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life span1
life span for excelsiors nursing program
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Radionuclide imaging | Diagnostic test in which radioisotopes are used to evaluate cardiac perfusion and detect areas of myocardial ischemia |
| Serum Electrolytes | Blood chemistry values specific to cardiac functioning, including sodium, potassium, and calcium, that are crucial to myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization |
| serum glucose | Blood chemistry level that, when elevated, may indicate the presence of diabetes mellitus. |
| Serum Lipids | Blood chemistry values that include lipids, cholesterol, and triglycerides. |
| Angtiotensin Concerting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitors | Antihypertensives used to treat high blood pressure |
| Antocoagulants | Medications used in cardiovascular disorders in the treatment of a thrombus (blood clot) or prophylactically to prevent the formation of a thrombus and potential embolus. |
| Antidysrhythmic Agents | Medications used to treat and prevent cardiac dysrhythmias(arrhythmias) by suppressing the automaticity of the |
| myocardial cells. | Preventive device used to support venous blood return from the periphery to the heart |
| Antiembolic Stockings | Preventive device used to support venous blood return from the periphery to the heart |
| Antihyperlipidemics | Medications used to reduce lower serum lipid levels and decrease the risk of developing atherosclerosis. |
| Antihypertensives | Medications used to decrease blood pressure |
| Antiarrhythmics | Medications used to treat and prevent cardiac dysrhythmias (arrhythmias). |
| Artifact | Interference with the ECG waveforms that leads to a distortion of its appearance and makes it difficult to accurately assess the rhythm being displayed. |
| Beta Adrenergic Blocking Agents | Antagonists that affect the cardiovascular system by decreasing heart rate, contractility, conduction velocity, and cardiac output. |
| Calcium Channel Blockers | Medications that block the influx of calcium across the cell membrane of cardiac and smooth muscle cells |
| Cardiac Glycosides | Medications used to treat congestive heart failure by increasing myocardial contraction strength and decreasing rate. |
| Cardiac Monitors | Devices used to assess the patient’s cardiac rhythm and to quickly detect abnormal rhythms that require treatment. |
| Cardiac Pacemakers | Electronic devices that assume the role of the heart’s pacemaker. |
| Central Venous Pressure Monitorring | Form of hemodynamic monitoring used when a patient has a change in fluid volume. |
| Diuretics | Medications used to treat congestive heart failure and hypertension by elimination of body water through urination |
| Doppler Ultrasound | Noninvasive device that enables the nurse and other practitioners to determine the quality of blood flow through a vessel. |
| Intermittent Compression Devices | Pneumatic devices that are applied to the patient’s calves to facilitate the return of venous blood flow and prevent blood pooling |
| Iron Summplements | Medications used to treat iron-deficiency anemias. |
| Nitrites | Medications used to treat angina. |
| Pulse Oximetry | Noninvasive device used to measure the patient’s oxygenation levels. |
| Telemetry | Form of cardiac monitoring that allows a patient to walk around while being monitored |
| Thrombolytics | Medications used to disintegrate blood clots by dissolving thrombi and restoring blood flow to tissues |
| Vasodilators | Medications that decrease blood pressure by relaxing arterioles and decreasing peripheral resistance. |
| Z-track Injection technique | used to prevent the iron from tracking back through the skin after the injection |
| Atrial fibrillation | Atrial dysrhythmia that represents rapid, disorganized atrial electrical activity that results in a completely ineffective atrial contraction. |
| Atrial flutter | Atrial dysrhythmia that produces an atrial rate of approximately 250–400 beats/minute with a regular rhythm. |
| Bigeminy | Premature ventricular contractions occurring in groups of twos. |
| Automatic Implants Cardioverter Defibrillators | Inserted device designed to continually monitor the heart’s activity and deliver an electrical shock whenever a dysrhythmia is detected. |
| Cardioversion | Scheduled medical procedure in which an electrical current is synchronized to be delivered during ventricular depolarization or during the QRS complex to prevent ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation |
| Catheter Ablation | Procedure performed on an area of the heart to destroy the cells causing the dysrhythmia. |
| Defibrillation | Emergency procedure in which an electrical current is delivered during defibrillation. |
| Normal sinus rhythm | Electrical conduction cycle continuously repeated to produce a normal cardiac rhythm |
| Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSvT) | Atrial tachycardia that occurs with an abrupt onset and is caused by an ectopic focus located somewhere above the bundle of His. |
| Premature atrial contraction (PAC) | Common dysrhythmia that is a premature contraction originating in the atria. |
| Premature ventricular contraction (PVC) | Ventricular dysrhythmia that is a premature contraction originating in the ventricles |
| Trigeminy | Premature ventricular contractions that occur in groups of threes. |
| Ventricular fibrillation | Disorganized, irregular contractions of the ventricles resulting in no effective contractions and no cardiac output |
| Ventricular tachycardia | Ventricular dysrhythmia diagnosed when three or more PVCs in a row are detected on an ECG acute coronary syndrome.Last stage before an MI that develops when atherosclerosis plaques become destabilized by inflammation. |
| Angina pectoris | Chest pain caused by a temporary lack of oxygen to the tissues |
| Cardiac tamponade | Fluid accumulation that can create pressure on the heart. |
| Congestive heart failure (CHF) | Complication that develops when the heart is not able to pump effectively enough to move blood through the body and adequately supply the body’s tissues with oxygen and other nutrients. |
| Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG) | Procedure in which a blood vessel is grafted onto the coronary artery around the area of obstruction so that blood can flow around the obstruction. |
| Coronary artery disease (CAD) | Most common form of cardiovascular disease in the United States; caused by the development of atherosclerosis in the coronary arteries |
| Diastolic aumentation | Increase in intraaortic pressure. |
| Heart transplant | Procedure considered for a patient who is in end-stage cardiac failure. |
| Infective endocarditis (IE) | Infectious heart disease that is most likely to involve the heart valves. |
| intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) | Device inserted into the thoracic aorta that serves to maintain coronary artery perfusion by supporting the early diastolic pressure. |
| ischemia | Inadequate oxygenation of the tissues caused by obstruction of the blood flow. |
| left sided heart failure | Type of congestive heart failure in which it is common for the patient to experience respiratory problems related to pulmonary congestion and edema |
| myocardial infarction (MI) | Significant obstruction that causes heart tissue damage because of lack of blood flow to myocardial tissue |
| myocarditis | Inflammatory disorder of the myocardium. |
| pericarditis | Condition in which the pericardium of the heart becomes inflamed. |
| percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) | Invasive treatment in which a balloon catheter is inserted through the sheath and inflated over the area of plaque, thus reopening the obstructed artery. |
| right sided heart failure | Type of congestive heart failure in which the heart cannot pump the blood that is returning from the peripheral circulation. |
| stable angina | Angina pectoris that occurs in individuals with coronary artery disease. |
| thrombolytic drugs | Drugs that dissolve the thrombus. |
| unstable angina | Angina pectoris in which chest pain occurs more frequently, is more severe, and may not respond easily to treatment. |
| vetricular assistive device | Device implanted in patients who have a low cardiac output |
| aortic aneurysms | Dilations of the aorta at weakened areas in the vessel. |
| arterial insufficiency | Occlusion of the arteries that can be either acute or chronic in nature |
| Buerger-Allen exercises | Active postural exercises that encourage arterial blood flow |
| endarterectomy | Removal of the atherosclerotic plaque from the vessel. |
| femoral-popliteal bypass | Common surgical procedure used to treat PVD. |
| hypertension | Persistent elevation of the systolic blood pressure over 140 mm Hg and/or a persistent elevation of the diastolic blood pressure over 90 mm Hg. |
| insufficient venous blood flow | Result of incompetent venous valves, obstruction of the venous system by a thrombus, or a decrease in the pumping action of the muscles that surround the peripheral venous system. |
| intermittent claudication | Ischemic pain that develops with activity and is relieved by rest. |
| orthostatic hypotension | Side effect of many antihypertensive drugs that may lead to fainting. |
| peripheral vascular disease | Disease primarily caused by pathological changes in the arterial or venous vascular systems that result in decreased perfusion of tissues |
| prehypertension | Systolic blood pressure ranging from 120–139 mm Hg and diastolic pressure ranging from 80–89 mm Hg. |
| primary (essential) hypertension | Most common form of hypertension that does not result from a specific disorder. |
| secondary hypertension | Hypertension that has an identified cause. |
| varicose veins | Veins that become dilated and tortuous as a result of incompetent valves. |
| venous insufficiency | Clinical manifestation of PVD that involves an aching or cramping sensation of pain. |
| vein ligation | Procedure in which the saphenous vein is cut (ligated) and “stripped” out through small incisions. |
| venous stasis ulcers | Ulcers that develop as a result of venous stasis and increased venous pressure. |
| acute hemorrhagic anemia | Anemia caused by acute blood loss that leads to a decrease in RBCs |
| anemia | Condition in which there are fewer than normal circulating red blood cells (RBCs), causing hemoglobin levels to be decreased. |
| ankylosis | Crippling fixation of a joint caused by repeated episodes of bleeding. |
| antihemophilic factor (AHF) | Clotting factor administered as a primary treatment for hemophilia; also known as factor VIII. |
| aplastic anemia | Bleeding into the joints that can occur with hemophilia. |
| hemarthrosis | Hereditary bleeding disorder that can lead to hemorrhage, even with minimal trauma. |
| hydroxyuria | Chemotherapeutic agent used to treat sickle-cell anemia |
| idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura | Condition in which platelets are attacked by antiplatelet autoantibodies and destroyed |
| iron- deficiency anema | Most common form of anemia; usually caused by an inadequate intake of iron |
| pancytopenia | Decrease in all types of blood cells—RBCs, WBCs, and platelets. |
| pernicious anemaia | Chronic, megaloblastic anemia that usually develops in middle-aged individuals. |
| polycythemia vera (PV) | Increase in the volume of red blood cells, platelets, and white blood cells. |
| Schiling test | Definitive test for pernicious anemia. |
| sickle cell anemia | Chronic, hereditary, hemolytic anemia inherited through an abnormal sickle hemoglobin gene (HbS). |
| von Willebrand's disease | Form of hemophilia caused by a decreased amount of von Willebrand’s factor or a lack of functioning in the factor. |
| anaphylactic shock | Acute, massive, systemic allergic reaction to a substance. |
| compensatory stage | Early stage of shock in which the body systems are usually able to compensate for the reduction in vasomotor tone or circulating blood volume. |
| irreversible refactory stage | Stage of shock in which the outcome is irreversible, and death is imminent. |
| neurogenic shock | Shock that develops when there is an impairment of the autonomic nervous system and the sympathetic vasoconstriction of the vessels is lost, resulting in vasodilation |
| progressive stage | Stage of shock in which compensation mechanisms become ineffective and decompensation develops |
| septic shock | Shock caused by an infection such as urinary tract infections, respiratory infections, and indwelling intravenous lines and catheters. |
| adenoma | Benign neoplasm that can become malignant, such as colon |
| polyps | Refers to neoplasms consisting of well-differentiated, |
| Benign | Refers to neoplasms consisting of well-differentiated,structured cells that resemble normal tissue cells and have a slow rate of growth. |
| cancer | Malignant neoplasm that is poorly differentiated, grows rapidly, and has the ability to spread to different sites of the body. |
| cellular proleiferation | Process of cell division that usually occurs to replace old or dying cells. |
| cellular differentiation | Process by which new cells develop specialized function and structure. |
| differentiation | Identifies how closely neoplastic cells resemble the original cell structure. |
| Ewing's sarcoma | Highly malignant bone cancer that develops in the shafts of the long bones |
| fibrocystic breast disease | Benign breast disorder in which a woman develops cysts of various sizes, usually bilaterally. |
| gestational trophoblastic neoplasia | Benign abnormal cellular growth problem involving an abnormal pregnancy that results in abnormal growth of placental tissue. |
| Hodgkin's disease | Form of lymphoma that most commonly occurs in individuals who are in their thirties. |
| hypertrophy | Overgrowth of normal tissue due to an increase in cell size. |
| leukemia | Malignant hematological disorder that affects the bone marrow and lymph nodes and is characterized by uncontrolled proliferation of immature, poorly differentiated white blood cells. |
| lymphomas | Malignant disorders of the lymph nodes. |
| malignant | Neoplasms that grow rapidly, are not well differentiated, and can spread to surrounding tissues; also known as cancer |
| metastasize | Infiltration of a neoplasm into surrounding normal tissues. |
| neoplasm | Process of abnormal cellular growth. |
| neuroblastoma | Malignant tumors that originate in the adrenal glands or the |
| sympathetic nervous system. | Broad category of lymphoid malignancies that occur in both adults and children. |
| non-Hodgkin's disease | Broad category of lymphoid malignancies that occur in both adults and children. |
| osteogenic sarcoma | Most frequently occurring bone cancer that usually affects the lower extremities |
| prostatic hypertrophy | Disorder in which prostatic tissue hypertrophies, leading to an enlarged prostate |
| sarcomas | Primary cancers of the bone |
| pyloric stenosis | Disorder of early infancy that results from a hypertrophied pyloric sphincter. |
| uterine fibroids | Benign tumors that develop in the myometrium of the uterus. |
| Wilm's tumor | Most common childhood malignancy of the kidney; marked by the presence of an abdominal mass. |
| carcinogen | Substance that promotes cellular alterations that cause cancer |
| extrinsic (environmental) factors | Physical and chemical agents, socioeconomic status, cultural factors, and dietary factors that can cause abnormal cellular growth. |
| intrinsic factors | Factors such as age, physiology, immunological functioning, the presence of other illnesses, the site and degree of involvement of the growth, genetic predispositions, and psychological factors that can cause abnormal cellular growth. |
| immunocompromised | Status of a patient leading to a greater susceptibility to malignant abnormal cellular growth |
| analegesics | Medications used to control pain caused by the pressure and inflammation created by abnormal cellular growths |
| antineoplastic agents | Medications that have a cytotoxic effect and are used to kill malignant tumor cells |
| biopsy | Tissue sample for analysis by needle or surgery |
| biotherapy | Use of biologic response modifiers (BRMs) to manipulate the immune system of the patient and alter the patient’s biological response to cancer. |
| bone marrow transplant | Treatment in which a patient receives high doses of chemotherapy and/or radiation therapy that is sufficient to destroy the malignant cells; destroyed bone marrow is replaced with healthy bone marrow. |
| cell cycle phase nonspecific drugs | Chemotherapy drugs that are effective during all stages of the cell phases, whether the cell is dividing or resting. |
| cell cycle phase specific drugs | Chemotherapy drugs that are effective when the cells are dividing. |
| chemotherapy | Use of antineoplastic agents to fight abnormal cellular growth primarily by interfering with cellular reproduction, inhibiting DNA and RNA formation, and inhibiting protein formation |
| colony stimulating factors | Glycoprotein cytokines that are used to stimulate the growth of various blood cells. |
| colostomy | Surgical procedure that produces changes in bowel elimination. |
| cutative | Type of surgery performed for a neoplasm that is known to be completely resectable or removable through surgery. |
| cystectomy | Surgical procedure involving removal of the bladder. |
| cytokines | Proteins that are used to manipulate immune function |
| engraftment | Period between when the patient’s bone marrow is eradicated and when it is replaced by new, normally functioning bone marrow that can produce new blood cells. |
| hormonal therapy | Use of hormones or hormone-blocking agents to affect the growth of malignant abnormal cellular growth. |
| immunotherapy | Type of biotherapy used to stimulate immune response through the use of nonspecific immunotherapy agents |
| interferons (IFNs) | A type of cytokine used to facilitate cellular destruction and to inhibit cell multiplication. |
| interleukins (ILs) | A type of cytokine that acts by stimulating activity among the cells of the immune system. |
| laryngectomy | Surgical procedure that increases the ability to communicate,swallow, and breathe normally. |
| mastectomy | Surgical procedure involving removal of a breast. |
| monoclonal antibodies | Antibodies that are grown to target specific types of malignant cells and are currently used to help diagnose ovarian, prostate,and colorectal cancer. |
| nonopioid analgesics | Medications administered for mild to moderate pain that act primarily by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis and decreasing inflammation and/or by blocking peripheral pain impulses inflammation and/or by blocking peripheral pain impulses |
| opioid analgesics | Narcotics prescribed for severe pain that alter pain perception by acting upon the central nervous system. |
| palliative | Surgical procedure performed to reduce the patient’s symptoms or to provide a means for additional treatment. |
| peripheral blood stem cell bone marrow transplantation | New method that involves stimulating the production of the patient’s stem cells through the use of colony-stimulating factors |
| primary prevention | Emphasis on activities that prevent an individual’s exposure to risk factors that might lead to the development of cancer |
| prostatectomy | Surgical procedure that can produce sexual dysfunction |
| radiation therapy | Localized treatment that involves the use of radioactive agents to kill malignant cells. |
| restorative | Surgery for cosmetic reasons or to improve function |
| secondary prevention | Type of prevention that emphasizes the early detection and prompt treatment of cancer. |
| steroids | Medications with anti-inflammatory and selective cytotoxic effects. |
| benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) | Common male reproductive disorder caused by enlargement of prostatic tissue. |
| continous bladder irrigation system | System that consists of a three-way catheter with a bag of irrigating fluid attached to continuously irrigate the bladder and prevent clot formation |
| hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) | Congenital disorder of early infancy that results from hypertrophy of the pylorus muscle |
| transurethral resection of prostate (TURP) | Common surgical procedure for treatment of a hypertrophied prostate in which n endoscope is inserted through the urethra into the prostate, which is then removed |
| dyspareunia | Painful intercourse that is often a clinical manifestation of uterine fibroids. |
| fibrocystic breast disease | Benign breast disorder in which a woman develops cysts of various sizes. |
| gestational trophoblastic neoplasia | Represents several neoplastic diseases that result in an abnormal growth of the chorionic portion of the placenta |
| hydatidiform mole | Benign form of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia |
| hysterectomy | Removal of the uterus, often for treatment of fibroids |
| myomectomy | Removal of the fibroid that leaves the uterus intact |
| uterine fibroids | Benign tumors that develop in the myometrium of the uterus; also known as leiomyomas |
| alopecia | Hair loss that can occur as a result of chemotherapy or radiation therapy and may affect the patient psychologically |
| cachexia | Emaciation that can occur with cancer. |
| pain assessment scales | Methods by which the patient can rate the severity of pain, usually on a scale from zero to ten. |
| paitient controlled analgesia | Method of administering analgesia in which patients selfmedicate themselves within prescribed safety parameters |
| stomatitis | Inflammation of the oral tissues that can cause the patient to have difficulty eating |
| visual analogue scales (VAS) | Pain assessment scales, some of which include pictures of facial expressions to rate pain. |
| wet desquamation | Formation of blisters and weeping skin that can develop during radiation therapy |
| acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) | Type of leukemia that occurs most often in children and is marked by decreased production of normal cells and increased numbers of immature lymphocytes. |
| acute myeloid leukemia (AML) | Form of leukemia in which there is a defect in the hematopoietic stem cell that affects the normal production of all forms of cells. |
| alpha getoprotein | Tumor marker that is elevated in about 40 percent of the patients who have liver cancer. |
| antiandrogen agents | Hormones administered for the treatment of prostate cancer to suppress androgen production and slow the growth of the tumor. |
| astrocytoma | Most common type of glioma that grows slowly and infiltrates surrounding tissues |
| basal cell carcinoma | Type of skin cancer that most commonly occurs on the face and other sun-exposed areas, and resembles a small nodule that is waxy in appearance with pearly, translucent borders. |
| dumping syndrome | Condition that occurs when large boluses of food are moved rapidly out of the stomach into the jejunum, creating the hypertonic mass in the intestines, which draws extracellular fluid presence of a from the blood volume into the jejunum |
| glioblastoma | Highly malignant form of a glioma |
| ileal conduit | Most common form of urinary diversion in which a segment of the ileum is used as a passageway to carry urine from the ureters to the opening in the abdomen. |
| ileostomy | Creation of a stoma in the ileum or small intestine |
| lobectomy | Surgical procedure to treat lung cancer in which a single lobe of the lung is removed |
| lumpectomy | Cancer treatment that conserves breast tissue. |
| lyphedema | Swelling of an affected arm due to inadequate lymphatic and venous drainage. |
| malignant melanoma | Dangerous form of skin cancer that is the result of sun exposure or ultraviolet rays. |
| modified radical mastectomy | Removal of all of the breast tissue along with the axillary nodes |
| nodular melonoma | Round, raised smooth surface that is blue-black in color. |
| pneumoectomy | Surgical procedure to treat lung cancer in which the entire lung is removed. |
| radical prostatectomy | Removal of the prostate gland. |
| Reed- Sternberg cell | Large immature malignant lymphoid cell that is present with Hodgkin’s disease. |
| squamous cell carcinoma | Invasive type of skin cancer that can develop in normal skin and sun-damaged skin; cancers are thick, scaly, and rough, and may bleed. |
| superficial spreading melanoma | Most common type of melanoma; occurs on the trunk and lower extremities, and is circular with irregular edges. |
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