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Chapter 14 final

chapter 14 final-class 3

Question	Answer
the kidneys and ureters are located in the _____________ space	retroperitoneal
the _________ glands are located directly superior to the kidneys	suprarenal (adrenal)
which structures create a 20 degree angle between the upper pole and lower pole of the kidney?	posts major muscles
what is the specific name for the mass of fat that surrounds each kidney?	perirenal fat/adipose capsule
what degree of rotation from supine is required to place the kidneys parallel to the IR?	30 degrees
which 2 landmarks can be palpated to locate the kidneys?	Xiphoid process and iliac crest
which term describes an abnormal drop of the kidneys when the patient is placed erect?	nephroptosis
3 functions of the urinary system	remove nitrogenous waste, regulate h20 levels, regulate acid-base balance
a buildup of nitrogenous waste in the blood is called:	uremia
the longitudinal fissure found along the central medial boarder of the kidney is called the:	hillim
the peripheral or outer portion of the kidneys is called the	cortex
the term that describes the total functioning portion of the kidney is	renal parenchyma
the microscopic functional and structural unit of the kidney is the	nephron
t/f the efferent arterioles carry blood to the glomeruli	false
what is another (older) name for the glomerular capsule?	bowman
t/f the glomerular capsule and proximal and distal convoluted tubules are located in the medulla of the kidney	false- cortex
which structure of the medulla is made up of a collection of tubules that drain into the minor calyx?	renal pyramids
which 2 processes move urine through the ureters to the bladder?	peristalsis and gravity
which one of the following structures is located most anterior as compared with the others? a. proximal ureters b. kidneys c. urinary bladder d. suprarenal glands	urinary bladder
what is the name of the junction found between the distal ureters and urinary bladder?	uterovesical jx
what is the name of the inner, posterior region of the bladder formed by the 2 ureters entering and the urethra exiting?	trigone
what is the name of the small gland found just inferior to the male bladder?	prostate gland
the total capacity for the average adult bladder is:	350 to 500mL
which one of the following structures is considered to be most posterior? a. ovaries b. urethra c. vagina d. kidneys	kidneys
intravenous contrast media may be administered by either:	bolus or drip infusion
t/f the patient(or legal guardian) must sign an informed consent form before a venipuncture procedure is performed on a pediatric patient	true
for most IVU's, veins in the ___________ are recommended for venipuncture	antecubital fossa
the most common size of the needle used for bolus injections on adults is:	18 to 22 gauge
the 2 most common types of needles used for bolus injection of contrast media are	butterfly & over-the-needle catheter
in correct order list the 6 steps during a venipuncture procedure (pg 535-537)	1. wash hands/gloves 2. select site/tourniquet/clean 3. initiate puncture 4. confirm entry/ secure needle 5. proceed 6. remove needle/ catheter
t/f the bevel of the needle needs to be facing downward during the actual puncture into a vein	false- up
t/f if extravasation occurs during the puncture, the tech should slightly retract the needle and then push it forward again	false- withdraw and pressure
t/f if unsuccessful during the initial puncture, a new needle should be used during the second attempt	true
t/f the radiologist is responsible for documenting all aspects of the venipuncture procedure in the patients chart	false- the tech does this
ionic contrast media
nonionic contrast media
which one of the following compounds is a common anion found in iconic contrast media? a. diatrizoate or iothalamate b. sodium or meglumine c. benzoic acid d. none of the above	a. diatrizoate or iothalamate
any disruption in the physiologic functions of the body that may lead to a contrast media reaction is the basis for the: a. homeostasis theory b. Anaphylactoid theory c. vasovagal theory d. chemotoxic theory	d. chemotoxic theory
an expected outcome to the introduction of contrast media is described as a________	side effect
the normal creatine level for an adult should range between	0.6 to 1.5mg/dL
normal BUN levels for an adult should range between	8-25mg/100mL
the American college of radiology recommends that metformin be withheld for __________ hrs after a contrast media procedure and resumed only if kidney function is again determined to be within normal limits	48 hrs
the leakage of contrast media from a vessel into the surrounding soft tissues is called	extravasation
list the two general categories of contrast media reactions	local and systematic
which type of reaction is a true allergic response to iodinated contrast media?	Anaphylactic reaction
which type of reaction is caused by the stimulation of the vagus nerve by introduction of a contrast medium, which causes heart rate and blood pressure to fall?	vasovagal reaction
t/f vasovagal reactions are not considered to be life threatening	false
brachycardi (<50 beats/minute)	severe reaction
tachycardia (>100beats/minute)	moderate reaction
angioedema	moderate reaction
Lightheadedness	mild reaction
hypotension (Systolic BP <80mm Hg)	severe reaction
temporary renal failure	severe reaction
laryngeal swelling	severe reaction
cardiac arrest	severe reaction
mild hives	mild reaction
t/f mild-level contrast media reactions do not usually require medication or medical assistance.	true
t/f urticaria is the formal term for excessive vomiting	false
a temporary failure of the renal system is an example of a(n):	severe reaction
convulsions 1. side effect 2. mild systemic 3. moderate systemic 4. severe systemic 5. local	4. severe systemic
metallic taste 1. side effect 2. mild systemic 3. moderate systemic 4. severe systemic 5. local	1. side effect
angioedema 1. side effect 2. mild systemic 3. moderate systemic 4. severe systemic 5. local	3. moderate systemic
Bradycardia 1. side effect 2. mild systemic 3. moderate systemic 4. severe systemic 5. local	4. severe systemic
itching 1. side effect 2. mild systemic 3. moderate systemic 4. severe systemic 5. local	2. mild systemic
vomiting 1. side effect 2. mild systemic 3. moderate systemic 4. severe systemic 5. local	2. mild systemic
temporary hot flash 1. side effect 2. mild systemic 3. moderate systemic 4. severe systemic 5. local	1. side effect
respiratory arrest 1. side effect 2. mild systemic 3. moderate systemic 4. severe systemic 5. local	4. severe systemic
pulmonary edema 1. side effect 2. mild systemic 3. moderate systemic 4. severe systemic 5. local	5. local
extravasation 1. side effect 2. mild systemic 3. moderate systemic 4. severe systemic 5. local	4. severe systemic
severe urticaria 1. side effect 2. mild systemic 3. moderate systemic 4. severe systemic 5. local	3. moderate systemic
what should the tech do first when a patient is experiencing either a moderate or a severe level contrast media reaction?	call for medical assistance
what is the primary purpose of the premedication procedure before an iodinated contrast media procedure?	to reduce the severity of reactions
which of the following drugs is often given to the patient as part of the premedication procedure? a. epinephrine b. valium c. combination of benadryl and prednisone d. lasix	c. combination of benadryl and prednisone
which type of patient is a likely candidate for the premedication procedure before a contrast media study? a. elderly b. asthmatic c. pediatric d. patient with hypertension	b. asthmatic
in addition to notifying a nurse or physician when contrast media has extravasated into the soft tissues, what should the tech first do to increase reabsorption?	elevate or use a cold then hot compress
t/f tissue inflammation from extravasated contrast media peaks 1 to 2 hours after the incident	false- 24 to 48 hours
t/f acute renal failure may occur 48 hours after an iodinated contrast media performed	true
contraindications that may prevent a patient from having a contrast media procedure performed	CHF, sickle cell anemia, renal failure, hypersensitivity to iodinated contrast media, diabetes, hepatic/renal disease, multiple myeloma, anuria
a trademark name for a diuretic drug is	lasix
why is the term IVP incorrect in describing a radiograph examination of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder after intravenous injection of contrast media?	because IVP= study of renal pelvis, IVU is the correct term
which one of the following conditions is a common pathologic indication for an IVU? a. sickle cell anemia b. multiple myeloma c. hematuria d. anuria	c. hematuria
which of the following conditions is described as a rare tumor of the kidney? a. pheochromocytoma b. multiple myeloma c. melanoma d. renal cell carcinoma	a. pheochromocytoma
pneumouria	presence of gas in urine
urinary reflux	backward return flow or urine
uremia	excess urea and creatine in the blood
anuria	complete cessation of urinary secretion
polyuria	passage of large volume of urine
micturition	act of voiding
retention	inability to void
oliguria	diminished amount of urine being excreted
glycosuria	presence of glucose in urine
urinary incontinence	constant or frequent involuntary passage of urine
renal agenesis	absence of a functioning kidney
acute renal failure	indicated by presence of uremia, oliguria, or anuria
enlargement of the prostate gland	benign prostatic hyperplasia
fusion of the lower poles of kidneys during the development of the fetus	horseshoe kidney
inflammation of the capillary loops of the glomeruli of the kidneys	glomerulonephritis
artificial opening between the urinary bladder and aspects of the large intestine	vesicorectal fistula
a large stone that grows and completely fills the renal pelvis	staghorn calculus
increased blood pressure to the kidneys due to atherosclerosis	renal hypertension
normal kidney that fails to ascend into the abdomen but remains in the pelvis	ectopic kidney
rapid excretion of contrast media	renal hypertension
mucosal change within bladder	cystitis
bilateral, small kidneys with blunted calyces	chronic bright disease
irregular appearance of renal parenchyma or collecting system	renal cell carcinoma
signs of abnormal fluid collections	vesicorectal fistula
abnormal rotation of the kidney	malrotation
elevated or indented floor of bladder	BPH
signs of obstruction of urinary system	renal calculi
a condition characterized by regions or areas of subcutaneous swelling caused by allergic reaction to food or drugs is termed:	angiodema
contraction of the muscles within the walls of the bronchi and bronchioles, producing a restriction of air passing through them, is a condition called	bronchospasm
loss of consciousness resulting from reduced cerebral blood flow is termed	syncope
what type of renal calculi is often associated with chronic urinary tract infections?	staghorn calculi
t/f the patient should void before IVU to prevent possible rupture of the bladder if compression is applied	true
what is the primary purpose of ureteric compression?	to enhance filling of pelvicaliceal system
what conditions could contraindicate the use of ureteric compression	a. possible ureteric stones b. abdominal mass c. abdominal aortic aneurysm d. acute abdominal pain e. abdominal trauma
when does the timing for an IVU exam start?	at the start of injection of contrast
list the routine five-step imagine sequence for a routine IVU:	1. 1 minute nephrogram/nephrotomography 2. 5 minute KUB 3. 10-15 minute KUB 4. 20 minute RPO&LPO 5. postvoid (prone PA or erect AP)
t/f a retorgrade urogram examines the anatomy and function of the pelvicaliceal system	false
t/f the brodney clamp is used for male and female cystourethrograms	false- male only
which of the following involves a direct introduction of contrast media into the structure being studied? a. retrograde urogram b. retrograde cystogram c. retrograde urethrogram d. all of the above	d. all of the above
which of the following alternative imaging modalities is NOT routinely being used to diagnose Renal calculi? a. nuclear medicine b. sonography c. magnetic resonance imaging d. computed tomography	c. magnetic resonance imagine
t/f urinary studies on pediatric patients should be scheduled early in the morning to minimize the risk for dehydration?	true
t/f the number of retrograde urography procedures for uretheral calculi has been reduced as a result of the increased use of CT.	true
t/f the number of retrograde urography procedures for urethral calculi has been reduced as a result of the increased use of CT	true
exposure factors used during a CT procedure can be adjusted to compensate for a decrease or increase in body size according to __________ and ________	height and weight
t/f the patient does not require extensive bowel preparation before a CT scan for renal calculi	true
which imaging modality is used to detect subtle tissue changes following a renal transplant? a. MRI b. CT c. Radiography-IVU d. nuclear medicine	a. MRI
t/f nuclear medicine is highly effective in demonstrating signs of vesicorueteral reflux	true
how will an enlarged prostate gland appear on a post void radiograph taken during an IVU
where should the pneumatic paddle be placed for ureteric compression phase of an IVU?	medial to asis & lateral to spine
what can be done to enhance filling of the calyces of the kidney if ureteric compression is contraindicated?	15 degrees trendelenburg
a retrogarde pyelogram is primarily a nonfunctional study of the_____________	renal pelvis, major and minor calyces
what are 4 reasons a scout projection is taken before the injection of contrast media for an IVU?	1. check patient prep 2. exposure factor 3. positioning 4. abnormal calcifications
what specific anatomy is examined during a retrograde ureterogram? a. primarily the ureters b. primarily the renal pelvis and calyces c. entire urinary system d. urinary bladder	a. primarily the ureters
which specific position is recommended for a male patient during a voiding cystourethrogram?	30 degrees RPO
which kV range (analog and digital) is recommended for an IVU?	70-80KV
t/f male and female patients should have the gonads shielded for an AP scout projection?	false
t/f tomograms taken during an IVU with an exposure angle of 10 degrees or less are called zonography	true
how many tomograms (zonograms) are usually produced during a routine IVU?	3
at what stage of an IVU is the renal parenchyma best seen?	within 1 minute after injection
where is the CR centered for a nephrotomogram?	midway between xiphoid process and iliac crest
which position, taken during an IVU, places the left kidney parallel to the IR?	RPO
how much obliquity is required for the LPO/RPO projections taken during an IVU?	30 degrees
which position best demonstrates possible nephroptosis ( also called floating kidney or renal ptosis, abnormal condition in which the kidney drops down into the pelvis when the patient stands up.)	erect
which CR angle is used for the AP projection taken during a cystogram?	10 to 15 degrees caudad
The concave medial border of the kidney where the blood vessels and ureter exit is called the	helim
Which of the following serve(s) as a reservoir to store urine?	urinary bladder
How long is the urethra in the female?	2 inches
What is the central-ray angle for the AP oblique projections of the urinary system?	0 degrees
Where do the ureters lie in relation to the peritoneum?	Behind the peritoneum
The vessels most often used for venipuncture are found on the:	anterior forearm and posterior hand
cystoscopy	the visual examination of the urinary bladder using a cystoscope
The concentration of iodine in ionic contrast media is	50 to 70%

Created by: Hmaeesomy

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