release |
| Examples of solid medications | Tablets, troches, capsules, lozenges, troches, implants, patches |
| Examples of liquid medications are? | Syrups, sprays, enemas, inhalants, emulsions, solutions |
| Examples of semi-solid medications | Creams, lotions, ointments, powders, gelatins, suppositories |
| Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act | 1970- The DEA was created, which also created the drug schedules I-V. |
| When was the Pure Food and Drug Act enacted and what is it? | 1906- Prohibited interstate transportation or sale of adulterated or misbranded food and drugs |
| Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) | 1938- The FDA was created; It also defined adulteration and misbranding, and all new drug applications had to be filed through the FDA |
| Kefauver-Harris Amendment | 1962- Requires all medications in the US to be pure, safe, and effective. Required that drug related adverse events be reported to the FDA. |
| Durham-Humphrey Act | 1951- Required all products to have adequate directions for use, as well as separated drugs into prescription and over the counter. Required the labeling "Caution: Federal Law Prohibits Dispensing without a Prescription." |
| Poison Prevention Packaging Act | 1970- Requires all over the counter (OTC) and legend drugs to be in child proof resistant containers |
| Occupational Safety & Health Act (OSHA) | 1970- Ensures a safe and healthful workplace |
| Drug Listing Act | 1972- Each drug was assigned a NDC (national drug code) |
| Orphan Drug Act | 1983- Medications for treatment of diseases or conditions of which are fewer than 200,000 |
| Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act | 1984- Encouraged the creation of both generic and new medications by streamlining the process for approval and by extending the patent |
| Resource Conservation and Recovery Act | Produced federal guidelines regarding the disposal of hazardous waste |
| HIPPA | 1996-Health Insurance Portability and Accountability (HIPAA) AKA-Protected Health Information (PHI) Improves the portability and continuity of health coverage in the group and individual markets as well as combating waste, fraud, and abuse in health |
| Prescription Marketing Act | 1987- Prohibits the sale or distribution or sale of samples to anyone other than those licensed to prescribe them |
| Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA '87) | 1987- Revisions to Medicare/Medicaid conditions regarding long term care facilities, and that a patient regimen should not contain unnecessary medications |
| Anabolic Steroid Act | 1990- resulted in harsher penalties for abuse of anabolic steroids by athletes |
| OBRA '90 | 1990- Requires manufacturers to provide the lowest prices to any customer or Medicaid patients. Also required a pharmacists that want to be paid by Medicaid to councel all new prescritions. |
| FDA Safe Medical Devices | 1990- Requires all medical devices to be tracked and records to be maintained for durable medical equipment |
| When was the Americans with Disabilities Act enacted and what is it? | 1990- Prevents discrimination against potential employees who may possess a disability |
| Anabolic Steroid Control Act | 2004- Anabolic Steroids as a schedule 3 by eliminating the requirement to prove muscle growth |
| Any Willing Provider Law | Allows any pharmacy to participate in a prescription drug benefit plan as long as they comply to terms and conditions |
| Freedom of Choice Law | Allows any member of a drug plan to select any pharmacy |
| Freedom of Choice with Regard to Long-Term Care | Long term residents may choose an outside pharmacy for their medications if the pharmaceutical service is not provided |
| Prescription Drug Equity Law | Prohibits a drug plan from requiring mail order prescription coverage without also providing non-mail order coverage |
| Medicare Drug Improvement and Modernization Act | 2003- Provides for a voluntary prescription drug benefit (Medicare Part D) to Medicare beneficiaries and lowers reimbursement rates. The program is administered under the Medicare Advantage program. |
| Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act | 2005- Sale and storage restrictions on drugs with ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine. Stores are required to keep a log book containing the name, quantity sold, address, date and time of persons buying the medicine. Patients can only pur |
| ASAP | As soon as possible |
| S | Without |
| BID | Twice a day |
| ATC | Around the clock |
| ad lib | As often as needed/freely |
| hs | At bedtime (hour of sleep) |
| Q4H | Every 4 hours |
| pc | After meals (post consumption) |
| IV | Intravenously |
| ou | both eyes |
| IM | Intramuscularly |
| au | both ears |
| as | left ear |
| pr | per rectum (rectally) |
| SL | sublingually |
| IEN | in each nostril |
| ad | right ear |
| os | left eye |
| PO | by mouth |
| od | right eye |
| vag | vaginally |
| ud | As Directed (under direction) |
| wk | week |
| stat | Immediately (short turnaround time) |
| ac | before meals |
| TID | three times a day |
| PM | In the afternoon/evening |
| noc | night |
| P | after |
| -tinib (crizotinib) | Antineoplastic (Kinase Inhibitor) |
| -trel (desogestrel, norgestrel) | Female Hormone (progestin) |
| tretin-, -tretin-, -tretin (acetretin, alitretinoin, tretinoin) | Retinoid; Dermatologic agent, form of vitamin A |
| -triptan (almotriptan, sumatriptan) | Antimigraine, Selective 5-HT Receptor Agonist |
| -tyline (amitriptyline, nortriptyline) | Tricyclic Antidepressants |
| -vudine (lamivudine, stavudine) | Antiviral; Nucleoside analogues |
| -zepam (clonazepam, diazepam) | Benzodiazepine |
| -zolam (alprazolam, triazolam) | Benzodiazepine |
| -zosin (alfuzosin, prazosin) | Alpha Blocker |
| -bicin (doxorubicin, epirubicin) | Antineoplastic; Cytotoxic Agent |
| -bital (phenobarbital, secobarbital) | Barbiturate (sedative) |
| -caine (lidocaine, prilocaine) | Local Anesthetic |
| cef-; ceph- (cefaclor, cephalexin) | Cephalosporin Antibiotic |
| -cillin (amoxicillin, ampicillin) | Penicillin Antibiotic |
| -cort- (clocortolone, hydrocortisone) | Corticosteroid |
| -cycline (doxycycline, minocycline) | Tetracycline Antibiotic |
| -dazole (albendazole, metronidazole) | Antithelmintic Antibiotic; Antibacterial |
| -dipine (amlodipine, nifedipine) | Calcium Channel Blocker |
| -dronate (alendronate, risedronate) | Bisphosphonate; Bone Resorption Inhibitor |
| -eprazole (esomeprazole, omeprazole) | Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI) |
| -fenac (diclofenac, bromfenac) | NSAID |
| -floxacin (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin) | Quinolone Antibiotic |
| -gliptin (sitagliptin, saxagliptin) | Antidiabetic; Inhibitor of the DPP-4 Enzyme |
| -glitazone (pioglitazone, rosiglitazone) | Antidiabetic; thiazolidinedione |
| -iramine (brompheniramine, pheniramine) | Antihistamine |
| -lamide (dorzolamide, methazolamide) | Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor |
| -mab (adalimumab, daclizumab) | Monoclonal Antibody |
| -mustine (carmustine, lomustine) | Alkylating Agent (antineoplastic) |
| -mycin (azithromycin, clarithromycin, clindamycin) | Antibiotic; Antibacterial |
| -nacin (darifenacin, solifenacin) | Muscarnic Antagonist (anticholinergic) |
| -nazole (fluconazole, miconazole) | Antifungal |
| -olol (atenolol, metoprolol) | Beta Blocker |
| -olone (flucoinolone, prednisolone) | Corticosteroid |
| -olone (nandrolone, oxandrolone) | Anabolic Steroid |
| -onide (budesonide, fluocinonide) | Corticosteroid |
| -afil (sildenafil, tadalafil) | Phosphodiesterase (PDE) Inhibitor |
| -asone (fluticasone, mometasone) | Corticosteroid |
| -terol (albuterol, levalbuterol) | Beta agonist; Bronchodilator |
| -thiazide (hydrochlorothiazide, methylchothiazide) | Thiazide diuretic |
| -oprazole (dexlansoprazole, pantoprazole) | Proton Pump Inhibitor |
| -parin-, -parin (heparin, fondaparinux | Antithrombotic; Anticoagulant |
| -phylline (aminophylline, theophylline) | Xanthine Derivative |
| -pramine (desipramine, clomipramine) | Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCA) |
| -pred-; pred- (prednisolone, loteprednol) | corticosteroid |
| -pril ( Benazepril, enlapril, lisinopril) | ACE Inhibitor |
| -profen (ibuprofen, ketoprofen) | NSAID |
| -sartan (olmesartan, losartan) | Angiotensin Reuptake Blocker (ARB) |
| -semide (furosemide, torsemide) | Loop Diuretic |
| -setron (odansetron, dolasetron) | Antiemetic, antinauseant |
| -statin (atorvastatin, rosuvastatin) | HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors |
| sulfa- (sulfacetamide, sulfamethoxazole) | Antibiotic, anti-infective |
| -tadine (cyproheptadine, loratadine,) | Antihistamine |
| -tadine (amantadine, rimantadine) | Antiviral; anti-influenza A |
| DEA Form 41 | return drugs to the DEA to be destroyed |
| DEA Form 104 | Voluntary surrender to DEA; used for closed door pharmacies |
| DEA Form 106 | Loss/theft report of C-II drugs |
| DEA Form 222 | Order and transfer C-II drugs Contains 10 lines |
| DEA Form 222 A | The form used to obtain DEA Form 222 |
| DEA Form 225 | For manufacturers to order C-II drugs |
| DEA Form 226 | For pharmacies to dispense controlled medications |
| DEA Form 363 | Registration for Narcotic TX Program |
| Temperature of a freezer should be | -20 C to 0 C (-4 F to 32 F) |
| Temperature of a cold area should be | 8 C to 15 C (46 F to 59 F) |
| The temperature of a fridge should be? | 2 C to 8 C (36 F to 46 F) |
| Temperature of a controlled room should be | 20 C to 25 C (59 F to 86 F) |
| Temperature of heated area should be | Above 40 C (86 F) |
| Isotonic Solution Equation | 0.9 * V/100 |
| Ibuprofen (Motrin) causes what kind of damage if taken too often or without food? | Gastrointestinal bleeding |
| Laws concerning pseudoephedrine (PSE)? | 3.6g/Day 7.5g/mail or 9 g in 30 days 9g/month |
| Side effects concerning Warfarin (Coumadin) include? | Internal bleeding |
| Schedule I | No accepted medical use and possess extremely high potential for abuse |
| Schedule II | Has medical uses but high abuse potential with severe psychological or physical dependency |
| Schedule III | Accepted medical use and abuse potential is less than with Schedule I and II drugs |
| Schedule IV | Abuse potential is less than with Schedule III, but administration may lead to physical or psychological dependence |
| Schedule V | Abuse potential is less than with Schedule IV drugs, includes exempt narcotics |
| Ordering Schedule II | Ordered by completing DEA form 222. Valid for 60 days. Maximum of 10 item lines per form. Receipts, invoice, shipping, package numbers must be kept for 2 years |
| Ordering Schedule III and IV | Ordered by any method (written, fax or verbal). Packaging slips/invoice must be signed, dated, and stamped with a red "C" and kept for 2 years |
| Initial inventory | Complete and accurate inventory of all controlled substances before the opening of the first day of business |
| Biennial Inventory | Taken every 2 years. Exact count of Schedule II and estimated count for Schedule III to V |
| Perpetual Inventory | Real time inventory. Shows controlled substances received by the facility, supplied to other locations, returned to the pharmacy, and dispensed to patients |
| Destruction of controlled substances | DEA form 41. Retail has one per year. Have to request 2 weeks before destruction. Hospitals have "Blanket Authorization" |
| Filling Schedule II Prescriptions | Handwritten or computer generated. SIGNED IN INK! No allowable refills. Partial filling allowed if available within 72 hours |
| Schedule II in Long-Term Care Facilities | Faxed Schedule II RX allowed. Partial filling allowed for terminal patients. Filed for 60 days from date of issue. "long-term care patient" or "terminally ill" noted on Rx |
| Antagonism | When 2 drugs work against each other |
| Synergism | When the effect of two drugs together is greater than the sum of their individual effects |
| Class I Recall | Most serious type of recall |
| Class II Recall | Less serious types of recall, such as temporary adverse health consequences |
| Class III Recall | Situations in which adverse health consequences are unlikely |
| Patient Package Insert (PPI) | A document provided along with a prescription medication to provide additional information about that drug. AKA monograph or official label. |
| United States Pharmacopeia USP <797> | Has 3 major sections. 1) Responsibilities of personnel: Risk levels of classification of compounded and sterile compounds. 2) Verification: Accuracy and sterility of compounded sterile preparations. 3) Training: Individual training and continued personnel |
| Minimum weight that can be weighed on a Class A balance, AKA Class III balance? | 120mg |
| PPO Plans | Provides substantial discounts for doctors and hospitals; members are reimbursed at a reduced rate; can see any doctor |
| Parts of NDC | Segment 1- first 4- digits identifies the manufacturer Segment 2- next 3 to 4 digits is the product code; Identifies the formulation, strength, and dosage Segment 3- Last 1 or 2 digits that identifies the package forms and sizes |
| BIN Number | A digit number that health plans can use to process electronic pharmacy claims if they do not use pharmacy benefit cards with magnetic stripe |
| DTD | Give of such doses |
| DW | Distilled Water |
| Pulv. | Powder |
| sig | write on label |
| When using a laminar flow hood, how far into the hood should you work? | 6 inches |
| How often should a package insert be included with medications? | Every time |
| What are some of the main products exempt from the PPPA? | Powdered or unflavored aspirin, effervescent acetaminophen or aspirin, sublingual nitroglycerin, oral contraceptives, hormone replacement drugs, and powdered iron. |
| Doctor Acronym: AuD | Doctor of Audiology |
| Doctor Acronym: DC | Doctor of chiropractic medicine |
| Doctor Acronym: DDS | Doctor of Dental Surgery/science |
| Doctor Acronym: DMD | Doctor of dental medicine |
| Doctor Acronym: DO | Doctor of Optometry |
| Doctor Acronym: DPM | Doctor of Podiatric Medicine |
| Doctor Acronym: DPT | Doctor of physical therapy |
| Doctor Acronym: DVM | Doctor of veterinary medicine |
| Doctor Acronym: ENT | Ear, nose and throat specialist |
| Doctor Acronym: GP | General Practitioner |
| Doctor Acronym: GYN | Gynecologist |
| Doctor Acronym: MD | Doctor of medicine |
| For what condition is Crestor (rosuvastatin) indicated? | High Cholesterol |
| For what condition is Zetia (ezetimibe) indicated? | High Cholesterol |
| For what condition is Diovan HCT (valsartan + hydrochlorothiazide) indicated? | Cardiovascular conditions |
| For what condition is Levaquin (levofloxacin) indicated? | Bacterial infections |
| For what condition is Cymbalta (duloxetine) indicated? | Depression |
| For what condition is Klor-Con (potassium chloride) indicated? | Low potassium |
| For what condition is Premarin (conjugated estrogens) indicated? | Hormone Replacement |
| For what condition is Actos (pioglitazone) indicated? | Diabetes Mellitus |
| For what condition is Strattera (atomoxetine) indicated? | attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder |
| For what condition is Lidoderm (lidocaine) indicated? | Local anesthetic |
| For what condition is Patanol (olpatadine) indicated? | Eye allergies |
| For what condition is Aviane (ethinyl estradiol + levonorgestrel) indicated? | Oral contraceptive |
| For what condition is Clarinex (desloratadine) indicated? | Respiratory allergies |
| For what condition is Proventil HFA (albuterol) indicated? | Asthma |
| For what condition is Astelin (azelastine) indicated? | Respiratory Allergies |
| For what condition is Armour Thyroid (thyroid) indicated? | Hypothyroidism |
| For what condition is Tussionex (hydrocodone + chlorpheniramine) indicated? | Antitussive (cough) |
| For what condition is Zyrtec D (cetirizine + pseudophedrine) indicated? | Respiratory allergies and nasal congestion |
| For what condition is Boniva (ibandronate) indicated? | Osteoporosis |
| For what condition is Low-orgestrel (norgestrel + ethinyl estradiol) indicated? | Oral contraceptive |
| For what condition is Ortho Evra (norelgestromin + Ethinyl estriadol) indicated? | Oral contraceptive |
| For what condition is Levitra (vardenafil) indicated? | Erectile dysfunction |
| For what condition is Rhinocort Aqua (budesonide) indicated? | Nasal inflammation and congestion |
| For what condition is Prempro (conjugated estrogens + medroxyprogesterone) indicated? | Hormone Replacement |
| For what condition is Kariva (desogestrel + Ethinyl estradiol) indicated? | Oral contraceptive |
| For what condition is Januvia (sitagliptin) indicated? | Type 2 diabetes mellitus |
| For what condition is Avodart (dutasteride) indicated? | Enlarged Prostate |
| For what condition is Namenda (memantine) indicated? | Alzheimer's disease |
| For what condition is Depakote (divalproex sodium) indicated? | Epilepsy |
| For what condition is Budeprion SR (bupropion) Indicated? | Depression |
| For what condition is Endocet (oxycodone + acetaminophen) indicated? | Pain |
| For what condition is Vigamox (moxifloxacin) indicated? | Bacterial infections |
| For what condition is Humalog D (insulin lispro) indicated? | Type 1 Diabetes mellitus |
| For what condition is Levothroid (levothyroxine) indicated? | Hypothyroidism |
| For what condition is Vivelle DOT (estradiol) indicated? | Hormone replacement |
| For what condition is Apri (desogestrel + ethinyl estradiol) indicated? | Oral contraceptive |
| For what condition is Tri-Sprintec (norgestimate + ethinyl estradiol) indicated? | Oral contraceptive |
| For what condition is Allegra D (fexofenadine + pseudophedrine) indicated? | Respiratory allergies and nasal congestion |
| For what condition is Yasmin 28 (drospirenone + ethinyl estradiol) indicated? | Oral contraceptive |
| For what condition is Keppra (levetiracetam) indicated? | Epilepsy |
| For what condition is Zyprexa (olanzapine) indicated? | Psychotic disorders |
| For what condition is Coumadin (warfarin) indicated? | Anticoagulant |
| For what condition is Skelaxin (metaxsalone) indicated? | Skeletal muscle relaxer |
| For what condition is Requip (ropinirole) indicated? | Parkinson's Disease |
| For what condition is Avalide (irbesartan + hydrochlorothiazide) indicated? | Cardiovascular conditions |
| For what condition is Abilify (aripiprazole) indicated? | Psychotic disorders |
| For what condition is Avelox (moxifloxacin) indicated? | Bacterial infections |
| What is the brand name for the benzodiazepine drug lorazepam? | Ativan |
| Rx: Drug K 300 mg TID X 30 Days. In stock is, 150mg Drug K tabs. How many tabs are needed to fill this order? | 180 |
| Your pharmacy adds a 35% markup for wholesale prescription drugs, a dispensing fee of 4.82and sales tax of 8.5%. Wholesale for drug H is $1620.00 for 1000 tablets. A patient has a prescription for #30 of drug H, and will pay cash. What will there final c | 70.43 |
| What auxiliary label needs to go on levothyroxine? | Take On Empty Stomach |
| What auxillary label should be applied to a prescription for; Amoxicillin 250mg/5mL suspension? | Shake Well Before Using |
| If a Doctor calls in a emergency prescription for Oxycontin for a patient. How long does the doctor have to present a written prescription to the pharmacy? | 7 days |
| Vicodin is a combination drug of hydrocodone and APAP. What schedule is Vicodin in? | schedule II narcotic |
| The NDC number : 0002-4463-01 is assigned to Cialis 10 mg. What does the second set of numbers represent? | product identification segment |
| The U.S Food and Drug Administration has a reporting system to collect data about adverse events and side effects. What is the reporting system called? | MedWatch |
| The agency that supervises the development, purity, safety and effectiveness, of prescription and over the counter medications is known as ? | Food and Drug Administration FDA |
| Which publication is the official information on generic therapeutics equivalence ? | Orange Book |
| Sublingual tablets are taken by? | placing them under the tongue |
| Which liquid dosage form contains a mixture of oil and water? | emulsions |
| How are nitroglycerin sublingual tablets dispensed? | nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are not required to be dispensed in child resistant containers |
| The MedWatch program is used to do what? | An FDA program that encourages health care professionals to report adverse drug effects |
| Which drug helps remove mucous from the respiratory system? | expectorants |
| Which DEA form is used to engage in wholesale distribution by retail pharmacy for drugs containing pseudoephedrine? | DEA form 510 |
| What type of injectable water is intended to be used for injections? | Bacteriostatic water USP |
| what does the letters VIII stand for in Roman numerals? | 8 |
| the medical term -phagia means what? | to Eat |
| What information is needed in the case of a recall? | Lot Number, expiration date |
| what is the gross profit formula? | Selling Price - Purchase Price |
| What is the classification for Celebrex? | NSAID, cyclooxegenase inhibitor (COX2) |
| What is the medication ranitidine used to treat? | GERD gastro esophageal reflux disease |
| the transferring of a schedule II prescription can be done how many times? | zero |
| Which type of Laminar Flood Hood uses recycled air within the hood? | vertical |
| which organization regulates pharmacies and other entities that manufacture or distribute medications? | State board of pharmacy |
| A prescription is written for 125 mg/5ml #16oz, 2tsp po bid. what is the days supply? | 24 days |
| a daily log should be kept for medications stored in the refrigerator that must maintain a temperature of? | 2 to 8 degrees C |
| what is the DEA form that is used to account for significant theft or loss of a control substances? | DEA form 106 |
| what is Vesicare used to treat? | overactive bladder |
| when entering the information into the computer, which code would be used for the spouse? | 02 |
| What is the generic drug for synthroid? | levothyroxine sodium |
| The only prokinetic drug on the market is? | Reglan (metoclopramide) |
| What is the generic drug for Reglan? | metoclopramide |
| Which insulin is a rapid-acting insulin? | Insulin lispro (Humalog) |
| Protease inhibitors, integrase inhibitors, and nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors can be used in the treatment for? | HIV / AIDS |
| Zoloft is the brand name for which medication? | Sertraline |
| Warfarin levels can be affected by which type of food? | leafy green vegetables They contain vitamin K. |
| a drug with the suffix "-pril" belongs to which class of medications? | ACE inhibitors |
| Zolpidem is indicated for the treatment of which condition? | Insomnia |
| Tamiflu, Relenza, and Rapivab belong to which pharmacological category? | Antiviral |
| a therapeutically equivalent medication must have the same strength, dosage form, route of administration and ______? | active ingredients |
| which side effect commonly occurs with the use of (Pyridium) phenazopyridine? | discoloration of the urine |
| What is the generic for Tagamet an H2 receptor antagonist? | Cimetidine |
| Latanoprost also known as (xalatan) is used for the treatment of which ocular condition? | Glaucoma ( keep in fridge) |
| Classification of the triptan medication class are used for the treatment of ? | Migraine headaches |
| Glyburide is a member of which hypoglycemic medication class? | Sulfonylurea |
| Fluoxetine is the generic name for which of the SSRI drugs? | Prozac (SSRI) |
| What are aspirin and ibuprofen classified as? | NSAIDs |
| Which federal agency should the pharmacy contact in the event of a stolen controlled substance from the pharmacy? | DEA |
| The prefix is located at the _______ of a medical term? | beginning |
| What task should a pharmacy tech complete when assisting a pharmacist with medication therapy management (MTM)? | schedule patients appointments |
| What strategy would a pharmacy tech use to optimize communication with patients? | open ended questions |
| What strategy should a pharmacy tech use when communicating with a patient who speaks a different language? | pictogram |
| If a manufacturer refuses to recall a medication and there is clear evidence of risk to human health, which government agencies should be contacted? can enforce a recall? | Food and Drug Administration (FDA) |
| Which DEA form should a pharmacy tech use to request permission to destroy expired controlled substances? | DEA form 41 |
| A pharmacy tech should report an adverse drug event to which government agency? | FDA MedWatch |
| Fentanyl patches should be disposed of in which way? | flushed |
| Which reference should a pharmacy tech use to look up the compatibility of two intravenous solutions? | Trissell's Handbook on Injectable drugs |
| How many controlled substances can be ordered on a DEA form 222? | 10 |
| Maximum weight that can be weighed on a Class A balance, AKA Class III balance? | 60 to 120 grams |
| Glucophage (metformin) is the only classification of this drug on the market? | biguanides |
| What are excipients? | Inert (not medically active) ingredients that are added to preparations to achieve the required consistency, effectiveness, and functional properties to form a suitable dosage form for administration. |
| The tongue recognizes how many basic tastes? | four-sweet, sour, salty, and bitter |
| What instrument is used to put the weights on the two pan torsion balance (scale)? | tweezers |
| What is the arrest knob on the two pan torsion balance (scale) used for? | lock the scale in place |
| Why are tweezers used to place the weights on the two pan torsion (scale) balance? | So the oils do not corrode the weights and make them off balance. |
| What side of the torsion balance (scale) does the pharmacy tech place the weights on? | right side |
| When reading the calibrations of a beaker or graduated cylinder, you must have the liquid at? | eye level |
| When reading the calibrations of a beaker or graduated cylinder, the bottom of the liquid line is also known as the? | meniscus |
| The vehicle used to dissolve something is known as the? | solvent |
| The ingredient or agent dissolved in the solvent is known as the ? | solute |
| The final mixture of the solute and solvent is known as the? | solution |
| The only type of compounding that may be done away from the compounding area is the? | reconstitution of premade oral suspensions |
| Ointments, creams and lotions are used for? | topical and external use |
| Ophthalmic preparations are used for? | the eye |
| Otic preparations are used for? | the ear |
| Can pharmacy techs compound intravenous chemotherapy medications? | yes |
| Obtaining medication history is part of? | medication reconciliation |
| A varicella (chicken pox) vaccine should be stored in what location? | refrigerator |
| Cytotoxic agents are disposed of in what bin? | hazardous waste bin |
| The prefix hypo- has what meaning? | to little or below |
| Which reference lists FDA-approved medications and their therapeutic equivalent? | Orange book |
| Which organization enforces guidelines concerning medication quality standards? | Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) |
| Which of the following temperatures is equivalent to 75*Fahrenheit | 24*Celsius |
| A vial of insulin R was removed form the refrigerator to compound an IV bag on April 1. On which of the following dates will the vial need to be discarded if stored at room temperature? | April 29 |
| What is the name of the principle that requires pharmacy professionals to disclose only the information other parties require about a patient? | The minimum necessary needed information |
| How often must employers of pharmacy staff provide training about HIPAA's privacy and security rules? | Annually |
| When reviewing the quantity requested on a prescription for a controlled substance, what might be a sign of a forgery? | An unusually large quantity written for |
| In which controlled substance schedule is the commonly prescribed sleep aid zolpidem (Ambien)? | Schedule IV |
| To which therapeutic action classification does simvastatin (Zocor) belong? | Lipid lowering agents |
| How should patients take effervescent tablets? | Dissolve them in water |
| What is the term for liquids that dry as flexible films on the skin? | Collodions |
| What is the indication for the prescription medication pioglitazone (Actos)? | Diabetes mellitus type II (thiazolidinedione's) |
| What is the generic name for Cleocin? | Clindamycin (lincomycin antibiotics) |
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